Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What are 5-HT3 antagonists, examples and adverse effects?

A
  • anti-emetics
  • chemotherapy related nausea
  • ondansetron, graniestron
  • ADR: constipation, prolonged QT
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2
Q

What are absence seizures, features and management?

A
  • generalised epilepsy mostly seen in children
  • unaware, quick, triggered by hyperventilation or stress
  • EEG: bilateral, symmetrical 3Hz spike and wave pattern
  • manage with ethosuximide
  • alternatively sodium valproate in male and lamotrigine/levetiracetam in females
  • exacerbated by carabamazpine
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3
Q

Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia:

A
  • lesion of superior temporal gyrus
  • inferior division of left MCA
  • sentences make no sense but speech remains fluent
  • comprehension impaired
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4
Q

Broca’s (expressive) aphasia:

A
  • lesion of inferior frontal gyrus
  • superior division of left MCA
  • speech non-fluent, repetition impaired
  • normal comprehension
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5
Q

Conduction aphasia:

A
  • stroke affecting arcuate fascicles (connecting Wernicke’s and Broca’s)
  • speech fluent but repetition poor
  • aware of errors
  • normal comprehension
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6
Q

Global aphasia:

A
  • large lesion affecting all 3 areas
  • severe expression and receptive aphasia
  • can communicate using gestures
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7
Q

What is an Arnold-Chiari malformation and features:

A
  • downward displacement or herniation of cerebellar tonsils through foramen magnum
  • congenital or trauma
  • non-communicating hydrocephalus due to CSF outflow obstruction
  • headache
  • syringomyelia
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8
Q

What causes ataxia?

A
  • cerebellar hemisphere lesions cause peripheral ataxia

- cerebellar vermis lesions cause gait ataxia

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9
Q

Ataxia Telangiectasia

A
  • autosomal recessive
  • defect in ATM gene coding for DNA repair enzymes
  • early childhood with abnormal movements
  • IgA deficiency resulting in recurrent chest infections
  • 10% risk of malignancy, lymphoma, leukaemia and non-lymphoid tumours
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10
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia

A
  • spinal cord injury above T6
  • briefly afferent signals cause sympathetic spinal reflex
  • triggered by faecal impaction or urinary retention
  • cord lesion prevents parasympathetic response
  • causes extreme hypertension, flushing and sweating above level of lesion
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11
Q

What are the features of Bell’s palsy?

A
  • acute, unilateral, idiopathic, facial nerve paralysis
  • lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy (including forehead)
  • post-auricular pain (may precede paralysis), altered taste, dry eyes, hyperacusis
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12
Q

How do you manage Bell’s palsy?

A

prednisolone 1mg/kg for 10 days within 73 hours of onset

acyclovir no benefit

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13
Q

What is Erb-Duchenne paralysis?

A
  • damage to C5-6 roots
  • winged scapula
  • may be caused by breech presentation
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14
Q

What is Klumpke’s paralysis?

A
  • damage to T1
  • loss of intrinsic hand muscles
  • due to traction
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15
Q

What can cause brain abscesses?

A
  • extension of sepsis from middle ear or sinuses
  • trauma or surgery to scalp
  • penetrating head injuries
  • embolic events from endocarditis
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16
Q

Features of brain abscesses:

A
  • headache
  • fever
  • focal neurology
  • raised ICP: nausea, papilloedema, seizures
17
Q

Management of brain abscesses:

A
  • surgery: craniotomy and debridement
  • IV antibiotics: IV 3rd generation cephalosporin and metronidazole
  • ICP management e.g. dexamethasone
18
Q

Parietal lobe lesion symptoms:

A
  • sensory inattention
  • apraxia
  • astereognosis
  • inferior homonymous quadrantopia
  • Gerstmann’s syndrome (dominant parietal): alexia, acalculia, finger agnosia and right-left disorientation
19
Q

Occipital lobe lesion symptoms:

A
  • homonymous hemianopia (with macula sparing)
  • cortical blindness
  • visual agnosia
20
Q

Temporal lobe lesions:

A
  • Wernicke’s aphasia
  • superior homonymous quadrantopia
  • auditory agnosia
  • prosopagnosia
21
Q

Frontal lobe lesions:

A
  • Broca’s aphasia
  • disinhibition
  • perseveration
  • anosmia
  • inability to generate list
22
Q

Cerebellum lesions:

A
  • midline lesions: gait and truncal ataxia

- hemisphere lesions: intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, nystagmus

23
Q

What condition is associated with the sub thalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia?

A

Hemiballism

24
Q

What conditions is associated with the striatum of the basal ganglia?

A

Huntington’s chorea

25
What condition is associated with the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia?
Parkinson's
26
What condition is associated with the amygdala?
Kluver-Bucy syndrome: hyper sexuality, hyperorality, hyperplasia, visual agnosia
27
Which cancer spreads most commonly to the brain?
lung | also breast, bowel, skin and kidney
28
Which primary brain tumour is the most common in adults?
- glioblastoma - solid tumours with central necrosis and rim - vasogenic oedema - pleomorphic tumour cells
29
Which is the second most common primary brain tumour in adults?
- meningioma - typically benign - arise from dura of meninges - symptoms of compression rather than invasion - spindle cells in concentric whorls and calcified bodies
30
What is a vestibular schwannoma?
(acoustic neuroma) - benign tumour arising from vestibulocochlear nerve - seen in cerebellopontine angle - presents with hearing loss, facial nerve palsy and tinnitus - bilateral assoc with neurofibromatosis type II - Antoni A or B patterns and verocay bodies seen
31
What is the most common primary brain tumour in children?
- pilocytic astrocytoma | - rosenthal fibres
32
What is a medulloblastoma?
- aggressive paediatric tumour - infratentorial compartment - spreads through CSF - small blue cells, rosette pattern of cells
33
What is an ependymoma?
- 4th ventricle - may cause hydrocephalus - perivascular pseudoreosettes
34
What is an oligodendroma?
- benign, slow-growing tumour common in frontal lobes | - calcifications with fried egg appearance
35
What is a haemangioblastoma?
- vascular tumour of cerebellum - associated with von Hippel-Lindau - foam cells and high vascularity
36
What is a craniopharyngioma?
- most common paediatric supratentorial tumour - solid, cystic tumour of cellar region derived from remnants of Rathke's pouch - hormonal disturbance, hydrocephalus, bitemporal hemianopia
37
What is Brown-Sequard syndrome?
- lateral hemisection of spinal cord - ipsilateral weakness below lesion - ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration sensation - contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
38
Indications of carbamazepine, mechanism of action, ADR:
- used for epilepsy, trigeminal neuralgia, bipolar disorder - binds to sodium channels to increase refractory period - ADR: P450 enzyme inducer, dizziness and ataxia, drowsiness, headache, visual disturbances (diplopia), Steven-Johnson syndrome, leucopenia and agranulocytosis, hyponatraemia
39
What is cataplexy?
sudden and transient loss of muscular tone caused by strong emotion (2/3 of narcoleptics have cataplexy)