Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 3 > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common type of stroke?

A

Ischaemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List mechanisms of ischaemic stroke

A

Embolism
Thrombosis
Systemic hypoperfusion
Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What area of the brain does the anterior cerebral artery supply?

A

Anteromedial area of cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What area of the brain does the middle cerebral artery supply?

A

Lateral cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What area of the brain does the posterior cerebral arteries supply?

A

Medial and lateral areas of the posterior cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List the Oxford classification criteria for a Total anterior circulation stroke (TACS)

A

All 3 of the following:
Unilateral weakness of face arm and leg
Homonymous hemianopia
Higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, visuospatial disorder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List the Oxford classification for a Partial anterior circulation stroke (PACS)

A

Two of the following:
Unilateral weakness of face arm and leg
Homonymous hemianopia
Higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, visuospatial disorder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List the Oxford classification for Posterior circulation syndrome (POCS)

A

One of the following
Cranial nerve palsy and contralateral motor/sensory deficit
bilateral motor/sensory deficit
Conjugate eye movement disorder
Cerebellar dysfunction ( vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia)
Isolated homonymous hemianopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List the Oxford classification for a Lacunar stroke (LACS)

A

One of the following
Pure sensory stroke
Pure motor stroke
Sensori-motor stroke
Ataxic hemiparesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

common presentation of extradural haemorrhage

A

lucid intervals followed by unconsciousness - (they’re being EXTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CT scan of extradural haemorrhage

A

hyperdense biconvex lens appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

IgG oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid

A

Multiple Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

early clinical signs of huntington’s disease

A

clumsiness, agitation, abnormal eye movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What amino acid is overly expressed in Huntington’s disease?

A

Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

classification of a lacunar stroke

A

one of the following:
pure sensory
pure motor
ataxic hemiparesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Main job of vestibulospinal tract

A

activate anti-gravity extensor muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Main job of tectospinal tract

A

reflex to visual and auditory stimulus
-head automatically moving to watch cool ‘tech’ car go past

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

main job of the reticulospinal tract

A

breathing and cardiac control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

main job of lateral and ventral corticospinal tract

A

majority of motor function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is spasticity?

A

a stretch reflex disorder that is apparent on repetitive stretching of muscle causing increased tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

is spasticity an upper or lower motor neuron manifestation?

A

UPPER motor neuron disorder- muscle is in tact but descending controls from brain not working

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

first line management of status epilepticus

A

benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

common cause of communicating hydrocephalus

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage and meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

common cause of non-communicating hydrocephalus

A

tumours and lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

pathophysiology of communicating hydrocephalus

A

CSF able to exit but absorption into venous system is impeded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what kind of stroke shows hyper attenuation on CT

A

haemorrhagic stroke
(hyper-attenuation = formation of acute blood clot )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the causes of haemorrhagic stroke

A

vasculitis or vessel wall abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the acute management to reduce severity of Multiple Sclerosis attacks?

A

methylprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the chronic management of multiple sclerosis?

A

disease modifying drugs- interferon beta, glatiramer acetate, natalizumab
symptom control- cannabinoids, symptom basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

where is broca’s area located?

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

where is wernicke’s area located?

A

temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is symptom of Broca’s aphasia

A

Broken speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is symptom of Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

Word scramble/ Weird speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

worsening back pain and leg weakness with walking, with relief on forward bending is a common presentation of what?

A

spinal claudication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

role of the hippocampus?

A

important in moving stuff from short term to long term memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

location of the hippocampus

A

deep brain in temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what nerve is responsible for afferent limb or corneal reflex?

A

ophthalmic nerve - CNVi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the mechanism of action of baclofen?

A

agonist of GABA receptors - upregulates inhibition of muscle contraction -> decreases muscle spasms and spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

role of the amygdala?

A

processing of memory and emotional reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what artery supplies the amygdala? and what symptoms occur if this becomes damaged?

A

Kluver-Bucy syndrome - hyperphagia, hypersexuality, pica and docility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

anatomical course of the optic radiations from the retina? (parietal and temporal lobes)

A

parietal lobe carries information from inferior quadrant of retina
temporal lobe carries information from superior quadrant of retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

are cranial nerve lesions ipsilateral or contralateral?

A

all are ipsilateral (except trochlear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the rule of 4 when it comes to origins of nuclei?

A

1st 4 (except I and II) = midbrain
2nd 4 (V, VI, VII and VIII) = pons
3rd 4 (IX, X, XI and XII) = medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are the different types of MS?

A

relapsing remitting, secondary progressive, primary progressive

45
Q

what is the medical management for fatigue in MS patients?

A

Amantadine

46
Q
A
47
Q

what gene is most likely mutated in early onset familiar Alzheimer’s disease?

A

presenilin 1 gene
(also APP or presenilin 2)

48
Q

what gene is most likely mutated in sporadic Alzheimer’s disease

A

APOE e4

49
Q

what mode of inheritance is Huntington’s disease?

A

autosomal dominant
(CAG trinucleotide repeat)

50
Q

symptoms of cerebellar syndrome

A

DANISH
dysdiadochokinesia
ataxia
nystagmus
intention tremor
slurred speech
hypotonia

51
Q

what are some causes of cerebellar syndrome

A

alcohol
Multiple sclerosis
stroke
cerebellar haemangioma

52
Q

management of motor fluctuations in parkinson’s patients

A

MAO-B inhibitor - e.g. Risagiline

53
Q

what should be prescribed alongside Levodopa to increase the bioavailability of it in Parkinson’s patients?

A

Carbidopa or Benserazide

54
Q

what class of medications should be avoided in Parkinson’s patients?

A

anti-psychotics e.g. Haloperidol
– blocks dopamine- worsens motor function

55
Q

short term side effects of ECT

A

headache, nausea, memory impairment and cardiac arrythmias

56
Q

Management of acute confusional state

A

if treatment of underlying cause and environmental modification not working then
medication = haloperidol
(unless Parkinson’s then use Lorazepam)

57
Q

First line investigation if vascular dementia is suspected

A

MRI head

58
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome presentation

A

adverse reaction to antipsychotics - e.g. haloperidol
symptoms - sweating, fever, rigidity, confusion, fluctuating blood pressure and tachycardia
signs- increase creatinine kinase diagnostic

59
Q

lumbar puncture findings for viral meningitis

A

pleomorphic lymphocytosis, normal glucose and moderately raised protein
clear appearance

60
Q

lumbar puncture for bacterial meningitis

A

neutrophilic pleocytosis, decreased glucose and increased protein
cloudy appearance

61
Q

what are the myelin producing cells in the CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

62
Q

what are the myelin producing cells in the PNS

A

schwann cells
(swans float down the Ponds)

63
Q

neuropathic pain management

A

Don’t Get Pain Again
duloxetine
gabapentin
pregabalin
amitriptyline

64
Q

organism most associated with Guillain Barre syndrome

A

campylobacter jejuni

65
Q

hypodense vs hyperdense on CT

A

hypodense bleeding = dark => chronic
hyperdense bleeding = white => acute

66
Q

drug used to prevent vasospasm in subarachnoid haemorrhages

A

nimodipine - calcium channel blocker

67
Q

medication of choice for patients with primary chronic pain (chronic pain without an obvious underlying cause)

A

antidepressants - e.g. amitriptyline, duloxetine or an SSRI

68
Q

first line management of trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

69
Q

management of status epilepticus

A

First line - give benzodiazepine immediately - buccal or rectal
OR give IV lorazepam if IV access and facilities available
if not stopping the -> after 5-10 minutes give second dose of benzo/lorazepam

if still no response
give IV phenytoin / levetiracetam / sodium valproate

70
Q

NICE guidelines for investigating head injury within 1 hour

A

GCS <13 on initial assessment
GCS <15 at 2 hours post injury
suspected open or depressed skull fracture
any sign of basal skull fracture - ‘panda eyes’ , cerebrospinal fluid leakage, battle’s sign
seizure
focal neurological deficit
> 1 episode of vomiting

71
Q

NICE guidelines for investigating head injury within 8 hours

A

adults with following who have experienced some loss of consciousness or amnesia since injury:
age >65
any history of bleeding or clotting disorders
dangerous mechanism of injury
>30 mins retrograde amnesia immediately before injury

72
Q

Horner’s syndrome presentation

A

ptosis, miosis and anhydrosis

73
Q

afferent limb of the jaw jerk reflex

A

CN V3 - mandibular

74
Q

where do the preganglionic neurons of sympathetic nervous system originate from

A

T1- L2/3

75
Q

mechanism of action of carbamazepine

A

sodium channel inhibitor - stabilise hyperexcitable neuronal membranes

76
Q

Characteristics of frontal lobe dysfunction

A
  • perseveration = continued behaviour or action e.g. repeating question over and over
  • executive dysfunction e.g. planning, organising and initiating tasks
77
Q

characteristics of temporal lobe dysfunction

A
  • auditory hallucinations
  • memory disturbances
  • language comprehension
  • emotion changes
78
Q

where does the blood from the dural venous drain

A

internal jugular vein

79
Q

what areas of spinal cord are affected in subacute combined degeneration of the cord

A

dorsal - fine touch and vibration
lateral - corticospinal tracts -motor

80
Q

Initial non-motor signs of Parkinson’s

A

depression
anxiety
memory loss
olfactory problems
sleep disturbance
constipation
balance issues

81
Q

pharmacological management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

acetazolamide

82
Q

medication of choice for Parkinson associated delusions

A

typical antipsychotics - olanzapine, risperidone

83
Q

first line medication for medical assisted detoxification

A

chlordiazepoxide

84
Q

sensory tracts

A

dorsal column
spinothalamic

85
Q

features of Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

A

CAN OPEN
confusion
ataxia
nystagmus
ophthalmoplegia
PEripheral
neuropathy

86
Q

name the different Parkinson’s Plus syndromes

A

multiple system atrophy
cortico-basal degeneration
progressive supranuclear palsy
lewy body dementia

87
Q

name the different types of Motor Neuron Disease

A

spinal amytrophic lateral sclerosis- most common - UPPER AND LOWER
progressive muscular atrophy - ONLY LOWER
progressive bulbar palsy
primary lateral sclerosis - ONLY UPPER

88
Q

name different patterns of Multiple Sclerosis

A

relapsing-remitting
secondary progressive
primary progressive

89
Q

describe brown sequard syndrome

A

ipsilateral weakness and loss of fine touch, joint proprioception and vibration
contralateral loss of pain and temperature

90
Q

first line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

91
Q

prophylaxis medications for migraine

A

topimarate- contraindicated in females of childbearing age
propranolol - contraindicated in asthma
amitriptyline

92
Q

what antibiotics are most commonly associated with lowering the seizure threshold

A

cirpofloxacin - and other quinolones

93
Q

what side will the uvula deviate towards if there is a problem with the left vagus nerve

A

to the right side

94
Q

cerebellar dysfunction symptoms

A

D- dysdiadochokinesia
A- ataxic gait
N- nystagmus (horizontal)
I- intention tremor
S- slurred staccato speech
H- hypotonia

95
Q

what does a lesion in right hypoglossal nerve cause

A

tongue to deviate to the right
‘tongue towards affected side’

96
Q

where does Wernicke’s encephalopathy cause neuronal death

A

mamillary bodies
periaqueductal grey matter
fourth ventricle
thalamus

97
Q

non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

cotton-wool spots
dot-blot haemorrhages
venous bleeding

98
Q

proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

neovascularisation

99
Q

what receptors do autoimmune antibodies target in lambert eaton syndrome

A

voltage gated calcium channels
pre-synaptic

100
Q

what nerve supplies sensory innervation to the medial aspect of the leg

A

saphenous nerve

101
Q

main neurotransmitter in parasympathetic

A

acetylcholine

102
Q

acute management of migraine attack

A

NSAID and triptans

103
Q

prophylaxis of migraine

A

1st - propanalol or amitriptyline
2nd - valproate

104
Q

acute management of cluster headache

A

high flow oxygen and triptan

105
Q

prophylaxis of cluster headache

A

verapamil

106
Q

management of hemicrania headaches

A

indomethicin

107
Q

management of trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

108
Q

management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

weight loss and acetazolamide

109
Q
A

Year 3 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions