Neurology Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of oligodendroglia?

A

myelinates axons of neurons in CNS

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2
Q

Can each oligodendrocyte myelinate more than one axon? If so, how many?

A

each oligodendrocyte can myelinate many axons, about 30 each

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3
Q

Where are oligodendroglia derived from?

A

neuroectoderm

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4
Q

What do oligodendroglia look like histologically

A

fried egg appearance

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5
Q

What three diseases cause damage to the oligodendrocytes?

A

multiple sclerosis, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), leukodystrophies

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6
Q

What type of sensory neuron fiber do free nerve endings have?

A

C-slow, unmyelinated fibers and Adelta-fast, myelinated fibers

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7
Q

Where are free nerve endings located?

A

all skin, epidermis, some viscera

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8
Q

What do free nerve endings sense?

A

pain, temperature

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9
Q

What type of sensory neuron fiber do Meissner corpuscles have?

A

large, myelinated fibers that adapt quickly

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10
Q

Where are Meissner corpuscles located?

A

Glabrous (hairless) skin

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11
Q

What do Meissner corpuscles sense?

A

dynamic, fine/light touch, position sense

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12
Q

What typ of sensory neuron fiber makes up Pacinian corpuscles?

A

large, myelinated fibers that adapt quickly

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13
Q

Where are Pacinian corpuscles located?

A

deep skin layers, ligaments, joints

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14
Q

What do Pacinian corpuscles sense?

A

vibration, pressure

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15
Q

What type of sensory neuron fiber type makes up Merkel discs?

A

large, myelinated fibers; adapt slowly

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16
Q

Where are Merkel discs located?

A

finger tips, superficial skin

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17
Q

What do Merkel discs sense?

A

pressure, deep static touch (eg shapes, edges), position sense

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18
Q

What type of sensory neuron fiber makes up Ruffini corpuscles?

A

dendritic endings with capsule that adapt slowly

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19
Q

Where are Ruffini corpuscles located?

A

finger tips, joints

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20
Q

What do Ruffini corpuscles sense?

A

pressure, slippage of objects along surface of skin, joint angle change

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21
Q

What three layers make up the peripheral nerve?

A

endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium

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22
Q

Define endoneurium

A

invests single nerve fiber layers

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23
Q

What disease leads to inflammatory infiltrate in of endoneurium?

A

Guillan Barre syndrome

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24
Q

Define Perineurium

A

surrounds a fascicle of nerve fibers (permeability barrier)

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25
Q

What layer of the peripheral nerve must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment?

A

perineurium

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26
Q

Define epineurium

A

dense connective tissue that surrounds entire nerve (fascicles and blood vessels)

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27
Q

Where is acetylcholine synthesized?

A

basal nucleus of Meynert

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28
Q

What two disease have a decrease in acetylcholine?

A

alzheimer disease and huntington disease

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29
Q

What disease has and increase in acetylcholine?

A

parkinson disease

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30
Q

Where is dopamine synthesized?

A

ventral tegmentum, SNpc

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31
Q

What diseases see an increase in dopamine?

A

schizophrenia and huntington disease

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32
Q

What diseases see a decrease in dopamine?

A

depression and parkinson disease

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33
Q

Where is GABA synthesized?

A

nucleus accumbens

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34
Q

What diseases see a decrease in GABA?

A

anxiety and huntington disease

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35
Q

Where is norepinephrine synthesized?

A

locus ceruleus

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36
Q

What disease has an increase in norepinephrine?

A

anxiety

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37
Q

What disease has a decrease in norepinephrine?

A

depression

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38
Q

Where is serotonin synthesized?

A

raphe nucleus

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39
Q

What disease has an increase in serotonin?

A

parkinson disease

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40
Q

What diseases show a decrease in serotonin?

A

anxiety and depression

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41
Q

What is the function of the blood brain barrier?

A

prevents circulating blood substances (eg bacteria, drugs) from reaching the CSF/CNS

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42
Q

What three structures form the blood brain barrier?

A

tight junctions between nonfenestrated capillary endothelial cells, basement membrane, astrocyte food processes

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43
Q

How do glucose and amino acids cross the blood brain barrier? quickly or slowly?

A

glucose and amino acids slowly cross the blood brain barrier by carrier mediated transport mechanisms

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44
Q

How do nonpolar/lipid-soluble substances cross the blood brain barrier? quickly or slowly?

A

nonpolar/lipid-soluble substances cross rapidly via diffusion

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45
Q

Name the few specialized brain regions with fenestrated capillaries and no blood-brain barrier allowing molecules in blood to affect brain function:

A

area postrema to cause vomiting after chemo, OVLT (organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis) for osmotic sensing and neurosecretory products to enter circulation (eg neurohyphysis to ADH release)

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46
Q

Name two other notable barriers other than the blood brain barrier

A

blood-testis barrier and maternal-fetal barrier of placenta

47
Q

What destroys endothelial cell tight junctions and leads to vasogenic edema?

A

infarction and or neoplasm

48
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

TAN HATS: Thirst and water balance, Adenohypophysis control (regulates anterior pituitary), Neurohypophysis releases hormones produced in the hypothalamus, Hunger, Autonomic regulation, Temperature regulation, Sexual urges

49
Q

What are inputs to the hypothalamus (not protected by blood brain barrier)?

A

OVLT (organum vasculosum of the lamina terminus) sense changes in osmolarity, area postrema (found in medulla, responds to emetics)

50
Q

What primarily makes ADH?

A

supraoptic nucleus

51
Q

What primarily makes oxytocin?

A

paraventricular nucleus

52
Q

What also makes ADH and oxytocin?

A

hypothalamus

53
Q

How are ADH and oxytocin carried to the posterior pituitary?

A

ADH and oxytocin are carried by neurophysins down axons to posterior pituitary, where they are stored and released

54
Q

What is the function of the lateral area?

A

Hunger

55
Q

What happens in destruction of the lateral area?

A

anorexia, failure to thrive in infants,

56
Q

What stimulates the lateral area? what in inhibits it?

A

the lateral area is stimulated by ghrelin and inhibited by leptin

57
Q

What is the function of the ventromedial area?

A

satiety

58
Q

What happens in destruction of the ventromedial area (eg cranipharyngioma)?

A

hyperphagia

59
Q

What stimulates the ventromedial area?

A

leptin

60
Q

What is the function of the anterior hypothalamus (clue: opposite of the posterior hypothalamus)?

A

cooling, parasympathetic

61
Q

What is the function of posterior hypothalamus (clue: opposite of the anterior hypothalamus)?

A

heating, sympathetic

62
Q

What is the function of the suprachiasmatic nucleus?

A

circadian rhythm

63
Q

What regulates the suprachiasmatic nucleus?

A

light

64
Q

What is the cascade that starts from the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) to end with melatonin release?

A

SCN to norepinephrine to pineal gland to melatonin

65
Q

What four things does circadian rhythm cause nocturnal release of?

A

ACTH, prolactin, melatonin and norepinephrine

66
Q

What are the two stages of sleep?

A

rapid eye movement (REM) and non-REM

67
Q

What causes the extraocular movements during REM sleep?

A

activity of the paramedian pontine reticular formation/conjugate gaze center PPRF

68
Q

How often does REMP sleep occur throughout the night? and does it increase or decrease throughout the night?

A

every 90 minutes and increases in duration during the night

69
Q

What is increased during REM?

A

Ach

70
Q

What three substances are associated with decrease in REM sleep and delta wave sleep?

A

alcohol, benzodiazepines and barbituates

71
Q

What leads to decreased during REM?

A

Norepinephrine

72
Q

What do you use to treat bedwetting (enuresis)?

A

oral desmopressin (ADH analog); preferred over imipramine because of adverse effects

73
Q

What is helpful in treating night terrors and sleepwalking?

A

benzodiazepines

74
Q

What are the 4 stages of sleep?

A

awake (eyes open), awake (eyes closed), non-REM sleep (N1, N2, N3) and REM sleep

75
Q

What percentage is in each stage of Non-REM sleep?

A

Stage N1 is 5%, Stage N2 is 45% and Stage N3 is 25%

76
Q

Describe the awake stage of sleep?

A

alert, active mental concentration

77
Q

What type of EEG waveform is associated with awake (eyes open)?

A

Beta (highest frequency, lowest amplitude)

78
Q

What type of EEG waveform is associated with awake (eyes closed)

A

Alpha

79
Q

Describe stage N1 of Non-REM sleep

A

light sleep

80
Q

What type of EEG waveform is associated with N1?

A

Theta

81
Q

Describe stage N2 of Non-REM sleep

A

deeper sleep; when bruxism (involuntary or habitual grinding of the teeth) occurs

82
Q

What type of EEG waveform is associated with N2?

A

sleep spindles and K complexes

83
Q

What type of EEG waveform is associated with N3?

A

delta (lowest frequency, highest amplitude)

84
Q

Describe stage N3 of Non-REM sleep

A

deepest non-REM sleep (slow-wave sleep); when sleepwalking, night terrors, and bedwetting occur

85
Q

What percentage of sleep is REM sleep?

A

25%

86
Q

Describe REM sleep

A

loss of motor tone, increase use of brain oxygen, increase variable pulse and blood pressure; when dreaming, nightmares, and penile/clitoral tumescence (engorgement) occur; may serve memory processing function

87
Q

What type of EEG waves during REM sleep?

A

Beta

88
Q

What are all the wave forms during sleep?

A

Beta, Alpha, Theta, Sleep spindles and K complexes, Delta, Beta (at night BATS Drink Blood)

89
Q

What is the input to the ventral posterolateral nucleus?

A

spinothalamic and dorsal columns/medial leminiscus

90
Q

What is sensed in the ventral posterolateral nucleus?

A

pain, temperature; pressure, touch, vibration, proprioception

91
Q

What is the destination of the ventral posterolateral nucleus?

A

primary somatosensory cortex

92
Q

What is the input to the ventral posteroMedial nucleus?

A

trigeminal and gustatory pathway

93
Q

What senses to the ventral posteroMedial nucleus?

A

Face sensation, taste

94
Q

What is the destination of the ventral posteroMedial nucleus?

A

primary somatosensory cortex

95
Q

What is the input to the lateral geniculate nucleus?

A

CN II (optic)

96
Q

What is the sense of the lateral geniculate nucleus?

A

vision

97
Q

What is the destination of the lateral geniculate nucleus?

A

calcarine sulcus

98
Q

What is the input to the medial geniculate nucleus?

A

superior olive and inferior colliculus of tectum

99
Q

What is sensed in the medial geniculate nucleus?

A

hearing

100
Q

Where is the destination of the medial geniculate nucleus?

A

auditory cortex of the temporal lobe

101
Q

What is the input to the ventral lateral nucleus?

A

basal ganglia, cerebellum

102
Q

What is sensed by the ventral lateral nucleus?

A

motor

103
Q

What is the destination of the ventral lateral nucleus?

A

motor cortex

104
Q

Define the limbic system

A

collection of neural structures involved in emotion, long-term memory, olfaction, behavior modulation, ANS function

105
Q

What structures make up the limbic system?

A

hippocampus, amygdala, fornix, mammillary bodies, cingulate gyrus,

106
Q

What system is responsible for Feeding, Fleeing, Fighting, Feeling and Sex (famous 5 F’s)?

A

Limbic system

107
Q

What pathways are commonly altered by drugs (antipsychotics) and movement disorders (Parkinson disease)?

A

Dopaminergic pathways

108
Q

What symptoms of altered activity do you see with the mesocortical pathway?

A

decreased activity (negative symptoms: flat affect, limited speech); limited effect by antipsychotic drugs

109
Q

What symptoms of altered activity do you see with the mesolimbic pathway?

A

increased activity (positive symptoms: delusions, hallucinations)

110
Q

What is the primary therapeutic target of antipsychotic drugs to decrease positive symptoms (eg in schizophrenia)?

A

mesolimbic system

111
Q

What symptoms of altered activity do you see with the nigrostriatal pathway?

A

decreased activity (extrapyramidal symptoms: dystonia, akathisia-agitation, distress, restlessness-parkinsonism, tardive dyskinesia-involuntary movements)

112
Q

Name the major dopaminergic pathway in the brain that significantly is affected by movement disorders and antipsychotic drugs

A

nigrostriatal pathway

113
Q

What symptoms of altered activity do you see with the tuberinfundibular pathway?

A

decreased activity to increased prolactin to decreased libido, sexual dysfunction, galactorrhea, gynecomastia (in men)