Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

How does the presentation of ptosis differ in Horner’s Syndrome v CN III Palsy?

A

Horner’s Syndrome: superior tarsal paralysis causing ptosis, pupil constricted, anhidrosis CN III Palsy: levator palpebrae paralysis, dilated pupil, gaze is ‘down and out’

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2
Q

What 4 interventions have been proven to improve outcome after acute ischaemic stroke?

A
  1. Management in a stroke unit 2. Aspirin 3. IV anteplase 4. Hemicraniectomy
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3
Q

What are the most common organisms implicated in community-acquired bacterial meningitis?

A
  1. Strep pneumoniae 2. Neisseria meningiditis 3. Listeria monocytogenes (primarily in patients >50)
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4
Q

What is the classic triad of meningitis?

A

Fever, nuchal rigidity, mental state change

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5
Q

What is the empirical antibiotic regime for the treatment of bacterial meningitis?

A

Cephtriaxone + Vancomycin + Amoxicillin (if >50)

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6
Q

Apart from Parkinson’s Disease, what are other causes of Parkinsonism?

A

Antipsychotics Progressive supranuclear palsy Multiple system atrophy Corticobasal degeneration Postencephalitic parkinsonism

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7
Q

What are the cardinal features of Parkinsonism?

A

Tremor Rigidity Bradykinesia Postural instability Apathy

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8
Q

What are the pharmacolocial treatment options for Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Cabergoline (DA agonist) - in younger patients Levodopa + Carbidopa (DDC inhibitor) COMT inhibitor or MAOI Anticholinergic Amantadine (NMDA antagonist) Deep brain stimulation

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9
Q

What is the first-line treatment of absent seizures?

A

Ethosuxamide

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10
Q

Which anticonvulsant is first-line for generalised epilepsy?

A

Valproate

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11
Q

Which anticonvulsant is first-line for partial epilepsy?

A

Carbamazapine

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12
Q

What are the general adverse effects of anticonvulsants?

A

Sedation, headache, GI symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, ataxia, rash, vision disturbance

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13
Q

What are the contraindications to lumbar puncture?

A

Possible raised ICP Bleeding diathesis Suspected spinal epidural abscess

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14
Q

What is the prognosis of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

A

Incurable, rapidly progressive, death within weeks to months (maximum one year). Also known as mad cow disease.

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15
Q

What is the presentation of Guillian Barre syndrome?

A

Ascending motor paralysis over hours to days +/- sensory disturbance.

*May be preceded by campylobacter jejuni infection*

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16
Q

What is reflex sympathetic dystrophy (also known as complex regional pain syndrome)?

A

Pain, swelling and changes in skin (neurological process)

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17
Q

A stroke in which area of the brain will cause pure motor hemiparesis?

A

Posterior limb of internal capsule (anterior choroidal artery)

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18
Q

A stroke in which area of the brain will cause pure sensory loss?

A

Ventral posterior lateral nucleus of thalamus (PCA)

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19
Q

How will a basal ganglia stroke present?

A

Often asymptomatic or with hemiballismus

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20
Q

What is hemiballismus?

A

Unilateral involuntary flinging motions of limbs due to basal ganglia dysfunction

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21
Q

What are the typical findings of an ACA stroke?

A

Contralateral leg weakness with preservation of speech (left) or visuospacial functioning (right)

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22
Q

What are the typical findings of an MCA stroke?

A

Contralateral face and arm weakness with affected speech (left) or visuospacial functioning (right)

23
Q

Name these types of brain herniation.

A
  1. Subfalcine (cingulate gyrus beneath falx cerebri)
  2. Uncal (temporal lobe beneath tentorium cerebelli)
  3. Central (cerebellar tonsils through foramen magnum)
  4. Transcalvarial (brain through break in skull)
24
Q

How does a subfalcine herniation present?

A

May be asymptomatic or cause contralateral leg weakness / gait abnormality

25
Which type of brain herniation can cause Cheyne-Stokes breathing?
Central herniation
26
What is the typical presentation of cavernous sinus thrombosis?
CN III - VI palsies + unilateral facial swelling in a young female taking the OCP
27
Plaques in the corpus callosum typically occur in which neurological condition?
Multiple sclerosis
28
What are the typical LP findings in Guillian Barre disease?
Elevated protien with normal cell count
29
What symptoms of Parkinsonism do anticholinergics treat most effectively?
Tremor
30
Which structure produces CSF?
Choroid plexus lining the lateral, third and fourth ventricles
31
Which structure reabsorbes CSF?
Arachnoid villi in the dural venous sinuses
32
What is the most common site of obstruction in non-communicating hydrocephalus?
The cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius)
33
How might hydrocephalus present in a 6-month old child?
Bulging fontanelles Widened sutures Poor feeding & irritability Frequent vomiting Occular bobbing (setting sun sign) UMNL signs Convulsions
34
At which intervertebral space is the needle inserted in a lumbar puncture?
Either L3/4 or L4/5
35
Which spinal level corresponds with the iial crests?
L4
36
What are the LP findings in Creutzfeld-Jacob disease?
14-3-4 protein
37
What complications may develop following a lumbar puncture?
Headache Backache Infection Bleeding Cerebral herniation Radicular pain / numbness
38
If a SAH is suspected, what may be found on lumbar puncture?
Xanthocromia (yellow CSF due to breakdown of erythrocytes)
39
What are the most common aetiological agents in encephalitis?
Viruses or an unknown underlying cause
40
What is the first-line treatment of encephalitis?
High-dose acyclovir until HSV infection is ruled out
41
What are the clinical features of frontotemporal dementia?
Poor executive function Disinhibition Personality / behaviour change
42
List 5 differential diagnoses for dementia.
Brain lesion (tumour, subdural haematoma) Neurotoxic drugs Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease Normal pressure hydrocephalus Depression / anxiety Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome Thyroid disease Episodic damage (e.g. seizures, hypoglycaemia) Electrolyte imbalance Severe sleep disorders
43
What are the features of Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
Confusion / cognitive impairment Ophthalmoplegia Ataxia
44
What are the features of Korsakoff's Syndrome?
Amnesia (anterograde and retrograde) Confabulation Hallucinations
45
What are the clinical features of central brain herniation?
Brainstem compression causing Cushing's Triad: 1. Bradycardia 2. Systolic hypertension 3. Widened pulse pressure Decerebrate then decorticate positioning
46
What are the clincial features of uncal herniation?
Ipsilateral dilated, non-reactive pupil due to compression of CN II
47
Explain: (a) Decerebrate positioning (b) Decorticate positioning
(a) Decerebrate = head arched back with arms/legs extended, feet turned outwards (b) Decorticate = arms flexed, hands clenched, legs extended, feet turned inwards (decerebrate is worse than decorticate)
48
What is the average intracrainial pressure (ICP) in adults?
7-15mmHg or 7-20cmH2O
49
What is the most common type of brain herniation?
Transtentorial (uncal) herniation
50
What is Todd's paresis?
Post-ictal focal neurological deficit
51
In a person with normal hearing, what will Rinne's test show?
Positive test = Air conduction \> Bone conduction (tests function of middle ear and conductive hearing)
52
In Weber's test, why does the sound localise to the deaf ear if conductive hearing loss is present?
Sound seems louder in deaf ear as conductive deafness prevents the normal masking effect of ambient sound
53
Give 4 metabolic causes of dementia.
* Hypothyroidism * B12 deficiency * Uraemia * Hypercalcaemia
54
What is the most common presentation of Motor Neurone Disease?
* Wasting and weakness of the muscles of the hand * Fasciculations * Preservation of sensation