Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 3 - Diseases > Neurology 2 > Flashcards

Neurology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Define encephalitis

A

Encephalitis is defined as inflammation of the brain parenchyma associated with neurological dysfunction such as altered state of consciousness, seizures, personality changes, cranial nerve palsies, speech problems, and motor and sensory deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe epidemiology of encephalitis

A
  • 2500 cases occur in England a year
  • Globally 7 per 100000 per year diagnosed
  • Highest incidence in those under 1 and over 65
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe aetiology of encephalitis

A
  • Cause only found in 50% cases
  • Viruses are the main cause, herpesvirus most common (or st. louis)
  • Arboviruses main cause worldwide
  • Most common bacteria Neisseria meningitides
  • Fungal cryptococcus
  • Parasitic toxoplasma gondii
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List risk factors of encephalitis

A
  • Age <1 or >65 years
  • Immunodeficiency
  • Post-infection
  • Blood/body fluid exposure
  • Organ transplantation
  • Animal or insect bites
  • Location
  • Season
  • Swimming or diving in warm freshwater or nasal/sinus irrigation
  • Vaccination
  • Occupation
  • Hunting/trekking in woods
  • Spelunking (cave-exploring)
  • Death in animals
  • Cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List symptoms of encephalitis

A
  • Acute onset febrile illness with behavioural, cognitive and psychiatric manifestations
  • Viral prodrome
  • Altered mental state
  • Focal neurological deficit
  • Meningismus (headache, photophobia, neck stiffness)
  • Optic neuritis
  • Movement disorder
  • Cough
  • GI infection
  • Seizures
  • Biphasic illness
  • Autonomic and hypothalamic disturbances
  • Myocarditis/pericarditis
  • Arthritis
  • Retinitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List signs of encephalitis

A
  • Fever
  • Rash
  • Parotiditis
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Optic neuritis
  • Acute flaccid paralysis
  • Movement disorder
  • GI infection
  • Biphasic illness
  • Autonomic and hypothalamic disturbances
  • Myocarditis/pericarditis
  • Jaundice
  • Parkinsonism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List investigations of encephalitis

A
  • FBC
  • Peripheral blood smear
  • Serum electrolytes (hyponatraemia rickettsial infections)
  • Liver function tests
  • Blood cultures
  • Throat swab
  • Nasopharyngeal aspirate
  • Sputum culture
  • Chest radiography
  • CT brain
  • MRI brain
  • Electroencephalogram (EEG - background slowing)
  • Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis
  • CSF culture
  • CSF serology
  • CSF polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define TIA

A
  • An ischaemic (usually embolic) neurological event lasting less than 24 hours
  • Without treatment more than 1 in 12 will have a stroke within a week
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe epidemiology of TIA

A
  • In england each year 2000 people have a first episode of TIA
  • Age adjusted annual incidence rate 190 per 100000
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe aetiology of TIA

A
  • In situ thrombosis of an intracranial artery or artery to artery embolism of thrombus as a result of stenosis or unstable atherosclerotic plaque
  • Cardioembolic events
  • Small vessel occlusion
  • Occlusion due to hypercoagulability, dissection, vasculitis, vasospasm or sickle cell occlusive disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List risk factors for TIA

A
  • Cardiovascular disease (eg. AF, valvular heart disease, carotid stenosis, congestive heart failure, hypertension)
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Hyperlipidaemia
  • Other significant illnesses such as a hypercoagulable state or vasculitis (e.g., temporal arteritis)
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Alcohol-use disorder.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List symptoms and signs of TIA

A
  • Sudden onset and brief duration of symptoms
  • Unilateral weakness or paralysis
  • Dysphasia
  • Ataxia, vertigo or loss of balance
  • Sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax)
  • Homonymous hemianopia
  • Diplopia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List investigations for TIA

A
  • Blood glucose
  • FBC + platelet
  • PT, INR, partial thromboplastin time
  • Fasting lipid profile
  • Serum electrolytes
  • ECG
  • CT
  • Carotid doppler/echocardiogram
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe management of TIA

A
  • Control risk factors (lower BP cautiously, statin, stop smoking
  • Antiplatelet drugs (aspirin 300mg for 2 wees then clopidogrel 75mg daily)
  • Anticoagulant for AF
  • Carotid endartorectomy within 2 weeks if 70-99% stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe ABCD2 score

A
  • Used in TIA
  • Calculates risk of stroke after tia, determines whether emergency referral is needed
  • Age over 60
  • BP > 140/90
  • Clinical features (unilateral weakness 2 points, speech disturbance 1 point)
  • Duration of symptoms (over 1 hour 2 points, 10-59mins 1 point)
  • Diabetes

If over 4 must be assessed by a specialist within 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List complications of TIA

A
  • Stroke

- MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe prognosis of TIA

A
  • 8% admitted for TIA have a stroke during hospitalisation
  • 10% presenting to A&E have a stroke within 3 months
  • Due to underlying disease, 5% of patients will be dead after 6 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List contraindications for thromolysis

A
  • Recent intracranial haemorhage
  • Neoplasm
  • Significant head injury in last 3 months
  • Recent cranial or spinal surgery
  • Severe hypertension
  • Pregnancy
  • Bleeding disorder
  • Recent lumbar puncture
  • On warfarin or DOAC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe aetiology of migraine

A
  • Inflammation of the trigeminal nerve

- Changes the way the brain rocesses stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe aetiology of meningitis

A

Babies

  • E coli (late neonatal)
  • Group B strep (long labor)

Children

  • H influenzae
  • Strep pneumoniae

Teens
- Neisseria meningitidis (gram negative diplococci)

Elderly

  • Strep pyogenes (gram positive cocci)
  • Listeria monocytogenes (cheese/unpasturised milk/ alcoholics)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define extradural haematoma

A

A collection of blood in the potential space between the dura and bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe aetiology of extradural haematoma

A
  • Traumatic skull fracture, especially at pterion damaging middle meningeal artery
  • Any tear in venous sinus
  • Alcohol and other intoxication increases incidence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe epidemiology of extradural haematoma

A
  • Young
  • Most common in 20-30 yearold males
  • 1 in 1000000 people anually
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List symptosm of extradural haemorrhage

A
  • Acute headache following a lucid interval
  • Usually initial LOC then lucid for hours to days
  • Increasingly severe headace
  • Decreasing GCS, symptoms of raised ICP (vomiting, confusion, seizures, paresis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

List signs of extradural haemorrhage

A
  • Low GCS
  • Hemiparesis
  • Brisk reflexes
  • Upgoing plantar
  • Ipsilateral pupil dilates, coma, bilateral limb weakness, deep and impaired breathing in brainstem compression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe investigations for extradural haemorrhage

A
  • Urgent non-contrast CT head (lemon/lens shape)

- MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define wenickes encephalopathy

A

Neurological emergency resulting from thiamine deficiency with varied neurocognitive manifestations (mental status, fait, oculomotor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe epidemiology of wenickes encephalopathy

A
  • 0.8-2.8% post mortem
  • Higher prevelence in pateints witha history of alcohol dependence and aids, and bone marrow transplant
  • Prevalence higher in males
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe aetiology of wenickes encephalopathy

A
  • Thiamine defienciency leading to periaqueductal punctate haemorrhage
  • Reduced intake
  • Relative defieicny due to increased demand
  • Malabsorption from GI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List risk factors for wernickes encephalopathy

A
  • Alcohol dependence
  • AIDS
  • Cancer and treatment with chemotherapeutic agents
  • Malnutrition
  • History of gastrointestinal surgery
  • Genetics
  • Bone marrow transplantation
  • Infants who have been fed formula milk deficient in thiamine
  • Male sex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

List signs and symptoms of wernickes encephalopathy

A

Classical triad

  • Confusion (irritability, delerium, psychosis, coma)
  • Ataxia
  • Opthalmoplagia (nystagmus, lateral rectus or conjugate nerve palsies)
  • Can develop to korsakoff - long term Wernickes (memory loss)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

List investigations of wernickes encephalopathy

A
  • Red cell transketolase activity is reduced
  • Clinical diagnosis, attempt trial of thiamine and observe treatment response
  • May consider FBC, serum electrolytes, renal LFTs, urinary drug screen, ammonia, blood alcohol, blood thiamine, magnesium, serum albumin
  • ECG, CT, neuropsychology
33
Q

Describe epidemiology of horners syndrome

A
    1. in 6250 population

- Any age and ethnicity

34
Q

Describe aetiology of horners syndrome

A
  • Central nerve lesions (CVAs, MS, basal scull tumours, meningitis, neck trauma)
  • Preganglionic nerve lesions (apical lung tumours, lymphadenopathy, lower brachial plexus trauma, aneurysm of the aorta, neuroblastoma)
  • Postganglionic lesions (cluster headache or migraine, herpes zoster infection, internal carotid artery dissection, raeders syndrome, carotid cavernous fistula, temporal arteritis)
35
Q

List symptoms of horners syndrome

A

= Inability to open eye fully on affected side

  • Loss of sweating on affected side
  • Facial flushing (preganglionic)
  • Orbital pain/headache (post ganglionic)
  • Symptoms of underlying cause
36
Q

List signs of horners syndrome

A
  • Constricted pupil on affected side, more apparent in a darkened room
  • Ipsilateral dry skin
  • Ipsilateral partial ptosis
  • Enopthalmos possibly
37
Q

Describe investigations for horners syndrome

A
  • CXR for apical carcinoma
  • CT/MRI for cerebrovascular accident
  • CT angiography carotid ultrasound to look for dissection
  • FBC, urine test
  • Pharmacological testing (cocaine eye drops will cause pupil to dilate if sympathetic innervation remains, apraclonidine will cause pupil dilationand lid elevation on the abnormal side, hydroxyamphetamine postganglionic neurone damage means no response)
38
Q

Describe management of horners syndrome

A
  • Depends on the underlying cause
  • If mild, no treatment needed
  • May require neurosurgery, radiology, surgery
39
Q

List complications of horners syndrome

A
  • Dizziness
  • Vision loss
  • Neck pain or severe headache
  • Inability to control muscle movement
40
Q

Describe prognosis of horners syndrome

A

Dependent on underlying cause, often goes once underlying cause is treated effectively

41
Q

Define hydrocephalus

A
  • Enlargement of cerebral ventricles and/or subarachnoid space as a result of excess CSF accumulation.
  • Communicating decreased CSF absorption of increased CSF production with no onstruction
  • Non-communicating obstricted passage of CNS
42
Q

Describe epidemiology of hydrocephalus

A
  • Prevalence: Communicating more common than non-communicating
  • Congenital 3/1000 live births US. 60% of cases
  • Acquires all ages, NPH over 60s. 40% of cases
  • Moe common in females than males
43
Q

Describe aetiology of hydrocephalus

A

Communicating - deceased absorption

  • Inflammatory diseases (eg. Meningitis) causing scarring
  • Subarachnoidal or intraventricular haemorrhage
  • Congenital absence of villi

Communicating - increased production

  • Choroid plexus papilloma
  • Choroid plexus carcinoma
  • Inflammation of the choroid plexus

Non-communicating

  • Congenital (arnold-chiari, dandy-walker malformation where 4th ventricle does not open, intrauterine infections)
  • Acquired (brain tumour, especially medullobastomas, pinealoma, ependymomas, astrocytomas)

Normal pressure
- Enlarged ventricles with normal intracranial pressure

44
Q

List symptoms of hydrocephalus

A
  • Headache, nausea and vomiting
  • Impaired consciousness
  • Double vision
45
Q

List sings of hydrocephalus

A
  • Papilloedema
  • Abnormal gait
  • Abducens nerve pulsy
  • Cushing triad (irregular breathing, widening pulse pressure, bradycardia)
  • Lower extremity spacticity, hyperreflexia

Infants

  • Macrocephaly
  • Tense fontanelle
  • Setting sun sign
46
Q

Define normal pressure hydrocephalus

A
  • A form of communicating hydrocephalus primarily affecting those aged over 60
  • Distinct clinical triad of urinary incontinence, dementia and ataxic gait (2W’s: wacky, wobbly, wet)
  • Episodic increase in ICP
47
Q

Describe investigations for normal pressure hydrocephalus

A
  • MRI (ventriculomegaly, periventricular hypodensity)
  • CSF tap test (improvement of symptoms after CSF removal)
  • Cognitive assessment, B12 and TFT
48
Q

Describe investigations for hydrocephalus

A
  • Ultrasonography (infants under 7 months, shows enlarged ventricles)
  • MRI or CT in older infants and adults, enlarged ventricles and obstruction, mickey mouse ventricles, sulcal enlargement, upward bowing of the corpus callosum)
49
Q

Where does SAH most commonly occur?

A

Junction of anterior communicating and anterior cerebral artery

50
Q

Define neurofibromatosis

A

Congenital disorders that affect organs of ectodermal origin, especially the skin, CNS and eyes

51
Q

Describe epidemiology of neurofibromatosis

A
  • Type 1: 1 in 2,500, no male-female or racial predominance

- Type 2: 1 in 35,000

52
Q

Describe aetiology of neurofibromatosis

A
  • Autosomal dominant inheritence (type 1 17q11.2 type 2 22q11)
  • May be de novo mutations, especially type 2 (50% de novo)
53
Q

List signs and symptoms of neurofibromatosis type 1

A
  • Multiple neurofibromas (benign peripheral nerve sheath tumours that origionate from neural crest cells and affect the myelinated nerves, typically manifest under the skin, onset from adolescence)
  • Seizures and/or focal neurological signs due to brain lesions
  • Intellectual disability
  • Bone involvement (scoliosis, short stature, pseudoarthritis, fractures)
  • Cafe au lait spots (brown hyperpigmented flat macule or patch, onset before 2 years)
  • Lisch nodules (pigmented iris hamartomas between 5-10 years)
  • Auxillary and inguinal speckling
  • Hypertension
  • Short stature, scoliosis
  • Associated with wilms tumour, phaeochromocytoma and optic pathway glioma (vision loss, proptosis, precocious puberty)
54
Q

List symptoms of neurofibromatosis type 2

A
  • Age of onset 18-24
  • Bilateral vestibular schwannoma (affect vestibulococclear nerve, causing tinnitus, hearing loss, or vertigo)
  • Early onset cataracts, usually bilateral
  • Multiple cerebral or spinal tumours
  • Other features: skin lesions, seizures and/or cafe au lait spots
55
Q

Describe investigations for neurofibromatosis

A
  • MRI of brain and spine with contrast to detect neurofibromas and meningiomas
  • Opthalmogical exam for optic glioma in NF type 1
  • Auditary testing for acoustic neuromas in NF type 2
  • Genetic testing for the mutations
56
Q

List diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1

A

2 of

  • More than 6 cafe au lait macules over 5mm pre puberty of 15mm post puberty
  • More than 2 neurofibromas or 1 plexiform
  • Freckling in the axillary or inguinal regions
  • Optic glioma
  • More than 2 lisch nodules
  • Distinctive osseous lesion typical of NF1 eg. sphenoid dysplasia
  • First degree relative with NF1
57
Q

List diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 2

A

Either

  • Bilateral vestibular schwannoma on CT or MRI
  • First degree relative with NF2 and either unilateral vestibular schwannoma OR one of neurofibroma, meningioma, glioma, schwannoma, juvenile cataract
58
Q

Define huntingtons disease

A

A slowly progressive, neurodegenerative disorder characterised by chorea, incoordination, cognitive decline, personality changes, and psychiatric symptoms, culminating in immobility, mutism, and inanition.

59
Q

Describe epidemiology of huntingtons disease

A
  • 4-8 per 100000 europe
  • 20 years from time of diagnosis to time of death
  • Typical onset is 35-45 years of age, affects men and women equally
  • 10 times more common in north americans of european descent than pure african or asian descent or native americans
  • Tasmania and Lake Maracaibo high prevalence
60
Q

Describe aetiology of huntingtons disease

A
  • Autosomal dominant
  • CAG repeat in N-terminus of the gene that codes for the huntington protein
  • More repeats means more severe and earlier presenting disease
61
Q

List symptoms and signs of huntingtons disease

A
  • Impaired work or school performance
  • Personality change
  • Irritability and impulsivity
  • Chorea (rndom movements of fingers and toes)
  • Twitching or restlessness
  • Loss of coordination
  • Deficit in fine motor coordination
  • Slowed rapid eye movements
  • Motor impersistence
  • Impaired tandem walking
  • Change in hygiene, disinhibition, depression, obsessions or compulsions
62
Q

List investigations for huntingtons disease

A
  • Clinical diagnosis
  • Can perform CAG repeat testing
  • MRI/CT scan (evident caudate or striatal atrophy)
63
Q

Define spinal cord compression (inc. cauda equina)

A
  • Processes that compress arterial, venous and cerebrospinal fluid spaces as well as the cord inself.
  • Can occur due to extrinsic causes and lesions or intrinsic aetiologies
  • Cauda equina syndrome is a severe form of disc herniation, compressing on the cauda equina
64
Q

Describe epidemiology of spinal cord compression (inc.cauda equina)

A
  • Trauma is the main cause
  • More than 80% affect males
  • Sports related primarily ffect those under 29
  • In people over 65, falls leading cause
  • Cauda equina syndrome low incidence
65
Q

Describe aetiology of spinal cord compression

A
  • Trauma (car accidents, diving, sports injuris, knife wounds)
  • Vertebral compresision fractures (osteoporosis, osteomalacia, steroid therapy)
  • Disc herniation
  • Tumours (sarcoma, CNS, multiple myeloma, metastatic)
  • Infection (TB, abscess)
66
Q

List risk factors of spinal cord compression (inc cauda equina)

A
  • Age 16-30 years and male sex
  • Trauma
  • Tumour
  • Osteoporosis
  • High risk occupation/ recreational activities
  • IVDU (abscess)
  • Immunosuppression (abscess)
67
Q

List investigations of spinal cord compression (inc. cauda equina)

A
  • MRI spine, inc. gadolinium enhanced
  • Plain spine x ray
  • CT spine
  • CT myelography
  • FBC, ESR, CRP, B12, U and E, syphillis serology, PSA, calcium, immunoglobulin electrophoresis
  • Urine bence Jones protein
68
Q

Define lumbar puncture

A
  • A thin needle is inserted between L3 and L4, or L4 and L5
  • Lateral recumbent position (patient on side with head on one pillow, knees and torseo flexed.) or sitting
  • Local anaesthetic is used
69
Q

List indications for lumbar puncture

A
  • Suspected meningitis or encephalitis
  • Suspected SAH with normal CT
  • CNS leukaemia or lymphoma
  • Evaluation of neurological conditions
  • Injecting medicine, or epidural
  • Removing some CSF to reduce ICP
70
Q

List complications of lumbar puncture

A
  • Headaches
  • Swelling and back pain where the needle was inserted
  • If raised ICP, coning/ arnold chiari malformation may occur
  • Bleeding/haematoma - if on anticoagulant or clotting disorders
  • Infection
  • Poor sample/bloody tap
  • Radiculopathy
71
Q

Describe lambert eaton syndrome

A
  • Presynaptic problem - reduced release of acetylcholine due to antibodies attacking presynaptic calcium channels
  • Improves with movement, eye symptoms less likely, associated with small cell lung cancer, autonomic symptoms
72
Q

List absolute contraindications to thrombolysis

A
  • Prior intracranial hemorrhage
  • Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
  • Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
  • Ischemic stroke within three months (excluding stroke within three hours*)
  • Suspected aortic dissection
  • Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
  • Significant closed-head trauma or facial trauma within three months
73
Q

List relative contraindications to thrombolysis

A
  • History of chronic, severe, poorly controlled hypertension
  • Severe uncontrolled hypertension on presentation (SBP >180 mmHg or DBP >110 mmHg)
  • History of ischemic stroke more than three months prior
  • Traumatic or prolonged (>10 minute) CPR or major surgery less than three weeks
  • Recent (within two to four weeks) internal bleeding
  • Noncompressible vascular punctures
  • Recent invasive procedure
  • For streptokinase/anistreplase - Prior exposure (more than five days ago) or prior allergic reaction to these agents
  • Pregnancy
  • Active peptic ulcer
  • Pericarditis or pericardial fluid
  • Current use of anticoagulant (eg, warfarin sodium) that has produced an elevated international normalized ratio (INR) >1.7 or prothrombin time (PT) >15 seconds
  • Age >75 years
  • Diabetic retinopathy
74
Q

Describe presentation of a paraganglionoma

A
  • Paraganglioma is also known as a carotid body tumour or chemodectoma
  • Pulsatile mass in the neck
  • A neoplasm that forms in the carotid bifurcation and starts developing in the child but normally is only diagnosed at 40-50 y/o.
  • It can cause compression of nearby structures such as sympathetic nerves causing Horner’s, recurrent laryngeal causing hoarseness, dysphagia due to compression of other cranial nerves and if carotids become compressed you can have dizziness.
75
Q

Describe lateral pontine syndrome

A

Ischaemic stroke of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery.
- Causes ipsilateral facial droop, loss of pain sensation and temp sensation on the ipsilateral face, and loss of pain and temp + hemiplegia on the contralateral body

76
Q

Describe central cord syndrome

A
  • Most common form of cervical spinal cord injury
  • Loss of motion and sensation in the arms and hands, often due to trauma damaging the neck
  • Affects legs less
77
Q

Describe COAT RACK in wernickes/korsakoff syndrome

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy (acute phase): COAT

  • Confusion
  • Ophthalmoplegia
  • Ataxia
  • Thiamine tx

Korsakoff’s syndrome (chronic phase): RACK

  • Retrograde amnesia
  • Anterograde amnesia
  • Confabulation
  • Korsakoff’s psychosis
78
Q

Describe lymphoctic choriomeningitis infection

A
  • A zoonotic virus associated with rodents which causes meningitis
  • Biphasic syndrome of headache, fever, and nuchal rigidity

Year 3 - Diseases (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions