Neurology SBAs Flashcards

1
Q

Scenario: During a neurological examination of a horse, you observe a menace response in the left eye but not the right. All other cranial nerve functions appear normal.

Lead-in: Which cranial nerve is primarily being assessed by the menace response?

Options:

a) Optic nerve (CN II)
b) Oculomotor nerve (CN III)
c) Trochlear nerve (CN IV)
d) Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
e) Abducens nerve (CN VI)

A

Answer: a) Optic nerve (CN II)

Explanation: The menace response assesses the optic nerve (afferent pathway) and the facial nerve (efferent pathway). A lack of response suggests a lesion in either of these nerves or the pathways connecting them.

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2
Q

Scenario: A horse with a suspected neurological condition exhibits a head tilt and leans towards the left.

Lead-in: These clinical signs are most suggestive of dysfunction in which part of the nervous system?

Options:

a) Forebrain
b) Cerebellum
c) Vestibular system
d) Spinal cord
e) Peripheral nerves

A

Answer: c) Vestibular system

Explanation: Head tilt and leaning are classic signs of vestibular dysfunction, which is responsible for balance and spatial orientation.

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3
Q

Scenario: A horse with normal mentation shows ataxia characterised by crossing of the hind limbs and knuckling of the fetlocks.

Lead-in: This type of ataxia is most consistent with which type of neurological deficit?

Options:

a) Vestibular
b) Cerebellar
c) Spinal (proprioceptive)
d) Forebrain
e) Cranial nerve

A

Answer: c) Spinal (proprioceptive)

Explanation: Crossing of the limbs and knuckling are indicative of proprioceptive deficits, which result from dysfunction of the ascending pathways in the spinal cord.

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4
Q

Scenario: A young horse (2 years old) presents with progressive ataxia and weakness, particularly affecting the hind limbs. The horse has normal mentation.

Lead-in: Which of the following conditions is a common cause of this presentation in this age group?

Options:

a) Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalopathy (EPM)
b) Cervical Vertebral Compressive Myelopathy (CVCM)
c) Equine Herpesvirus Myeloencephalopathy (EHM)
d) Rabies
e) Tetanus

A

Answer: b) Cervical Vertebral Compressive Myelopathy (CVCM)

Explanation: Cervical Vertebral Compressive Myelopathy (CVCM), also known as Wobbler syndrome, is a common cause of progressive ataxia and weakness, especially in the hind limbs, in young horses.

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5
Q

Scenario: A horse develops acute onset ataxia, weakness, and urinary incontinence. The horse had a fever 5 days prior that resolved spontaneously.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely aetiology?

Options:

a) Head trauma
b) Hepatic encephalopathy
c) Equine Herpesvirus Myeloencephalopathy (EHM)
d) Rabies
e) Botulism

A

Answer: c) Equine Herpesvirus Myeloencephalopathy (EHM)

Explanation: The acute onset of neurological signs, particularly ataxia, weakness, and urinary incontinence, often following a fever, is highly suggestive of Equine Herpesvirus Myeloencephalopathy (EHM) due to EHV-1.

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6
Q

Scenario: A horse with normal mentation exhibits a wide-based stance and dysmetria (hypermetria).

Lead-in: These signs are most indicative of dysfunction in which part of the nervous system?

Options:

a) Spinal cord
b) Vestibular system
c) Cerebellum
d) Forebrain
e) Peripheral nerves

A

Answer: c) Cerebellum

Explanation: A wide-based stance and dysmetria (abnormal limb movements, often exaggerated) are characteristic signs of cerebellar ataxia.

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7
Q

Scenario: A horse shows involuntary, sudden, violent, repetitive movements of the head.

Lead-in: This clinical sign is characteristic of which condition?

Options:

a) Narcolepsy
b) Head-shaking
c) Shivers
d) Seizures
e) Vertigo

A

Answer: b) Head-shaking

Explanation: Head-shaking is defined by involuntary, sudden, violent, and repetitive movements of the head, which can be dorso-ventral, horizontal, or rotational.

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8
Q

Scenario: A horse suddenly collapses and appears to fall asleep during the day, but is easily rousable.

Lead-in: This clinical presentation is most consistent with which neurological condition?

Options:

a) Sleep deprivation
b) Narcolepsy
c) Seizures
d) Syncope
e) Catalepsy

A

Answer: b) Narcolepsy

Explanation: Narcolepsy in horses is characterised by sudden episodes of sleep during the day, often associated with cataplexy (sudden muscle weakness), and the horse is usually easily rousable.

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9
Q

Scenario: A horse exhibits a gait characterised by involuntary trembling of the hind limbs, particularly when asked to back up.

Lead-in: This gait abnormality is most suggestive of which condition?

Options:

a) Stringhalt
b) Shivers
c) Ataxia
d) Hypermetria
e) Hypometria

A

Answer: b) Shivers

Explanation: Shivers is a neuromuscular condition in horses characterised by involuntary trembling of the hind limbs, often most apparent when backing or lifting a hind limb.

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10
Q

Scenario: A horse with reduced mentation is exhibiting compulsive circling to the right and appears blind, but has normal pupillary light reflexes.

Lead-in: These signs are most suggestive of a lesion in which part of the brain?

Options:

a) Brainstem
b) Cerebellum
c) Left forebrain
d) Right forebrain
e) Spinal cord

A

Answer: d) Right forebrain

Explanation: Circling is often towards the side of a forebrain lesion. Blindness with normal pupillary light reflexes suggests a central (forebrain) lesion affecting vision pathways. Reduced mentation also points to forebrain involvement.

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11
Q

Scenario: A horse with a history of liver disease develops neurological signs including head pressing and aimless wandering.

Lead-in: What is the most likely underlying cause of these neurological signs?

Options:

a) Head trauma
b) Rabies
c) Hepatic encephalopathy
d) West Nile Virus
e) Tetanus

A

Answer: c) Hepatic encephalopathy

Explanation: Hepatic encephalopathy occurs due to the accumulation of toxins in the bloodstream that are normally cleared by the liver, leading to neurological signs such as altered mentation, head pressing, and ataxia.

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12
Q

Scenario: A horse that recently sustained a head injury is obtunded and has anisocoria (unequal pupil size).

Lead-in: Anisocoria in this context most likely indicates which of the following?

Options:

a) Cerebellar dysfunction
b) Increased intracranial pressure
c) Vestibular disease
d) Spinal cord trauma
e) Peripheral nerve damage

A

Answer: b) Increased intracranial pressure

Explanation: Anisocoria following head trauma can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, potentially due to brain swelling or haemorrhage, affecting the oculomotor nerve.

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13
Q

Scenario: A horse presents with muscle stiffness, a sawhorse stance, and prolapse of the third eyelid. The owner reports a recent wound.

Lead-in: These clinical signs are highly suggestive of which condition?

Options:

a) Botulism
b) Rabies
c) Tetanus
d) West Nile Virus
e) Equine Encephalomyelitis

A

Answer: c) Tetanus

Explanation: The clinical signs of muscle stiffness, sawhorse stance, prolapse of the third eyelid, and a history of a wound are classic for tetanus, caused by the neurotoxin tetanospasmin.

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14
Q

Scenario: A horse develops progressive paralysis, starting with the tail and progressing to involve the limbs. The horse is bright and alert.

Lead-in: This clinical presentation is most consistent with which condition?

Options:

a) Tetanus
b) Rabies
c) Botulism
d) Equine Herpesvirus Myeloencephalopathy (EHM)
e) West Nile Virus

A

Answer: c) Botulism

Explanation: Botulism, caused by the neurotoxin botulinum, leads to progressive, flaccid paralysis, often starting with the tail and progressing cranially. Mentation usually remains normal.

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15
Q

Scenario: A horse that was grazing in a field develops ataxia, muscle tremors, and a stilted gait. The pasture contains perennial ryegrass.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of these neurological signs?

Options:

a) Tetanus
b) Botulism
c) Ryegrass staggers
d) Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalopathy (EPM)
e) West Nile Virus

A

Answer: c) Ryegrass staggers

Explanation: Ryegrass staggers is a neurological condition in horses caused by toxins produced by endophytes in perennial ryegrass, leading to ataxia, tremors, and a stilted gait.

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16
Q

Scenario: A horse with suspected neurological disease has a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) tap performed.

Lead-in: What is the most common site for CSF collection in the standing sedated horse?

Options:

a) Atlanto-occipital space
b) Lumbo-sacral space
c) Cervical vertebrae (C6-C7)
d) Thoracic vertebrae (T10-T11)
e) Coccygeal vertebrae

A

Answer: a) Atlanto-occipital space

Explanation: The atlanto-occipital space, located between the occipital bone and the atlas (first cervical vertebra), is the most common and safest site for CSF collection in the standing sedated horse.

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17
Q

Scenario: A horse with ataxia has a CSF tap performed. The CSF analysis reveals increased protein and a mononuclear pleocytosis.

Lead-in: These findings are most consistent with which type of neurological condition?

Options:

a) Toxin-induced neuropathy
b) Viral encephalitis/myelitis or protozoal myelitis
c) Cerebellar degeneration
d) Traumatic brain injury
e) Metabolic encephalopathy

A

Answer: b) Viral encephalitis/myelitis or protozoal myelitis

Explanation: Increased protein and a mononuclear pleocytosis in the CSF are typical findings in inflammatory neurological conditions such as viral encephalitis/myelitis (e.g., EEE, WEE, WNV) or protozoal myelitis (EPM).

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18
Q

Scenario: A horse with suspected Cervical Vertebral Compressive Myelopathy (CVCM) undergoes cervical radiography.

Lead-in: What is a key radiographic finding suggestive of CVCM?

Options:

a) Fractured cervical vertebra
b) Osteoarthritis of the cervical facet joints
c) Narrowing of the vertebral canal
d) Presence of a vertebral abscess
e) Luxation of the atlanto-occipital joint

A

Answer: c) Narrowing of the vertebral canal

Explanation: Cervical radiography in horses with CVCM may reveal a narrowing of the vertebral canal, particularly at specific vertebral junctions, leading to compression of the spinal cord.

19
Q

Scenario: A horse with head trauma is comatose and has fixed, dilated pupils.

Lead-in: These signs indicate a poor prognosis and suggest severe damage to which part of the brain?

Options:

a) Cerebellum
b) Forebrain
c) Brainstem
d) Spinal cord
e) Peripheral nerves

A

Answer: c) Brainstem

Explanation: Fixed and dilated pupils in a comatose horse with head trauma suggest severe brainstem damage, which carries a grave prognosis due to the brainstem’s role in vital functions.

20
Q

Scenario: A horse with suspected Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalopathy (EPM) is being evaluated.

Lead-in: Which of the following is a common diagnostic test for EPM?

Options:

a) Complete blood count
b) Serum biochemistry panel
c) Antibody testing in serum and cerebrospinal fluid
d) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
e) Muscle biopsy

A

Answer: c) Antibody testing in serum and cerebrospinal fluid

Explanation: Diagnosis of EPM often involves testing for antibodies against Sarcocystis neurona in both serum and cerebrospinal fluid to assess for exposure and potential central nervous system involvement.

21
Q

Scenario: A horse with head-shaking is being investigated.

Lead-in: Which nerve is responsible?

Options:

a) Olfactory nerve (CN I)
b) Optic nerve (CN II)
c) Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
d) Facial nerve (CN VII)
e) Vagus nerve (CN X)

A

Answer: c) Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

Explanation: Trigeminal-mediated head-shaking is thought to involve abnormal sensory function of the trigeminal nerve, leading to facial pain or paraesthesia.

22
Q

Scenario: A horse with suspected botulism is presented.

Lead-in: What is a characteristic clinical sign of botulism in horses?

Options:

a) Muscle rigidity
b) Hypermetria
c) Progressive, flaccid paralysis
d) Seizures
e) Head tilt

A

Answer: c) Progressive, flaccid paralysis

Explanation: Botulism causes a progressive, flaccid paralysis due to the botulinum toxin blocking the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions.

23
Q

Scenario: A horse with a neurological condition is being assessed for prognosis.

Lead-in: Which of the following is generally considered a poor prognostic indicator in horses with neurological disease?

Options:

a) Normal mentation
b) Presence of cranial nerve deficits
c) Ambulatory status
d) Improvement with treatment
e) Acute onset of signs

A

Answer: b) Presence of cranial nerve deficits

Explanation: Cranial nerve deficits often indicate involvement of the brainstem, which controls vital functions, and their presence is generally associated with a poorer prognosis in horses with neurological disease.

24
Q

Scenario: A horse with suspected Vitamin E deficiency myeloencephalopathy is being evaluated.

Lead-in: Which of the following breeds has a recognised predisposition for this condition?

Options:

a) Thoroughbred
b) Standardbred
c) Arabian
d) Warmblood
e) Friesian

A

Answer: d) Warmblood

Explanation: Warmblood horses, particularly during pregnancy, have been recognised to be predisposed to Vitamin E deficiency myeloencephalopathy.

25
Scenario: A horse with a neurological condition is undergoing diagnostic evaluation. Lead-in: Which advanced imaging technique is considered the gold standard for evaluating the equine brain? Options: a) Radiography b) Ultrasound c) Computed tomography (CT) d) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) e) Nuclear scintigraphy
Answer: d) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Explanation: MRI provides the most detailed images of soft tissues, including the brain, and is considered the gold standard for evaluating equine brain pathology, although access may be limited due to patient size and the need for general anaesthesia. Sources and related content
26
Scenario: You need to obtain a basic radiographic view of a horse's distal limb from the front. Lead-in: Which radiographic view would you typically take? Options: a) Lateromedial b) Dorsopalmar/Dorsoplantar c) Plantarodorsal d) Oblique e) Skyline
Answer: b) Dorsopalmar/Dorsoplantar Explanation: A Dorsopalmar (DP) view is the basic radiographic view taken from the front of the distal limb (forelimb or hindlimb).
27
Scenario: You suspect a fracture of the proximal interphalangeal joint (pastern) in a horse. Lead-in: Which basic radiographic view is essential for evaluating this joint? Options: a) Dorsopalmar only b) Lateromedial only c) Both Dorsopalmar and Lateromedial views d) Oblique views only e) Skyline view
Answer: c) Both Dorsopalmar and Lateromedial views Explanation: For most anatomical areas, including the pastern, it is essential to obtain at least two orthogonal views, typically a Dorsopalmar/Dorsoplantar and a Lateromedial view, for a complete evaluation.
28
Scenario: You need to assess the palmar/plantar aspect of the fetlock region in a horse. Lead-in: Which oblique radiographic view is specifically recommended for this purpose? Options: a) Dorsolateral-palmaromedial oblique (DLPMO) b) Dorsomedial-palmarolateral oblique (DMPLO) c) Lateromedial oblique d) Palmarodorsal oblique e) Skyline oblique
Answer: a) Dorsolateral-palmaromedial oblique (DLPMO) Explanation: The Dorsolateral-palmaromedial oblique (DLPMO) view is useful for highlighting the palmarolateral aspect of the fetlock and the dorsomedial aspect.
29
Scenario: You suspect a fracture of the third carpal bone in a horse. Lead-in: Which radiographic view of the carpus is particularly useful for identifying slab fractures? Options: a) Dorsopalmar b) Lateromedial c) Flexed lateromedial d) Dorsolateral-palmaromedial oblique e) Skyline
Answer: c) Flexed lateromedial Explanation: A flexed lateromedial view of the carpus can help to open up the joint spaces and better visualise slab fractures of the carpal bones.
30
Scenario: You need to evaluate the olecranon process for a suspected fracture. Lead-in: Which radiographic view of the elbow is typically obtained? Options: a) Craniocaudal b) Dorsoventral c) Lateromedial d) Oblique e) Skyline
Answer: c) Lateromedial Explanation: A Lateromedial view is the standard radiographic projection for evaluating the elbow joint and the olecranon process.  
31
Scenario: You are radiographing a horse's shoulder to investigate a suspected fracture of the greater tubercle of the humerus. Lead-in: Which radiographic view is recommended for this specific evaluation? Options: a) Lateromedial b) Craniocaudal c) Skyline d) Caudocranial e) Dorsopalmar
Answer: a) Lateromedial Explanation: A Lateromedial view of the shoulder is recommended to visualise the greater tubercle of the humerus
32
Scenario: You suspect osteoarthritis in the distal intertarsal and tarsometatarsal joints of a horse's hock. Lead-in: Which radiographic view is most useful for evaluating these specific joints? Options: a) Dorsoplantar b) Lateromedial c) Dorsolateral-plantaromedial oblique d) Plantarodorsal oblique e) Skyline
Answer: c) Dorsolateral-plantaromedial oblique Explanation: The Dorsolateral-plantaromedial oblique (DLPMO) view of the hock is particularly useful for evaluating the dorsomedial aspect of the distal intertarsal and tarsometatarsal joints.  
33
Scenario: You need to assess the lateral trochlear ridge of the distal femur in a horse with stifle lameness. Lead-in: Which radiographic view of the stifle is recommended to highlight this structure? Options: a) Craniocaudal b) Lateromedial c) Skyline d) Caudocranial e) Flexed lateromedial
Answer: a) Craniocaudal Explanation: A Craniocaudal view of the stifle allows for good visualisation of the lateral trochlear ridge of the distal femur.
34
Scenario: You are taking standard radiographs of a horse's foot to investigate chronic lameness. Lead-in: Which of the following is a standard radiographic view of the equine foot? Options: a) Dorsolateral-palmaromedial oblique b) Skyline view of the carpus c) Lateromedial view of the stifle d) Upright pedal bone view e) Flexed lateromedial view of the elbow
Answer: d) Upright pedal bone view Explanation: The upright pedal bone view is one of the standard radiographic views used to evaluate the equine foot.  
35
Scenario: You suspect a fracture of the extensor process of the distal phalanx (pedal bone). Lead-in: Which radiographic view is best for visualising this specific area? Options: a) Lateromedial b) Dorsopalmar c) Upright pedal bone view d) Palmarodorsal 65° view e) Skyline view of the navicular bone
Answer: d) Palmarodorsal 65° view Explanation: A Palmarodorsal 65° view (high coronary view) is recommended to best visualise the extensor process of the distal phalanx.  
36
Scenario: You need to assess the flexor surface of the navicular bone for signs of degeneration. Lead-in: Which radiographic view is specifically designed for this purpose? Options: a) Lateromedial view b) Dorsopalmar view c) Upright pedal bone view d) Palmarodorsal 65° view e) Flexor radiographic view of the navicular bone
Answer: e) Flexor radiographic view of the navicular bone Explanation: The flexor radiographic view of the navicular bone is taken with the beam directed at a specific angle to best evaluate the flexor surface and cortico-medullary junction.  
37
Scenario: You are asked to radiograph a horse's head to investigate a suspected sinus infection. Lead-in: Which basic radiographic view is typically obtained for this purpose? Options: a) Dorsoventral b) Laterolateral c) Rostrocaudal d) Ventrodorsal e) Oblique
Answer: b) Laterolateral Explanation: A Laterolateral view is a basic projection used for radiography of the equine head to evaluate the sinuses.
38
Scenario: You need to evaluate the vertebral canal of the cervical spine for potential narrowing in a horse with ataxia. Lead-in: Which radiographic view of the cervical spine is typically used as a screening view for this purpose? Options: a) Laterolateral b) Dorsoventral c) Oblique d) Flexed lateral e) Extended lateral
Answer: a) Laterolateral Explanation: A Laterolateral view of the cervical spine is commonly used as an initial screening view to assess the vertebral canal.  
39
Scenario: You suspect osteoarthritis in the articular process joints of the cervical vertebrae. Lead-in: Which oblique radiographic view is recommended to best visualise these joints? Options: a) Laterolateral b) Dorsoventral c) Ventrodorsal d) Rostrocaudal e) Right ventrolateral-left dorsolateral oblique (RV-LDO)
Answer: e) Right ventrolateral-left dorsolateral oblique (RV-LDO) Explanation: Oblique views, such as the Right ventrolateral-left dorsolateral oblique (RV-LDO), are used to outline the articular processes and their joint spaces in the cervical spine
40
Scenario: You are preparing to take radiographs of a horse's back to investigate a suspected fracture of a lumbar vertebra. Lead-in: Due to the thickness of the equine back, what equipment is often necessary to obtain diagnostic images? Options: a) A portable X-ray unit only b) A high-powered stationary X-ray unit and grids c) Only digital radiography plates d) Ultrasound guidance e) Nuclear scintigraphy
Answer: b) A high-powered stationary X-ray unit and grids Explanation: Due to the significant soft tissue thickness in the equine back, a high-powered stationary X-ray unit and the use of grids are often required to obtain diagnostic radiographs of the lumbar vertebrae.  
41
Scenario: You have positioned a horse for a Lateromedial radiographic view of the carpus. Lead-in: Where should the X-ray beam be centred for this view? Options: a) Proximal to the carpus b) At the level of the carpus c) Distal to the carpus d) Over the metacarpophalangeal joint e) Over the radius and ulna
Answer: b) At the level of the carpus Explanation: For a Lateromedial view of the carpus, the X-ray beam should be centred over the mid-carpal joint.  
42
Scenario: You are taking a Dorsoplantar radiographic view of a horse's hind foot. Lead-in: Where should the cassette be positioned for this view? Options: a) On the dorsal surface of the foot b) On the plantar surface of the foot c) Laterally to the foot d) Medially to the foot e) Proximal to the fetlock
Answer: b) On the plantar surface of the foot Explanation: For a Dorsoplantar view, the cassette is placed on the plantar surface of the foot, and the beam is directed from the dorsal aspect.  
43
Scenario: You are reviewing a radiograph of a horse's foot and need to identify the distal phalanx. Lead-in: What is another common name for the distal phalanx in the horse? Options: a) Long pastern bone b) Short pastern bone c) Coffin bone d) Cannon bone e) Splint bone
Answer: c) Coffin bone Explanation: The distal phalanx (P3) is also commonly known as the coffin bone.  
44
Scenario: You are explaining to a horse owner the need for radiographs to diagnose a suspected fracture. Lead-in: What is the primary principle behind using radiography to identify fractures? Options: a) Radiographs show soft tissue swelling. b) Radiographs can detect increased blood flow to an area of injury. c) Radiographs can visualise differences in tissue density, with bone appearing more radiopaque. d) Radiographs can assess nerve damage associated with trauma. e) Radiographs can identify inflammation within joints.
Answer: c) Radiographs can visualise differences in tissue density, with bone appearing more radiopaque. Explanation: Radiography works by using X-rays that are absorbed differently by tissues of varying densities. Bone absorbs more X-rays than soft tissues, causing it to appear whiter (more radiopaque) on the radiographic image, thus allowing for the identification of fractures