Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What causes a contralateral bilateral inferior quadrantanopia?

A

Infarct in the parietal lobe

“PITS”:
Parietal - Inferior quadrantanopia
Temporal - Superior quadrantanopia

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2
Q

Where is an upper motor lesion?

A

Brain or spinal cord

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3
Q

Where is a lower motor lesion?

A

Anterior horn cell
Motor nerve roots
Peripheral motor nerve

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4
Q

Typical signs of an upper motor neurone lesion include..

A

Spasticity
Hyperreflexia
Upgoing plantars (downgoing in MND)

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5
Q

Typical signs of a lower motor neurone lesion include.

A

Marked atrophy
Fasciculations

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6
Q

What is the most important parameter to monitor in a patient with GBS?

A

Forced vital capacity - the neuropathy can ascend to involve the abdominal muscles and then the diaphragm. The patient may develop respiratory failure and ultimately respiratory arrest

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7
Q

Symmetrical distal muscular atrophy, resulting in the appearance of “champagne bottle legs” before progressing to claw hands

A

CMT

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8
Q

Ascending pattern of weakness that improves upon repetition/usage. History of smoking

A

LEMS with an underlying cause of SCLC

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9
Q

Two discrete incidents of neuropathy, accompanied by gradual recovery and affecting both sensory and motor function in the case of the common peroneal nerve palsy

A

Mononeuritis multiplex

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10
Q

Tremor affecting both hands and is worse when the patient tries to do something

A

Essential tremor

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11
Q

History of weakness, which she reports is better in the morning than in the evening. Proximal limb weakness and mild bilateral ptosis, exacerbated by prolonged upgaze. Reflexes and sensation are intact

A

MG

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12
Q

Repeated muscle contractions lead to increased muscle strength. History of limb weakness. Reduced power in the proximal muscles of the lower limb and hypo-reflexia in the knee and ankle reflexes

A

LEMS

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13
Q

What causes a left homonymous hemianopia?

A

Right parietal lobe infarct

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14
Q

Progressive and bilateral upper motor neuron weakness

A

Primary lateral sclerosis

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15
Q

A mixture of upper and lower motor neuron signs

A

Spinal-onset amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

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16
Q

Fatigable weakness which improves upon rest. diplopia and bulbar features including speech disturbance

A

Myasthenia gravis

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17
Q

Parkinson’s plus syndrome with a key feature being that motor symptoms are often confined to one limb

A

Cortico-basal degeneration

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18
Q

Long-term side effect of levodopa use?

A

Drug induced dyskinesias

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19
Q

Tx for on and off symptoms/motor fluctuations in PD?

A

A COMT inhibitor (Entacapone and tolcapone.) or a dopamine antagonist (Ropinirole, rotigotine, Apomorphine)

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20
Q

Six-month history of double vision “that starts in the afternoon and worsens towards the end of the day

A

Myasthenia gravis

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21
Q

Tx for MG

A

Immunosuppressive therapy (such as steroids) and anticholinesterase inhibitors (like pyridostigmine or neostigmine)

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22
Q

Tx for acute/severe MG

A

IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) or plasmapheresis

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23
Q

The hallmark diagnositc test for Guillain-Barré syndrome is..

A

“Albumino-cytologic dissociation” which means raised protein with a normal white cell count

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24
Q

T or F: The diagnosis of a TIA is time based

A

False - tissue based

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25
Q

What are the associate effects of an anterior cerebral artery lesion?

A

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, lower extremity > upper

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26
Q

What are the associated effects of a middle cerebral artery lesion?

A

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, upper extremity > lower
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Aphasia

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27
Q

What are the associated effects of a posterior cerebral artery lesion?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
Visual agnosia - impairment in recognising visually presented objects

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28
Q

What are the associated effects of a lesion on the branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain?

A

Ipsilateral CN III palsy
Contralateral weakness of upper and lower extremity

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29
Q

What are the associated effects of a lesion on posterior inferior cerebellar artery?

A

Ipsilateral: facial pain and temperature loss
Contralateral: limb/torso pain and temperature loss
Ataxia, nystagmus

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30
Q

What are the associated effects of a lesion on anterior inferior cerebellar artery?

A

Symptoms are similar to Wallenberg’s but:
Ipsilateral: facial paralysis and deafness

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31
Q

What are the associated effects of a lesion on retinal/ophthalmic artery?

A

Amaurosis fugax

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32
Q

What are the associated effects of a lesion on basilar artery?

A

‘Locked-in’ syndrome

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33
Q

Eye is deviated ‘down and out’
Ptosis
Pupil may be dilated (sometimes called a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy)

A

Third nerve palsy

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34
Q

Tx for generalised tonic-clonic seizures

A

Males: sodium valproate
Females: lamotrigine or levetiracetam
Girls aged under 10 years and who are unlikely to need treatment when they are old enough to have children or women who are unable to have children may be offered sodium valproate first-line

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35
Q

Tx for focal seizures

A

First line: lamotrigine or levetiracetam
Second line: carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine or zonisamide

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36
Q

Tx for absence seizures (Petit mal)

A

First line: ethosuximide

Second line:
Male: sodium valproate
Female: lamotrigine or levetiracetam
Carbamazepine may exacerbate absence seizures

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37
Q

Tx for myoclonic seizures

A

Males: sodium valproate
Females: levetiracetam

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38
Q

Tx for tonic or atonic seizures

A

Males: sodium valproate
Females: lamotrigine

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39
Q

In acoustic neuroma, CN VIII is affected. What are the clinical signs for this?

A

Vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, unilateral tinnitus

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40
Q

In acoustic neuroma, CN V is affected. What are the clinical signs for this?

A

Absent corneal reflex

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41
Q

In acoustic neuroma, CN VII is affected. What are the clinical signs for this?

A

Facial palsy

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42
Q

Describe Cushing’s triad

A

Bradycardia (also known as a low heart rate)
Irregular respirations
Widened pulse pressure

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43
Q

Reduces Glasgow coma score, quadriplegia, miosis, and absent horizontal eye movements

A

Pontine haemorrhage

Pinpoint Pupils points to pons!

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44
Q

Outline the oxford classification of stroke

A

Total anterior circulation infarcts (TACI)
Partial anterior circulation infarcts (PACI)
Lacunar infarcts (LACI)
Posterior circulation infarcts (POCI)

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45
Q

Total anterior circulation infarcts involves which arteries?

A

Middle and anterior cerebral arteries

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46
Q

Partial anterior circulation involves which arteries?

A

Smaller arteries of anterior circulation e.g. upper or lower division of middle cerebral artery

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47
Q

Lacunar infarcts involves which arteries?

A

Perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus and basal ganglia

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48
Q

Posterior circulation infarcts involves which arteries?

A

Vertebrobasilar arteries

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49
Q

Weakness and wasting of small muscles in hand, loss of reflexes in upper limb and loss of pain/temperature sensation with preserved/vibration sensation

A

Syringomyelia

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50
Q

Medication overuse headache

A

Simple analgesia + triptans: stop abruptly
Opioid analgesia: withdraw gradually

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51
Q

Differentiate between DLB and PDD

A

DLB: DLB can develop Parkinson’s disease-like motor symptoms late in their disease course

PDD: PDD develops late in the course of Parkinson’s disease AFTER the onset of the classic motor symptoms.

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52
Q

Sensation affected over the anterolateral aspect of the thigh without any motor deficits

Which nerve is affected?

A

Lateral cutaneous nerve palsy

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53
Q

Plantar flexors of the ankle and flexors of the toes. Sensory loss would be expected on the sole of the foot

Which nerve is affected?

A

Tibial nerve palsy

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54
Q

Medial compartment of the thigh, which are responsible for hip adduction

Which nerve is affected?

A

Obturator nerve palsy

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55
Q

Weakness of foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion

Which nerve is affected?

A

Common peroneal nerve lesion

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56
Q

Unilateral headache, nausea, photophobia

A

Migraine

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57
Q

Tx for status epilepticus

A

Oh Dear/My Lord Phone Anaesthetics

Oxygen
Diazepam (PR) / Midazolam (Buccal) if Prehospital
Lorazepam (IV) if Hospital
Phenytoin (IV) if two doses of Lorazepam are ineffective
Anaesthetics (Intubate and Barbituates/Propofol if persistent after phenytoin)

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58
Q

Side effects for Clozapine

A

SCAM

Seizures
Constipation/clozapine-induced gastrointestinal hypomotility (CIGH)
Agranulocytosis
Myocarditis

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59
Q

Obese, young female with headaches / blurred vision

A

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

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60
Q

Tx for alcohol withdrawal syndrome

A

Long-acting benzodiazepines first-line, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam.

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61
Q

PD often begins unilaterally and then progresses. Even years following diagnosis, symptoms are worse on one side than another

Bilateral also implies a non-typical disease, such as drug induced parkinsonism. motor symptoms are generally rapid onset and bilateral
rigidity and rest tremor are uncommon

A
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62
Q

Imaging technique in TIA

A

MRI brain with diffusion-weighted imaging

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63
Q

Imaging technique in stroke

A

Non-contrast CT head scan

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64
Q

Pain on neck flexion - Pain on head facing down - Sinusitis; Increased ICP; Meningitis; SAH
Phonophobia - Avoidance of sound - Migraine
Epiphora - Eye watering - Cluster headache
Bilateral tight band pain - Feels like band squashing head - Tension headache
Recent viral illness - ?Infx spread - ?Encephalitis/Meningitis

A
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65
Q

Ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and areflexia with minimal or no limb weakness or sensory symptoms

A

Miller Fisher syndrome (A variant of GBS that starts with the eyes and a descending rather than ascending muscle weakness)

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66
Q

Central scotoma (an enlarged central blind spot)
Pain with eye movement
Impaired colour vision
Relative afferent pupillary defect

A

Optic neuritis - MS

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67
Q

Tx for acute relapse of MS

A

1st line: oral methylprednisolone 0.5g daily for 5 days
If failed or not tolerated on severe relapse: admission for IV methylprednisolone

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68
Q

Tx for fatigue of MS

A

Rule out any other potential medical cause
Reassurance and explanation
Non-drug-based therapies: mindfulness, CBT, exercise programmes

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69
Q

Tx for spasticity/mobility issues of MS

A

1st line: consider baclofen or gabapentin (risk of addiction and respiratory depression, especially in existing opioid users)
2nd line: consider tizanidine or dantrolene
3rd line: consider a benzodiazepine

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70
Q

Tx for ataxia of MS

A

No recommended treatment. Consider physio or OT referral

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71
Q

Tx for mental health problems of MS

A

1st line for emotional lability: Amitriptylinen
Offer CBT to patients having issues coping with MS (depression more common in these patients)

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72
Q

Tx for pain of MS

A

MSK/neuropathic pain is treated the same

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73
Q

Tx for sexual dysfunction of MS

A

PDE-5 inhibitors for erectile dysfunction in men
Referral to counselling services

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74
Q

If symptoms are both new, and lasted longer than 24hrs these are most likely to be an acute relapse of MS and therefore treated with..

A

Methylprednisolone (IV or oral)

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75
Q

Which disease modifying drugs are used in MS and what is their purpose?

A

Natalizumab - once-monthly infusion
Ocrelizumab
Fingolimod - may reduce the percentage of relapses but is not a treatment for acute relapses

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76
Q

Tx for essential tremor

A

Propranolol is first-line
Primidone is sometimes used

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77
Q

Postural tremor: worse if arms outstretched
Improved by alcohol and rest

A

Essential tremor

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78
Q

Tx for cluster headache

A

Acute: 100% oxygen and subcutaneous triptan
Prophylaxis: verapamil

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79
Q

Tx for acute migraine

A

Triptan + NSAID or triptan + paracetamol

Triptan to treat
Propranol to prevent

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80
Q

Tx for prophylaxis of migraine

A

1st line: Topiramate, atl. is propranolol (unless asthmatic)
2nd line: Amitriptyline (risk of birth defects, also a sedative as it is a tricyclic)

Triptan to treat
Propranol to prevent

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81
Q

Outline the MRC scale

A
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82
Q

Distinguish between an upper and lower motor neurone lesion

A

The forehead will be spared in an upper motor neurone lesion so the patient can move their forehead on the affected side. In a lower motor neurone lesion, the forehead is not spared, and the patient cannot move their forehead on the affected side.

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83
Q

Tx for bell’s palsy

A

Prednisolone
Eye care (if pain, refer to ophthalmology for exposure keratopathy, eye is taped shut at night)
If no improvement after 3 weeks, refer urgently to ENT

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84
Q

In purely motor signs, suspect..

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

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85
Q

Tx for Parkinson’s

A

If motor symptoms are affecting quality of life: levodopa

If motor symptoms are nor affecting quality of life: Dopamine agonist: bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, apomorphine
Levodopa
MAO‑B inhibitor: selegiline

If continues to have symptoms despite optimal levodopa treatment or has developed dyskinesia:

Addition of a dopamine agonist
MAO‑B inhibitor
Or catechol‑O‑methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitor as an adjunct: entacapone, tolcapone

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86
Q

Vertical diplopia

A

Trigeminal nerve

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87
Q

Horizontal diplopia

A

Abducens nerve

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88
Q

Differentiate between hypoglossal and vagus nerve lesions

A

CN XII (hypoglossal): ‘lick your wounds’ so your tongue would go toward the lesion

CN X (vagus): nerve is scared of the damaged side so
uvula runs away from it

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89
Q

Efferent loss of gag reflex

A

CN X (Vagus)

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90
Q

Afferent loss of gag reflex

A

CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)

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91
Q
A
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92
Q

Loss of sensation to the skin over the “sergeant’s patch”, lateral arm and lateral forearm

Wasting of the deltoid, supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles and the anterior compartment of the arm

Loss of shoulder abduction and external rotation, elbow flexion and wrist supination

Biceps reflex is absent. Wrist flexion, wrist extension and finger movements are usually preserved

What is the diagnosis? Which nerve is affected?

A

Brachial plexus injury - Erb’s palsy (C5/C6)

Damage to musculocutaneous, axillary, suprascapular and nerve to subclavius

If C7 was also injured, then elbow and wrist extension will also be diminished and the wrist may be held in fixed flexion

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93
Q

Loss of skin sensation in the medial forearm and arm, median and ulnar distributions of the hand, the sensory supply to the lateral dorsum of the hand is preserved

generalised wasting of hand muscles with a loss of MCPJ flexion, IPJ extension, finger abduction and adduction, and opposition

Claw hand deformity. The wrist is classically held supinated

What is the diagnosis? Which nerve is affected?

A

Brachial plexus injury - klumpke’s (C8/T1)

Damage to median and ulnar nerves

If the hand was paralysed it would be C8 and T1 and be called Klumpke’s. since it is just T1, the C8 component of the ulnar nerve is still working so it is only weakened

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94
Q

When is an carotid artery endarterectomy indicated?

A

If asymptomatic, carotid stenosis threshold is 70%
If symptomatic, carotid stenosis threshold is 50%

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95
Q

Outline the aphasia classification

A
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96
Q

Can repeat words but cannot generate spontaneous speech

Lesions result in sentences that make no sense, word substitution and neologisms but speech remains fluent - ‘word salad’

A

Wernick’s (receptive) aphasia

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97
Q

Speech is non-fluent, laboured, and halting. Repetition is impaired

Comprehension is normal

A

Broca’s (expressive) aphasia

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98
Q

Speech is fluent but repetition is poor. Aware of the errors they are making

Comprehension is normal

A

Conduction aphasia

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99
Q

Severe expressive and receptive aphasia

May still be able to communicate using gestures

A

Global aphasia

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100
Q

Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia is caused by which lesion?

A

Due to a lesion of the superior temporal gyrus. It is typically supplied by the inferior division of the left MCA

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101
Q

Broca’s (expressive) aphasia is caused by which lesion?

A

Due to a lesion of the inferior frontal gyrus. It is typically supplied by the superior division of the left MCA

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102
Q

Conductive aphasia is caused by which lesion?

A

Due to a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus - the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area

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103
Q

Global aphasia is caused by which lesion?

A

Lesion in both the superior and inferior temporal gyrus
+ a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus

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104
Q

A stroke of this Left middle cerebral artery would cause contralateral homonymous quadrantanopia or hemianopia, due to the damage to the optic radiation

A stroke of this Right middle cerebral artery would cause left homonymous hemianopia, due to the damage to the optic radiation

A

The symptoms of a stroke are typically contralateral to the side of the brain where the stroke has occurred. This is because the motor fibres (corticospinal tract) that control our movements decussate or cross over in the medulla oblongata, a part of the brainstem. Hence, damage to one side of the brain will result in motor deficits on the opposite side of the body.

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105
Q

Guillain Barre tends to affect legs first and progress to arms in a gloves and stocking fashion, which can cause problems with finger adduction/abduction

A

Adduction

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106
Q

Red flags for headaches

A

SAINT POISON

Severe
Affected personality
I (Eyes - visual changes)
Neuro deficit (Consciousness, focal, cognition)
Triggers (Cough, valsalva, posture change, sneeze etc.)
Pregnant
Older
Injury
Secondary risk factors (immunocompromise, malignancy risk)
Onset sudden
New symptoms (a change in severity, location etc.)

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107
Q

An isolated result of high protein in the CSF is indicative of..

A

Guillian barre = protein barrr = high protein

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108
Q

Low glucose and high white cells and protein in the CSF

A

Bacterial meningitis

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109
Q

Urinary incontinence + gait abnormality + dementia = ?

A

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

‘Wet, Wobbly and Wacky’:
Wet = urinary incontinence
Wobbly = ataxia
Wacky = cognitive disturbance/dementia

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110
Q

If there are no abnormalities detected on EEG post an epilepsy attack, a patient cannot drive for ___ months regarding car and motorbike licenses

A

6 months

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111
Q

If there are abnormalities detected on EEG post an epilepsy attack, a patient cannot drive for ___ months regarding car and motorbike licenses

A

12 months

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112
Q

If a patient had one seizure and wants to drive using a group 2 license, they must have been seizure free for ___ years

A

5 years

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113
Q

If a patient had more than one seizure and wants to drive using a group 2 license, they must have been seizure free for ___ years

A

10 years

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114
Q

Unilateral electric shock-like pains in the face triggered by light touch (such as combing hair or washing) suggest..

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

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115
Q

Tx for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

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116
Q

Tx for IIH

A

Weight loss
Semaglitide and topiramate may be considered
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors e.g. acetazolamide

Surgery: optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration to prevent damage to the optic nerve. A lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce ICP

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117
Q

Blood test results for Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

A raised creatine kinase
AKI (secondary to rhabdomyolysis) in severe cases
A leukocytosis

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118
Q

Tx for Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Stop antipsychotic
IV fluids to prevent renal failure
Dantrolene, bromocriptine or dopamine agonist may be used

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119
Q

Differentiate between serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A
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120
Q

Cerebellar hemisphere lesions cause..

A

Peripheral (‘finger-nose ataxia’)

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121
Q

Cerebellar vermis lesions cause..

A

Gait ataxia

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122
Q

Tx for acute subdural haematoma

A

Small or incidental acute subdurals can be observed conservatively. Surgical options include monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy

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123
Q

Tx for chronic subdural haematoma

A

Surgical decompression with burr holes

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124
Q

LPs aren’t contraindicated in IIH patients because the pressure is the constant throughout the whole of the space that the CSF occupies (e.g. brain and spinal cord)

The reason LPs are contra-indicated in other causes of raised ICP are because there is often a pressure gradient between the CSF of the brain and the spinal cord - in these patients, by performing an LP, you can subsequently create a pressure gradient which then results in ‘coning’ which is the reason for why they are contraindicated.

A
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125
Q

Which tests are normally done to exclude other diagnosis when presenting with a TIA

A

MRI (including diffusion-weighted and blood-sensitive sequences
Blood glucose

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126
Q

All TIA patients should have an ___________ after imaging unless they are not a candidate

A

Urgent carotid dopple

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127
Q

Whenever the cause of the stroke is unclear, in a young individual with no known stroke risk factors, ______________ can be performed to further investigate other potential causes

A

Screening blood tests - antinuclear antibodies, antiphospholipid antibodies, anticardiolipin antibodies, lupus anticoagulant, coagulation factors, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, homocysteine and syphilis serology

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128
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia can only occur if the spinal cord injury occurs above the ___ level

A

T6 level

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129
Q

GCS for eye opening

A

4 - Like Four Eyes - Eye

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130
Q

GCS for verbal response

A

5 - V Like the Roman Numeral - Verbal

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131
Q

GCS for motor response

A

6 - Last one and it goes 456 - Move

To be counted as localising, the arm must be brought above the clavicle, else it should be scored as ‘flexing’

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132
Q

Which posture is shown here? How much does this score on the GCS?

A

Decorticate posturing - may be significant damage to areas including the cerebral hemispheres, the internal capsule, and the thalamus

This is an abnormal flexion response to pain so 3 points

The cerebral cortex lies above the cerebellum, so when a patient’s arms flexed up toward the face , he is pointing to his “core” (de-cor-ticate).

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133
Q

Which posture is shown here? How much does this score on the GCS?

A

Decerebrate posturing - indicates brain stem damage. It is exhibited by people with lesions or compression in the midbrain and lesions in the cerebellum

This is an abnormal extension response to pain so 2 points

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134
Q

Progression from decorticate posturing to decerebrate posturing is often indicative of..

A

Uncal (transtentorial) or tonsilar brain herniation (often referred to as coning)

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135
Q

Which tracts are affected in Subacute Combined Degeneration?

A

(S)pinocerebellar tracts
Lateral (C)orticospinal tracts
(D)orsal column

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136
Q

Distal tingling/burning/sensory loss is symmetrical and tends to affect the legs more than the arms

Impaired proprioception and vibration sense

A

Dorsal column involvement

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137
Q

Muscle weakness, hyperreflexia, and spasticity
Upper motor neuron signs typically develop in the legs first
Brisk knee reflexes
Absent ankle jerks
Extensor plantars

A

Lateral corticospinal tract involvement

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138
Q

Sensory ataxia → gait abnormalities
Positive Romberg’s sign

A

Spinocerebellar tract involvement

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139
Q

What can precipitate subacute combined degeneration of the cord in a patient?

A

Replacing folate without vitamin B12

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140
Q

For those who thought this sounded like an absence seizure (and therefore generalised, which can be a complication of bacterial meningitis) - I gathered that the distinguishing feature here was the aura of a ‘weird sensation’ is what pointed to temporal lobe seizure. And any focal neurologic sign with intracranial infection points to encephalitis

A
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141
Q

Tx for encephalitis

A

IV aciclovir

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142
Q

Confusion, gait ataxia, nystagmus + ophthalmoplegia

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

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143
Q

What is the treatment for Wernicke’s encephalopathy? What is the consequence of this condition if left untreated?

A

Urgent replacement of thiamine

If left untreated - will develop into Korsakoff Syndrome

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144
Q

Why is aspirin given as the initial treatment to the following patient?

A
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145
Q

How do Lacunar strokes present?

A

unilateral weakness and/or sensory deficits of the face and arm, arm and leg, or all 3, a pure sensory stroke, or ataxic hemiparesis

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146
Q

Myasthenia gravis has a strong association with..

A

Autoimmune diseases

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147
Q

Crescent-shaped white-grey discrete lesion

A

Subdural haemorrhage caused by shearing of bridging veins between cortex and venous sinus

Bridges are crescent-shaped, hence crescent description = bridging veins

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148
Q

Berry aneurysm

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

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149
Q

Extra-dural haematoma

A

Middle meningeal artery

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150
Q

____________ is a contraindication to triptan use

A

Cardiovascular disease

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151
Q

Why is contrast imaging used in MS?

A

You are trying to see ‘dissemination of lesions in time’ i.e. to know that the demyelinating lesions occurred at different times. This is because newer lesions will take up contrast, but older lesions will not take up contrast but will still be visible on T2. Therefore you need contrast to identify this.

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152
Q

Loss of dorsiflexion and eversion suggests..

A

Common peroneal nerve lesion

TIPPED
Tibial - inversion - plantarflex
Peroneal - eversion - dorsalflex

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153
Q

In ____________ eversion tends to be spared while inversion is weak and sensory involvement tends to be great

A

L5 radiculopathy. There’s also pain involved

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154
Q

What are common side effects of Lamotrigine?

A

Rash - Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Sore throat

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155
Q

_______________ are found in the CSF of 80% of MS patients

A

Oligoclonal bands

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156
Q

Ulnar nerve vs Klumpke’s palsy

A

In an ulnar nerve palsy, the sensory loss is limited to the hypothenar eminence, little finger, and half the ring finger. In Klumpke’s palsy, the sensory loss covers the entire C8 and T1 dermatomes.

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157
Q

What is C1M?

A

Herniation of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum

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158
Q

What are the two causes of disturbed CSF flow in C1M?

A

Syringomyelia (common; ~50%)
Hydrocephalus (uncommon)

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159
Q

Which segments does Syringomyelia occur in?

A

Cervical and thoracic

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160
Q

Which tract is affected by Syringomyelia?

A

Compression of the spinothalamic tracts decussating in the anterior white commissure

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161
Q

Dissociative loss of sensation of pain, temperature and non-discriminative touch. There is classically a ‘cape-like’ distribution of this sensory loss

A

Syringomyelia

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162
Q

Triad sx for normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Urinary incontinence, cognitive impairment, and gait disturbance - wet, wacky and wobbly

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163
Q

Neuroimaging findings for normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Ventriculomegaly out of proportion to sulcal enlargement

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164
Q

Neuroimaging findings for raised ICP

A

Midline shift

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165
Q

What does sulcal widening on neuroimaging indicate?

A

Normal ageing process

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166
Q

How can a vestibular schwannoma cause CN V and VII involvement?

A

Because it occurs at the cerebellopontine angle where CNV, VII, VIII are located. So they all get ‘squished’ and don’t function

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167
Q

Bitemporal hemianopia
lesion of optic chiasm
upper quadrant defect > lower quadrant defect = inferior chiasmal compression, commonly a pituitary tumour
lower quadrant defect > upper quadrant defect = superior chiasmal compression, commonly a craniopharyngioma

A
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168
Q

The _________ lobe is the second most common origin site of focal partial seizures after the temporal lobe

A

Frontal

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169
Q

Supracondylar fracture of humerus is most commonly associated with _______ nerve damage

Fracture of the proximal humerus is most commonly associated with _______ nerve damage

Fracture of the shaft of the humerus is most commonly associated with _______ nerve damage

A

Supracondylar fracture of humerus is most commonly associated with ulnar nerve damage

Fracture of the proximal humerus is most commonly associated with axillary nerve damage

Fracture of the shaft of the humerus is most commonly associated with radial nerve damage

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170
Q

Drugs that cause SJS

A

Never Press Skin As (IT) Can Peel

NSAIDS, Phenytoin, Sulfa drugs, Allopurinol, (IV immunoglobulin), Carbamazapine, Penicillins

carbamazepine, lamotrigine, allopurinol, sulfonamide, phenobarbital.

Other drugs most commonly associated with SJS:
Phenytoin
Salicylates
Sertraline
Imidazole antifungal agents
Nevirapine

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171
Q

Syringomyelia vs diabetic neuropathy

A

SM: a ‘cape-like’ (neck, shoulders and arms)
loss of sensation to temperature but the preservation of light touch, proprioception and vibration

DN: Glove and stocking. Proprioception and vibration lost

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172
Q

LEMS vs MG

A

Weakness in Lambert Eaton improves after exercise, unlike myasthenia gravis; which worsens after exercise

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173
Q

Symptoms of electric shock-like pains on one side of her face, with multiple episodes a day lasting for 30-60 seconds

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

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174
Q

Following a first seizure, patients must be seizure for ____________ before they may reapply to the DVLA for their license to be reissued. If the patient has a formal diagnosis of epilepsy they must be seizure-free for at least ____________ before they may reapply to the DVLA for their license to be reissued.

A

Following a first seizure, patients must be seizure for 6 months before they may reapply to the DVLA for their license to be reissued. If the patient has a formal diagnosis of epilepsy they must be seizure-free for at least 12 months before they may reapply to the DVLA for their license to be reissued.

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175
Q

Unable to dorsiflex the ankle, evert the foot or extend his toes. There is loss of sensation of the dorsum of the foot

A

Common peroneal nerve lesion

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176
Q

_____________ is used to treat cerebral oedema in patients with brain tumours

A

Dexamethasone

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177
Q

LOAF muscles of the hand are __________ innervation, all other flexor hand muscles are __________

A

LOAF muscles of the hand are median innervation, all other flexor hand muscles are ulnar

L ateral two lumbricals
O pponens pollicis
A bductor pollicis brevis
F lexor pollicis brevis

LOAF of Bread - B for aBductor pollicis

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178
Q

I think the different lies in the fact that polyneuropathy affects both sides and in a similar pattern like for example the peripheral neuropathy in diabetes does. Whereas mononeuritix multiplex affects in a sporadic and non consistent way different nerve trunks.

A
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179
Q

Head/leg movements, posturing, post-ictal weakness, Jacksonian march

A

Frontal lobe seizure

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180
Q

Paraesthesia

A

Parietal lobe seizure

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181
Q

Floaters/flashes

A

Occipital lobe seizure

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182
Q

Automatisms (e.g. lip smacking/grabbing/plucking)

A

Temporal lobe seizure

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183
Q

DeCuSSate - D & C letters come earlier ie Dorsal column & Corticospinal tract decussate earlier (ipsilateral signs), S letter comes later ie Spinothalamic tract decussates later (contralateral sign)

A
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184
Q

ipsilateral weakness below lesion
ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration sensation
contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

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185
Q

Ix for a brain abscess

A

Imaging with CT scanning

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186
Q

Mx for brain abscess

A

Craniotomy - abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage
IV antibiotics: IV 3rd-generation cephalosporin + metronidazole
intracranial pressure management: e.g. dexamethasone

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187
Q

On neurological examination, you notice a high-frequency tremor, most pronounced on the left, when the patient holds up his arms in front of him. The tremor is absent when the patient relaxes his arms and hands and there is no evidence of any ataxia or hypotonia

A

essential tremor

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188
Q

Café-au-lait spots (>= 6, 15 mm in diameter)
Axillary/groin freckles
Peripheral neurofibromas
Lisch nodules
Pheochromocytomas

A

NF1

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189
Q

Finger-nose ataxia

A

Cerebellar hemisphere lesion

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190
Q

Hypokinetic (e.g. Parkinsonism) or hyperkinetic (e.g. Huntington’s)

A

Basal ganglia lesion

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191
Q

Sensory symptoms, dyslexia, dysgraphia

A

Parietal lobe lesion

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192
Q

Motor symptoms, expressive aphasia, disinhibition

A

Frontal lobe

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193
Q

The most common secondary brain tumours are…

A

Lung, breast, kidney, melanoma and colorectal

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194
Q

The symptoms described here would fit with a form of aphasia (most likely global given her need for written instructions) and therefore her dominant hemisphere must be affected. Although you do not know the handedness of the patient in the scenario, the most likely affected side is the left as the percentage of right and left handed individuals with a dominant left hemisphere is 90% and 60% respectively, making the left always the most likely affected side regardless of handedness.

A
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195
Q

Reflexes mnemonic

A

S1-S2 button my shoe
L3-L4 kick the door
C5-C6 pick up sticks
C7-C8 open the gate

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196
Q

Which anti-emetic is used in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Domperidone

(Remember this as a guy with tremor opening a bottle of Dom Perignon)

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197
Q

PICA/LS

A

DANVAH” - Dysphagia, ipsilateral Ataxia, ipsilateral Nystagmus, Vertigo, Anaesthesia (Ipsilateral facial numbness and contralateral pain loss on the body)

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198
Q

IIH vs intracranial venous thrombosis

A

IIH: typically no visual symptoms but there is papilloedema
IVT: impaired vision, focal neurological deficits, cranial nerve palsies

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199
Q

Hyperdensity in the affected sinus
Filling defect (‘the empty delta sign’)

A

Intracranial venous thrombosis

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200
Q

Ix for IVT

A

Non-contrast CT
CT venogram

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201
Q

Mx for IVT

A

LMWH and addressing risk factors

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202
Q

Tx for IIH

A

Weight loss
CA-i: acetazolamide
Alt.: topiramate and candesartan

Resistant cases: lumbar punctures, surgical CSF shunting or optic nerve sheath fenestration

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203
Q

In Babinski sign there is a spread of the sensory input beyond the ___ myotome to ___ and ___

A

S1 myotome to L4 and L5

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204
Q

Subarachnoid haemorrhage is associated with..

A

PKD

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205
Q

Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage can occur secondary to a..

A

Ruptured berry aneurysm

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206
Q

Occipital headache often described as a “thunderclap” or “being hit at the back of the head”

A

SAH

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207
Q

Hypo vs hyperdense area on CT

A

Ischaemic stroke: HYPO-dense area on CT
Haemorrhagic stroke: HYPER-dense area on CT

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208
Q

Differentiate between Barthel index and NIHSS

A

Barthel index: asses functional independence/activities of daily living
NIHSS: extent and severity of neurological impairment

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209
Q

Which organism is the most common cause of encephalitis?

A

HSV

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210
Q

Chronic management of a stroke for prevention

A

Aspirin 300mg 2 weeks + clopi
then drop the aspirin and only continue the clopidogrel

if clopi is contraindicated then dipyradamole with aspirin long term

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211
Q

In a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy there is pupil involvement. This is because..

A

Parasympathetic (constrictive) fibres run on the outside of the nerve. External compression will impair function of these fibres, causing pupil dilation

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212
Q

The most common cause of a surgical third nerve palsy is a ______________________. Other causes include..

A

The most common cause of a surgical third nerve palsy is a posterior communicating artery aneurysm. Other causes include cavernous sinus lesions (infection, thrombosis, tumour infiltration)

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213
Q

In raised ICP, if the GCS is <8 then you should..

A

Intubate then transfer to ICU

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214
Q

Damage to the right occipital lobe would cause a..

A

Left sided homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

Conversely, damage to the left occipital lobe would cause a right sided homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

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215
Q

Obstructive (or non-communicating) hydrocephalus vs communicating hydrocephalus

A

Obstructive: Flow of CSF is blocked along one or more of the narrow passages connecting the ventricles. Common sites include the foramen of Monro (e.g. due to colloid cysts), cerebral aqueduct (e.g. due to aqueduct stenosis), or fourth ventricle (e.g. due to posterior fossa tumour).

Communicating: CSF can exit the ventricular system, but absorption into the bloodstream is impeded. Commonly due to problems in the subarachnoid space, often stemming from complications like subarachnoid haemorrhage and infective meningitis

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216
Q

Target SBP in haemorrhagic stroke?

A

<140 to maintain cerebral perfusion

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217
Q

Contraindications to thrombolysis

A

Anticoagulation with an INR >1.7
Unknown time of onset of her symptoms - risk of intracranial haemorrhage should she receive alteplase

Plus head trauma, GI/IC haemorrhage, recent surgery, abnormal BP/platelet count

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218
Q

Causes of peripheral neuropathy

A

ABCDE

Alcohol
B12/Folate
Chronic Renal Failure
Diabetes Mellitus
Everything Else - Vasculitis and Paraneoplastic syndromes

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219
Q

Car/motorbike license:

One off seizure = ?
More than one seizure = ?
Seizure following change in antiepileptic medications = ?

A

One off seizure = reapply in 6 months
More than one seizure = reapply in one year
Seizure following change in antiepileptic medications = reapply to drive if seizure was more than 6 months ago or you’ve been back on previous medication for 6 months

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220
Q

Bus/coach/lorry license:

One off seizure: ?
More than one seizure: ?

A

One off seizure: reapply in 5 years or if you haven’t taken anti epileptic medications for 5 years
More than one seizure: reapply once you haven’t had a seizure for 10 years or you haven’t taken any anti-epileptic medication for 10 years

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221
Q

Most common visual defect presented in optic neuritis

A

Central scotoma

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222
Q

Which nerves are affected in bulbar palsy?

A

Ninth (glossopharyngeal), tenth (vagus), and twelfth (hypoglossal) cranial nerves

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223
Q

Subjective abdominal symptoms, and then staring, followed by lip smacking and a period of disorientation

A

Temporal seizure

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224
Q

Sudden jerking of a limb, trunk, or face. Consciousness is preserved and these movements can be violent and unpredictable

A

Myoclonic seizure

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225
Q

Loss of muscle tone, causing a fall

A

Atonic seizure

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226
Q

LP results show a raised PMN WCC, raised protein and low glucose

A

Bacterial

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227
Q

Symptoms that point towards Ramsay Hunt over Bell’s palsy

A

Burning pain, vertigo and vesicular rash

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228
Q

Signs and symptoms of cerebellar dysfunction

A

Dysdiadochokinesia: An inability to perform rapid alternating hand movements.
Ataxia: A broad-based, unsteady gait.
Nystagmus: Involuntary eye movements.
Intention tremor: Observed during the ‘finger-nose test’.
Slurred speech.
Hypotonia.

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229
Q

Truncal ataxia and gait instability

A

Lesions to the cerebellar vermis

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230
Q

Cerebral dysfunction signs in the ipsilateral limb

A

Cerebellar hemisphere lesion

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231
Q

Clinical signs for raised ICP

A

Cushing’s triad:

Bradycardia, hypertension and irregular/abnormal breathing

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232
Q

Bilateral findings of upper limb weakness, spasticity on arm extension, brisk triceps’ reflexes, and suppressed C6 reflexes. His biceps reflexes are normal bilaterally. There is sensory loss over his middle fingers

A

Cervical Myelopathy

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233
Q

Differentiate between conduction aphasia and Wernicke’s

A

Conductive is simply an impaired repetition with preserved comprehension, whereas Wernicke’s is impaired repetition plus impaired comprehension

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234
Q

The fibers that control the lower face travel from the cortex down to the brainstem. In the brainstem, these fibers cross over to the opposite, or contralateral, facial nerve.

The fibers that control the upper face take a slightly different path. After travelling down to the brainstem, half of the fibers cross over to the contralateral facial nerve, and half remain on the same side and contribute to the ipsilateral facial nerve.

Therefore, the eyes and forehead receive innervation from both hemispheres, while the lower face only receives innervation from the contralateral hemisphere

LMN - Ipsilateral
UMN - Contralateral

A
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235
Q

Side effects of phenytoin

A

P= p450 interactions
H = hirsutism
E= enlarged gums
N = nystagmus
Y= yellow skin ie jaundice
T = teratogen
O = osteomalacia
I = intereference with b12 metabolism
N = neuropathies

+ megaloblastic anaemia

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236
Q

Status epilepticus: rule out _________ and _________ before thinking of other causes

A

Status epilepticus: rule out hypoxia and hypoglycaemia before thinking of other causes

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237
Q

Which drugs can increase the risk of IIH?

A

A LOST Cause

A - Vitamin A, amiodarone & retinoids
L - lithium/levothyroxine
O - OCP
S - steroids
T - tetracycline, sulphonamides
C - cimetidine, cyclosporin

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238
Q

Cushing Reflex Vitals as the Opposite to Hypovolaemic Shock

A
  1. Hypertension (HV Shock = Hypotension)
  2. Bradycardia (HV Shock = Tachycardia)
  3. Wide Pulse Pressure (HV Shock = Narrow Pulse Pressure)
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239
Q

Generalised tonic-clonic seizures (GTCS) and myoclonic episodes shortly after waking

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy - seizures in the morning/following sleep deprivation

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240
Q

Strong postural relationship with the headache generally much worse when upright

A

Spontaneous intracranial hypotension

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241
Q

Ix for Spontaneous intracranial hypotension

A

MRI with gadolinium

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242
Q

Tx for Spontaneous intracranial hypotension

A

Bed rest, hydration, or a procedure called an epidural blood patch

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243
Q

When is preventative treatment indicated in migraines?

A

When migraines occur >1/week on average

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244
Q

A 63 year old male presents to the Emergency Department with complete left sided paralysis and double vision. This came on suddenly. On examination, he was unable to abduct his right eye and had an absent corneal reflex. Where is the lesion?

A

Right pons

Cranial nerve lesions are ipsilateral, except trochlear. Abducting the right eye is the lateral rectus muscle, supplied by the Abducens nucleus (VI). This comes out of the pons. Additionally, the absent corneal reflex (utilises CN V: afferent and VII: efferent in the reflex) is absent, further implicating the pons. Corticospinal fibres travel through the pons and decussate later in the medulla, hence hemiparesis would be contralateral to the site of the lesion

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245
Q

Neck stiffness and positive Kernig’s sign

A

Meningism

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246
Q

Symptoms continue to deteriorate without any periods of recovery or relapse.

A

Primary progressive MS

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247
Q

Initially have the relapsing-remitting form of MS. Symptoms in this stage now start to steadily progress without the periods of recovery that had previously occurred

A

Secondary progressive MS

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248
Q

Patient experiences a cycle of relapses, followed by a period of recovery with no symptoms

A

Relapsing-remitting

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249
Q

Bilateral symptoms suggests drug induced/ idiopathic Parkinson’s

A

Drug-induced

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250
Q

Which symptoms are not normally seen in MND?

A

Doesn’t affect external ocular muscles
No cerebellar signs
Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved and sphincter dysfunction if present is a late feature

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251
Q

Nerve conduction studies shows normal motor conduction

Electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude

A

Motor neuron disease

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252
Q

If a patient is on warfarin/a DOAC/ or has a bleeding disorder and they are suspected of having a TIA, they should be admitted immediately for..

A

Imaging to exclude a haemorrhage

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253
Q

Humeral, middle arm and supracondylar injuries damage which nerves?

A

|A| Top of the arm (humeral head dislocation) = Axillary nerve injury
|R| Middle of the arm (midshaft) = Radial nerve injury
| |
| |
|M| Supracondylar = Median nerve injury

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254
Q

C4 shoulder shrugs
C5 shoulder abduction and external rotation; elbow flexion
C6 wrist extension
C7 elbow extension and wrist flexion
C8 thumb extension and finger flexion
T1 finger abduction
L2 hip flexion
L3 knee extension
L4 ankle dorsiflexion
L5 great toe extension
S1 ankle plantarflexion
S4 bladder and rectum motor supply

A
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255
Q

What is the most common complication of Meningitis?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

Other:
Seizures
Focal neurological deficit
Sepsis, intracerebral abscess
Brain herniation, hydrocephalus

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256
Q

Differentiate between Tuberous sclerosis and Neurofibromatosis

A
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257
Q

Hoffman’s sign is seen in which two conditions?

A

DCM
Multiple Sclerosis

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258
Q

Which anti-epileptic causes weight gain?

A

Sodium Val-Pro-Weight!

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259
Q

Unilateral spastic paresis and loss of proprioception/vibration sensation with loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

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260
Q

Neuropathic pain drugs

A

Don’t - Duloxetine
Get - Gabapentin
Pain - Pregabalin
Again - Amitriptyline

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261
Q

Fever, headache and a focal neurological deficit in the form of arm weakness + seizure

A

Brain abscess

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262
Q

Triad dementia, myoclonus, and rigidity + mutism

A

CJD

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263
Q

Paraesthesias affecting thumb and first finger
Grip weakness and dropping objects unintentionally
Wasting over the thenar eminence
A positive Hoffmans sign

A

DCM

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264
Q

Resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, postural instability

Dysarthria and reduced vertical eye movements

A

Progressive supranuclear palsy

PSP = problem seeing planes = vertical gaze palsy

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265
Q

Which test is done if falls occur soon after the diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease?

A

An alternative diagnosis should be considered, most likely a Parkinsons-plus syndrome such as PSP - so test for CN III, IV, VI

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266
Q

Features of NMS

A

FEVER

Fever
Encephalopathy
Vitals dysregulation - increase in HR, RR, Fever
Enzyme - CK increase
Rigidity

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267
Q

Ptosis, a dilated pupil, and an eye deviated downwards and outwards on the left side

A

3rd nerve palsy

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268
Q

Horizontal diplopia that worsens when looking to the left side due to weakness in abduction of the left eye

A

6th nerve palsy

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269
Q

Upwards and rotated outwards, along with worsening double vision when looking to the left

A

4th nerve palsy

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270
Q

Vertical diplopia noticed when reading a book or going downstairs
Subjective tilting of objects (torsional diplopia)
Head tilt
when looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards

A

4th nerve palsy

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271
Q

Left-sided ptosis and miosis and the patient has left-sided ataxia

A

Left posterior inferior cerebellar artery/ lateral medullary syndrome

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272
Q

Pupil is enlarged with the eye pointed outwards and downwards

A

Branch of the posterior cerebral artery/ Weber’s syndrome

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273
Q

Paralysis and loss of proprioception on the same side as the lesion, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side as the lesion

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

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274
Q

Symptoms of temporal lobe seizures

A

THREAD - Temporal, Hallucinations, Rising Epigastrium, Automatism, Deja Vu

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275
Q

Which primary cancer is most likely to be responsible for brain lesions?

A

Left Brained Metastases Can Kill
Lung >Breast > Melanoma > Colorectal > Kidney

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276
Q

Distal sensory loss, tingling + absent ankle jerks/extensor plantars + gait abnormalities/Romberg’s positive

A

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord

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277
Q

Migraine triggers

A

CHOCOLATE

Chocolate
Hangovers
Orgasms
Cheese/caffeine
Oral contraceptives
Lie-ins
Alcohol
Travel
Exercise

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278
Q

Stroke vs bell’s palsy

A

Stroke Spares forehead

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279
Q

One sided facial paralysis and unable to raise eyebrow

A

Bell’s palsy

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280
Q

_________ is used in increased ICP due to TBI whereas _________ is used in increased ICP due to tumours

A

Mannitol is used in increased ICP due to TBI whereas dexamethasone is used in increased ICP due to tumours

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281
Q

Gently flicking one finger on a patient’s hand. A positive test results in reflex twitching of the other fingers on the same hand in response to the flick

A

DCM - Hoffman’s sign

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282
Q

DCM can often be confused with..

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

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283
Q

Disc degeneration and ligament hypertrophy, with accompanying cord signal change

A

DCM

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284
Q

Gold standard investigation for DCM

A

MRI

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285
Q

Tx for DCM

A

Urgent referral for assessment by specialist spinal services (neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery)

Decompressive surgery + physiotherapy within 6 months of diagnosis

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286
Q

A high-stepping gait develops to compensate for foot drop. If found unilaterally then a ________________ should be suspected. Bilateral foot drop is more likely to be due to ________________

A

A high-stepping gait develops to compensate for foot drop. If found unilaterally then a common peroneal nerve lesion should be suspected. Bilateral foot drop is more likely to be due to peripheral neuropathy

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287
Q

To differentiate between flexion and withdrawing you need to apply _______________ to see if the patient pulls away from the stimulus or remains flexed

To be counted as localising, the arm must be brought above the ___________, else it should be scored as ‘flexing’

A

To differentiate between flexion and withdrawing you need to apply nail bed pressure to see if the patient pulls away from the stimulus or remains flexed

To be counted as localising, the arm must be brought above the clavicle, else it should be scored as ‘flexing’

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288
Q

When is Carbemazepine taken? Which type of seizures does it worsen?

A

Carbemazepine is taken in the (AM) - Worsens (A)bsence & (M)yoclonic Seizures.

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289
Q

Hyperventilation ==> Decreases CO2 ==> Decreases vasodilation (i.e. increases vasoconstriction) ==> Decreases total cerebral blood volume ==> Decreases ICP

Intracranial pressure and blood pressure are not the same thing. Blood pressure in the cerebral vessels could be high but overall intracranial pressure would be lowered because overall there is less volume in the cranium

Everything we do in raised ICP is to make the intracranial contents ‘smaller’.
- vasoconstrict through controlled hyperventilation
- head tilt 35 degrees in midline position to optimise venous drainage
- anaesthetise to reduce metabolic activity
- analgese to make brain smaller (idk how)
- control BM (osmotic)
- cool brain = smaller brain (controller hypothermia, think this is variably used)

A
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290
Q

Non-communicating hydrocephalus
Headache
Syringomyelia

A

Arnold-Chiari malformation

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290
Q

Arnold-Chiari malformation is downward displacement, or herniation, of the cerebellar tonsils through the __________ __________

A

Arnold-Chiari malformation is downward displacement, or herniation, of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum

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291
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia explanation

A
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292
Q

Loss of proprioception, light touch and vibration sense (sensory ataxia and a positive Romberg’s test) in SCDC is due to damage in which column?

A

Damage to the posterior columns

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293
Q

Spastic weakness and upgoing plantars (UMN signs) in SCDC is due to damage in which columns?

A

Damage to lateral columns

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294
Q

Absent ankle and knee jerks (LMN signs) in SCDC is due to damage in which columns?

A

Damage to peripheral nerves

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295
Q

What visual problem is caused by PSP?

A

PSP = problem seeing planes = vertical gaze palsy

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296
Q

Typically LMN signs in arms and UMN signs in legs
In familial cases the gene responsible lies on chromosome 21 and codes for superoxide dismutase

Which type of MND is this?

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

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297
Q

UMN signs only

Which type of MND is this?

A

Primary lateral sclerosis

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298
Q

LMN signs only
Affects distal muscles before proximal
Carries best prognosis

Which type of MND is this?

A

Progressive muscular atrophy

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299
Q

Palsy of the tongue, muscles of chewing/swallowing and facial muscles due to loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei
Carries worst prognosis

Which type of MND is this?

A

Progressive bulbar palsy

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300
Q

Xanthochromia is used in the diagnosis of..

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

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301
Q

Mnemonic for Syringomyelia

A

Syringomyelia - sPinoThalamic (Pain and Temperature)

due to compression of the spinothalamic tract fibres decussating in the anterior white commissure of the spine and Temperature)

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302
Q

Drugs that may exacerbate myasthenia

A

Pretty - Procainamide
Queen - Quinidine
Allowed - Abx (gentamicin, macrolides, quinolone, tetracycline)
People to - Penicillamine
Learn - Lithium
and Pack - Phenytoin
Bibles - Beta blockers

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303
Q

Chiari malformations are often associated with ___________ due to disturbed cerebrospinal fluid flow at the foramen magnum

A

Chiari malformations are often associated with syringomyelia due to disturbed cerebrospinal fluid flow at the foramen magnum

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304
Q

Syringomyelia vs Syringobulbia

A

Syringomyelia - collection of cerebrospinal fluid within the spinal cord
Syringobulbia - fluid-filled cavity within the medulla of the brainstem.

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305
Q

Ix for Syringomyelia

A

Full spine MRI with contrast to exclude a tumour or tethered cord

A brain MRI is also needed to exclude a Chiari malformation

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306
Q

Tx for Syringomyelia

A

Treatment will be directed at treating the cause of the syrinx. In patients with a persistent or symptomatic syrinx, a shunt into the syrinx can be placed

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307
Q

Tx for MND

A

Riluzole
Non-invasive ventilation (usually BIPAP) is used at night
Percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG)

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308
Q

MOA of Riluzole

A

Prevents stimulation of glutamate receptors

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309
Q

What are the most common types of venous thrombosis?

A

Sagittal
Followed by lateral sinus thromboses and cavernous sinus thromboses

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310
Q

What is an alternative to MRI venography when inve

A

CT venography is an alternative

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311
Q

Mx for intracranial venous thrombosis

A

Acutely: Low molecular weight heparin
Long term: Warfarin

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312
Q

Seizures and hemiplegia
Parasagittal biparietal or bifrontal haemorrhagic infarctions
Empty delta sign

A

Sagittal sinus thrombosis

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313
Q

Periorbital oedema
Ophthalmoplegia: 6th nerve damage typically occurs before 3rd & 4th
Trigeminal nerve - hyperaesthesia of upper face and eye pain
Central retinal vein thrombosis

A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

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314
Q

6th and 7th cranial nerve palsies

A

Lateral sinus thrombosis

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315
Q

Tx for acute subdural haematoma

A

Small/incidental: Observation
Surgery: Monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy

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316
Q

Tx for chronic subdural haematoma

A

Small haematoma/no neurological deficits: Observation
Confused/neurological deficits: Surgical decompression with burr holes is required

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317
Q

Tx for NMS

A

Dantrolene
Bromocriptine

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318
Q

Triptans are contraindicated in patients with…

A

CAD as they have the potential to cause coronary vasospasm

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319
Q

Tx for brain abscess

A

surgery
Craniotomy is performed and the abscess cavity debrided
(the abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage)
IV antibiotics: IV 3rd-generation cephalosporin + metronidazole
intracranial pressure management: e.g. dexamethasone

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320
Q

First line treatment for neuropathic pain

A

AGPD - اكتب (kinda)
Amytriptyline
Gabapentin
Pregabalin
Duloxetine

If one doesn’t work, switch to another

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321
Q

Tx for exacerbations of neuropathic pain

A

Tramadol

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322
Q

Tx for localised neuropathic pain (e.g. post-herpetic neuralgia)

A

Topical capsaicin

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323
Q

Patients are typically young thin women possessing long neck and drooping shoulders

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome

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324
Q

In PD, if excessive daytime sleepiness develops then patients should not drive. Medication should be adjusted to control symptoms. ________ can be considered if alternative strategies fail

A

Modafinil

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325
Q

In PD, if orthostatic hypotension develops then a medication review looking at potential causes should be done. If symptoms persist then ________ (acts on peripheral alpha-adrenergic receptors to increase arterial resistance) can be considered

A

Midodrine

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326
Q

Consider ____________ to manage drooling of saliva in people with Parkinson’s disease

A

Glycopyrronium bromide

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327
Q

Incongruous defects are usually due to a lesion of the…

A

Optic tract - due to the dual blood supply to the LGN and optic tract

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328
Q

Congruous defects occur due to lesions of..

A

Optic radiation or occipital cortex - occurs behind the LGN in the radiation or cortex

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329
Q

Macula sparing is due to a lesion of…

A

Occipital cortex

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330
Q

Bitemporal hemianopia with upper quadrant defect > lower quadrant defect..

A

Inferior chiasmal compression, commonly a pituitary tumour

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331
Q

Bitemporal hemianopia with upper quadrant defect < lower quadrant defect..

A

Superior chiasmal compression, commonly a craniopharyngioma

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332
Q
A
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333
Q
A
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334
Q
A
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335
Q

Vitamin B1/B12 is thiamine

A

B1 - Th1amine

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336
Q

Contraindications for lumbar punctures

A

GCS < 13 or fall > 2
Papilloedema
Shock
Immunocompromised
Seizure

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337
Q

What does the following CSF finding show?

A

Normal

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338
Q

Does the following CSF finding show bacterial or viral meningitis?

A

Viral meningitis

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339
Q

Does the following CSF finding show bacterial or viral meningitis?

A

Bacterial meningitis

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340
Q

Cloudy CSF appearance

A

TB/Fungal

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341
Q

Patients with meningococcal meningitis are at risk of..

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (adrenal insufficiency secondary to adrenal haemorrhage)

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342
Q

What does the following MRI show?

A

HSV encephalitis

There is hyperintensity of the affected white matter and cortex in the medial temporal lobes and insular cortex

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343
Q

Herpes simplex encephalitis typically occurs in the ________ and ________ lobe

A

Temporal and inferior frontal lobes

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344
Q

EEG pattern: lateralised periodic discharges at 2 Hz

A

HSV

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345
Q

LEMS VS MG

A

Lifting eases, Moving sucks

LEMS: Better with movement
MG: Worse with movement

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346
Q

Which antibodies are associated with MG?

A

ACh receptor antibodies

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347
Q

Which antibodies are associated with LEMS?

A

Voltage-gated calcium-channel antibodies

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348
Q

Which antibodies are associated with MS?

A

Not auto-abs, it’s just demyelination in the central nervous system

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349
Q

Finger-nose ataxia

A

Cerebellar vermis lesion

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350
Q

Hypokinetic (e.g. Parkinsonism) or hyperkinetic (e.g. Huntington’s)

A

Basal ganglia lesion

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351
Q

Sensory symptoms, dyslexia, dysgraphia

A

Parietal lobe

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352
Q

Motor symptoms, expressive aphasia, disinhibition

A

Frontal lobe

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353
Q

Which anti-emetic is given in parkinson’s?

A

Domperidone

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354
Q

A LOST Cause - idiopathic intracranial hypertension causative drugs

A

A - Vitamin A & metabolites
L - lithium/levothyroxine
O - OCP
S - steroids
T - tetracycline
C - cimetidine

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355
Q

Most common cause of a stroke in individuls under the age of 40

A

Carotid artery dissection

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356
Q

Leg pain and weakness that is relieved with rest, worse on walking downhill, as well as numbness and tingling in the legs and decreased sensation and strength in the lower extremities

A

Spinal claudication

Spinal = Steep (Walking downhill)
Peripheral = Push (Walking uphill)

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357
Q

Leg pain with exertion relieved by rest but is typically worse when walking uphill rather than downhill

A

Peripheral artery disease

Spinal = Steep (Walking downhill)
Peripheral = Push (Walking uphill)

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358
Q

Which anti-epileptic is contraindicated in COCP?

A

Levetiracetam

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359
Q

Neck, shoulder and arm pain

Paresthesia that affects the arm, forearm and fourth and fifth fingers

A

Pancoast syndrome

Brachial plexus involves the lower segment of nerve roots coming off of the cervical spine (C5-T1) and compression most often affects C8 and T1 specifically

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360
Q

Neck and arm pain

Numbness and weakness in the biceps and forearm, down to the interdigital space between the thumb and index finger

A

C6 Radiculopathy

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361
Q

A lesion of the spinal cord results in urinary retention and constipation due to..

A

Increased sphincter tone, preventing the passage of urine or faeces

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362
Q

A cauda equina lesion would result in urinary and faecal incontinence due to..

A

Flaccid paralysis of the urethral sphincter

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363
Q

The presence of autonomic dysfunction indicates that the lesion is above the level of..

A

T6

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364
Q

Lesions in the brain tend to cause bilateral/unilateral deficits, lesions of the spinal cord tend cause bilateral/unilateral deficits

A

Lesions in the brain tend to cause unilateral deficits, lesions of the spinal cord are often bilateral

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365
Q

If all four limbs are affected, the spinal cord lesion is likely..

A

Cervical

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366
Q

If only the lower limbs are affected, the spinal cord lesion is likely..

A

Thoracic

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367
Q

If the patient has respiratory difficulties and their diaphragm has been affected, then the spinal cord lesion is likely above..

A

C3

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368
Q

Spastic paralysis and UMN signs
Loss of fine touch, vibration and proprioception
Loss of pain and temperature
Lower limbs affected first

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

Or complete transection

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369
Q

Spastic paralysis and UMN signs
Loss of pain and temperature
Fine touch, vibration and proprioception preserved
Lower limbs affected first

A

Anterior cord syndrome

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370
Q

Spastic paralysis and UMN signs may be present
Pain and temperature present
Loss of fine touch, vibration and proprioception
Lower limbs affected first

A

Posterior cord syndrome

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371
Q

Spastic paralysis and UMN signs may be present
Loss of pain and temperature
Fine touch, vibration and proprioception preserved
Upper limbs affected first

A

Syringomyelia

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372
Q

The terminal end of the spinal cord is termed the ________ ___________. Beyond this is a collection of spinal nerves composed of lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal nerves. This makes up the ________ ________

A

The terminal end of the spinal cord is termed the conus medullaris. Beyond this is a collection of spinal nerves composed of lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal nerves. This makes up the cauda equina

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373
Q
A
374
Q
A
375
Q
A
376
Q
A
377
Q
A
378
Q

_________ or _________ can cause posterior cord syndrome

A

Subacute degeneration of the cord due to vitamin B12 deficiency

Multiple sclerosis

379
Q

_________, _________ or _________ can cause brown sequard syndrome

A

Gun-shot wound
Stabbings
Road-traffic collision

380
Q

_________ or _________ can cause central cord syndrome

A

Intramedullary tumor
Syringomyelia

381
Q

Extradural haemorrhage occurs between the skull and dura mater and is usually caused by..

A

Rupture of the middle meningeal artery in the temporoparietal region

382
Q

Extradural haemorrhage is associated with a fracture of the __________ bone

A

Temporal

383
Q

Young patient with a traumatic head injury and an ongoing headache. They have a period of improved neurological symptoms and consciousness, followed by a rapid decline over hours

A

Extradural haemorrhage

384
Q

Subdural haemorrhage occurs between the dura mater and arachnoid mater and is caused by..

A

Rupture of the bridging veins in the outermost meningeal layer

385
Q

Subdural haemorrhages may occur in..

A

Elderly and alcoholic patients, who have more atrophy in their brains, making the vessels more prone to rupture

386
Q

Subarachnoid haemorrhage involves bleeding between the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane. This is usually the result of..

A

Ruptured cerebral aneurysm.

387
Q

Sudden-onset occipital headache during strenuous activity, such as heavy lifting or sex

A

Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

388
Q

CSF sample with a raised RCC and xanthochromia

A

Xanthochromia

389
Q

Ix for subarachnoid Haemorrhage

A

CT
If normal do a lumbar puncture

390
Q

Tx for SAH

A

Endovascular coiling
Neurosurgical clipping
Nimodipine to prevent vasospasm as a complication

391
Q

Complications of SAH

A

Vasospasm
Seizures
Hydrocephalus

392
Q

What does the following fundoscopy show?

A

Papilloedema

393
Q

What does the following fundoscopy show?

A

Optic neuritis

394
Q

Normal consensual pupillary reflex
RAPD present
When testing the direct pupillary reflex, there is a reduced pupil response in the affected eye

A

Optic neuritis

395
Q

Proximal muscle weakness,
Autonomic dysfunction, causing dry mouth, blurred vision, impotence and dizziness
Reduced or absent tendon reflexes

A

LEMS

396
Q

A lesion in the __________ causes a conjugate lateral gaze disorder

A

Abducens (CN VI)

397
Q

Tx for LEMS

A

Amifampridine
Pyridostigmine
IV immunoglobulins
Plasmapheresis

398
Q

CSF shows raised protein with a normal cell count and glucose

A

GBS

399
Q

Tx for GBS

A

VTE prophylaxis (pulmonary embolism is a leading cause of death)
IV immunoglobulins
Plasmapheresis is an alternative to IVIG

400
Q

What does this clinical sign show?

A

Right facial LMN lesion - Bell’s Palsy

401
Q

What does this clinical sign show?

A

Right facial UMN lesion - Stroke

402
Q

Absent corneal reflex + proptosis

A

Cavernous sinus thrombos

403
Q

3rd nerve palsy = ptosis + dilated pupil

A

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

404
Q

Drugs for status epilepticus in the pre-hospital setting eg GP

A

Midazolam - Mouth
Diazepam - Dirty/Rectal
Lorazepam - Line - IV

405
Q

Shoulder movement weakness, which is best elicited by asking the patient to place the dorsum of their hand on the opposite buttock to test extension, adduction and internal rotation

A

Thoracodorsal nerve

406
Q

Very weak elbow flexion and weak forearm supination which can be very disabling.

A

Musculocutaenous nerve

407
Q

Numbness over the sergeant’s patch and profound weakness of shoulder abduction from 15-90°

Deltoid wasting and weakness of shoulder flexion, extension and external rotation

A

Axillary nerve

408
Q

Wrist drop” deformity with very weak extension of the elbow, wrist and fingers.

A

Radial nerve - humerus or radius fractures

409
Q

Wasting of the thenar eminence, weak grip strength and a “hand of benediction” deformity due to an inability to flex the index or middle fingers.

A

Median nerve - supracondylar fractures

410
Q

Wasting of the hypothenar eminence and intrinsic muscles of the hand, a “claw hand” deformity due to an inability to extend the ring and little fingers, and weak finger abduction and adduction

A

Ulnar nerve - upracondylar fractures of the humerus, medial epicondylar fractures, compression at either the cubital tunnel in the elbow or Guyon’s canal in the wrist

411
Q

Migraine triggers

A

CHOCOLATE

Chocolate
Hangovers
Orgasms
Cheese
Caffeine
The oral contraceptive pill
Lie-ins
Alcohol
Travel
Exercise

412
Q

When can you stop AED?

A

If seizure free >2 years with AEDs being stopped over 2-3 months

413
Q

Adverse effects of Levodopa

A

Dyskinesia
‘On-off’ effect
Postural hypotension
Cardiac arrhythmias
Nausea & vomiting
Psychosis
Reddish discolouration of urine upon standing

414
Q

Tibial vs common peroneal nerve damage

A

TIPPED
Tibial: Inversion-Plantarflexion
Peroneal: Eversion-Dorsiflexion

415
Q

When calculating the GCS, the arm must be brought above the ________ to be counted as localising, else it should be scored as ‘flexing’

A

Clavicle

416
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a disorder involving compression of..

A

Brachial plexus, subclavian artery or vein

417
Q

TOS develops when neck trauma occurs to individuals with anatomical osseous predispositions such as..

A

Scalene muscle hypertrophy and anomalous bands

418
Q

Painless muscle wasting of hand muscles, with patients complaining of hand weakness e.g. grasping

Numbness and tingling

Cold hands, blanching or swelling

A

Neurogenic TOS

419
Q

Painful diffuse arm swelling with distended veins

Painful arm claudication and in severe cases, ulceration and gangrene

A

Vascular TOS

420
Q

Ix for TOS

A

Chest and cervical spine plain radiographs
CT or MRI to rule out cervical root lesions
Venography or angiography may be helpful in vascular TOS
Anterior scalene block may be used to confirm neurogenic TOS and check the likelihood of successful surgical treatment

421
Q

Tx for TOS

A

Education, rehabilitation, physiotherapy, or taping
Surgical decompression

422
Q

Asymmetric cerebellar syndrome, affecting the right side of her body. The timing of onset is over weeks

A

Multiple Sclerosis

If subacute, then cerebellar infarct

423
Q

Tx for bacterial meningitis

A

Ceftriaxone
If allergic then chloramphenicol

424
Q

Slow, thick speech, a spastic tongue, brisk jaw jerk reflex, emotional lability, and additional upper motor neurone features

A

Pseudobulbar palsy

425
Q

Extradural haemorrhages are limited/not limited by suture lines

A

Lentiform (biconvex) = Limited

426
Q

Areflexia, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia

A

Miller Fisher syndrome

427
Q

Fluctuating levels of consciousness following a head injury

A

Extradural haemorrhage

428
Q

What does the following clinical sign show?

A

Vesicles in the ear canal in a patient with Ramsay Hunt syndrome

429
Q

A migraine can last for about..

A

4 - 72 hours

430
Q

A cluster headache can last for about..

A

15 minutes to 2 hours

431
Q

Which condition causes sympathetic (adrenergic) blockage?

A

Horner syndrome

432
Q
A
433
Q

Reduced GCS, paralysis and small bilateral pupils that remain small even in bright light

A

Pontine haemorrhage

434
Q

Reduced power in legs, normal sensation and reduced knee and ankle reflexes

A

GBS

435
Q

Decreased motor nerve conduction velocity
Prolonged distal motor latency
Increased F wave latency

A

GBS

436
Q

Cranial nerve involvement:
Diplopia
Bilateral facial nerve palsy
Oropharyngeal weakness is common

A

GBS

437
Q

Headache, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, seizures

A

Brain abscess

438
Q

Loss of sensory and motor function of multiple non-contiguous nerves, eventually becoming symmetrical

A

Mononeuritis multiplex

439
Q

Causes of mononeuritis multiplex

A

WARDS PLC

Wegener’s
Amyloidosis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Diabetes
Sarcoid
PAN
Leprosy
Carcinomatosis

440
Q

Weakness is symmetrical from the beginning and progresses bilaterally. Reflexes are lost in affected parts but particularly at the ankles. Sensory complaints and loss of sensation are most pronounced distally, and in the feet before the hands in most cases

A

Polyneuropathy

441
Q

Neurologic signs are asymmetrical, with a distribution that may be proximal in one limb and distal in another. Weakness and zones of sensory loss correspond to involvement of one or more spinal/cranial roots. Pain in the sensory distribution of the roots is a common feature

A

Polyradiculopathy

442
Q

Weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot. Sensory change ends a limited distance above the ankle

A

Peroneal nerve or to the L5 nerve root

443
Q

Weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion + inversion of the foot. Sensory change extends almost up to the knee on the anterior surface of the foreleg

A

Tibial nerve (affected only with L5 root lesions)

444
Q

Oculomotor dysfunctions seen in Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Nystagmus
Ophthalmoplegia: lateral rectus palsy, conjugate gaze palsy

445
Q

Decreased red cell transketolase

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

446
Q

In status epilepticus, IV _____________, _____________ or _____________ should be given if not responding to benzodiazepines

A

IV levetiracetam, phenytoin or sodium valproate

447
Q

Temporary loss of vision through one eye, which returns to normal afterwards

A

Amaurosis fugax: Retinal/ophthalmic artery

448
Q

A wide-based gait with loss of heel to toe walking

A

Ataxic gait

449
Q

Limping caused by pain that is worse when weight-bearing on the affected limb

A

Antalgic gait

450
Q

Lifting the affected leg up higher to prevent their foot from dragging across the floor as they walk.

A

High stepping gait

451
Q

Weakness in the pelvic girdle and thigh muscles and is characterised by the patient circumducting their leg when walking

A

Waddling gait

452
Q

Anti-GQ1b antibodies are found in…

A

Miller-Fisher syndrome

453
Q

Rapid onset dementia and myoclonus

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

454
Q

Painful headache that is worse on bending forward

A

Sinusitis

455
Q

Lost the ability to abduct thumb

A

Median nerve

456
Q

Facial nerve palsy

A

“Face, ear, taste, tear”

Face: muscles of facial expression
Ear: nerve to stapedius
Taste: supplies anterior two-thirds of tongue
Tear: parasympathetic fibres to lacrimal glands, also salivary glands

457
Q

An extended target time of up to 24 hours for a thrombectomy may be considered in which circumstance?

A

If there is the potential to salvage brain tissue shown by CT perfusion or diffusion-weighted MRI sequences showing limited infarct core volume

458
Q

DVLA guidelines for patients with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures

A

May qualify for a driving licence if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months

If there have been no seizures for 5 years (with medication if necessary) a ’til 70 licence is usually restored

459
Q

DVLA guidelines for withdrawal of epilepsy medication

A

Should not drive whilst anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for 6 months after the last dose

460
Q

DVLA guidelines for stroke or TIA

A

1 month off driving, may not need to inform DVLA if no residual neurological deficit

461
Q

DVLA guidelines for multiple TIAs over short period of times

A

3 months off driving and inform DVLA

462
Q

Expansion of central canal in Syringomyelia interferes with anterior white commisure of spinothalamic tract, causing a loss of..

A

Pain
Temperature
Pressure
Crude touch

463
Q

Expansion of central canal in Syringomyelia interferes with lower motor neurones of corticospinal tract, causing a..

A

Muscle atrophy
Muscle weakness
Paralysis

464
Q

What does the following MRI show?

A

Chiari malformation with syrinx

465
Q

Widespread convulsions without conscious impairment

A

Pseudoseizure

466
Q

High arched feet and neuro signs. Progressive over years

A

CMT

467
Q

Hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, autonomic instability, altered mental status

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

468
Q

Parkinson’s vs Drug induced

A

PADS

PD: Asymmetrical
DI: Symmetrical

469
Q

If there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease NICE recommend considering..

A

123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)

470
Q

What does the following image show?

A

Normal susbtantia nigra on the right

Loss of pigmented cells in PD on the left

471
Q

What type of aura is described to occur with migraines?

A

Flashes of light, blind spots and zigzag patterns (spreading scintillating scotoma aka ‘jagged crescent’)

472
Q

In trauma, to test if the fluid draining from the nose or ear is CSF, check for..

A

Beta-2-transferrin and glucose

473
Q

Lhermitte’s sign is seen in which conditions..

A

Multiple sclerosis, subacute combined degeneration of the cord and in cervical stenosis

474
Q

Uhthoff’s phenomenon: worsening of vision following rise in body temperature

A

Multiple sclerosis

475
Q

Triptan is contra-indicated in..

A

Ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease

476
Q

_____________ is the most common primary tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

477
Q

What does the following MRI show?

A

Glioblastoma multiforme - solid tumours with central necrosis and a rim that enhances with contrast

478
Q

In GM, there is disruption of the blood-brain barrier and therefore are associated with..

A

Vasogenic oedema

479
Q

Pleomorphic tumour cells border necrotic areas

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

480
Q

Tx for GM

A

Surgical with postoperative chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy. Dexamethasone is used to treat the oedema.

481
Q

________ is the second most common primary brain tumour in adults

A

Meningioma

482
Q

Meningiomas arise from..

A

Arachnoid cap cells of the meninges and are typically located next to the dura

483
Q

Meningiomas cause symptoms by compression/invasion

A

Compression

484
Q

Where are meningiomas located?

A

At the falx cerebri, superior sagittal sinus, convexity or skull base

485
Q

Spindle cells in concentric whorls and calcified psammoma bodies

A

Meningioma

486
Q

Ix for meningioma

A

CT (will show contrast enhancement) and MRI, and treatment will involve either observation, radiotherapy or surgical resection

487
Q

Antoni A or B patterns are seen. Verocay bodies (acellular areas surrounded by nuclear palisades)

A

Vestibular schwannoma

488
Q

_____________ is the most common primary brain tumour in children

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma

489
Q

Rosenthal fibres (corkscrew eosinophilic bundle)

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma

490
Q

A _________________ is an aggressive paediatric brain tumour that arises within the infratentorial compartment. It spreads through the CSF system

A

Medulloblastoma

491
Q

Small, blue cells. Rosette pattern of cells with many mitotic figures

A

Medulloblastoma

492
Q

Tx for Medulloblastoma

A

Surgical resection and chemotherapy

493
Q

_______________ are commonly seen in the 4th ventricle and may cause hydrocephalus. Histology shows perivascular pseudorosettes

A

Ependymomas

494
Q

________________ are benign, slow-growing tumour common in the frontal lobes. Histology shows calcifications with ‘fried-egg’ appearance

A

Oligodendromas

495
Q

_______________ is a vascular tumour of the cerebellum associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Histology shows foam cells and high vascularity

A

Haemangioblastoma

496
Q

Patients will present with the consequences of hormone excess (e.g. Cushing’s due to ACTH, or acromegaly due to GH) or depletion. Compression of the optic chiasm will cause a bitemporal hemianopia due to the crossing nasal fiber

A

Pituitary adenoma

497
Q

____________ is the most common paediatric supratentorial tumour

A

Craniopharyngioma

498
Q

A _______________ is a solid/cystic tumour of the sellar region that is derived from the remnants of Rathke’s pouch. It may present with hormonal disturbance, symptoms of hydrocephalus or bitemporal hemianopia

A

Craniopharyngioma

499
Q

What does the following MRI show?

A

Meningioma

500
Q

What does the following CT show?

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

501
Q

Sensory inattention
Apraxias
Astereognosis (tactile agnosia)
Inferior homonymous quadrantanopia
Gerstmann’s syndrome (lesion of dominant parietal): alexia, acalculia, finger agnosia and right-left disorientation

A

Parietal lobe lesion

502
Q

Homonymous hemianopia (with macula sparing)
Cortical blindness
Visual agnosia

A

Occipital lobe lesions

503
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia
Superior homonymous quadrantanopia
Auditory agnosia
Prosopagnosia (difficulty recognising faces)

A

Temporal lobe lesion

504
Q

Broca’s aphasia
Disinhibition
Perseveration
Anosmia
Inability to generate a list

A

Frontal lobes lesions

505
Q

Gait and truncal ataxia

A

Midline cerebellum lesions

506
Q

Intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, nystagmus

A

Hemisphere cerebellum lesions

507
Q

Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome occurs in which area of the brain?

A

Medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus

508
Q

Hemiballism occurs in which area of the brain?

A

Subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia

Hyperkinetic involuntary movement - sudden, violent, flinging

509
Q

Huntington chorea occurs in which area of the brain?

A

Striatum (caudate nucleus) of the basal ganglia

510
Q

Parkinson’s disease occurs in which area of the brain?

A

Substantia nigra of the basal ganglia

511
Q

Kluver-Bucy syndrome (hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, visual agnosia) occurs in which area of the brain?

A

Amygdala

Hyperorality - excessive chewing, sucking
Hyperphagia - excessive eating

512
Q

Infrequent generalized seizures, often in morning
Daytime absences
Sudden, shock-like myoclonic seizure

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (Janz syndrome)

513
Q

Neurologists now start antiepileptics following a first/ second/ third epileptic seizure

A

Second

514
Q

Areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory. ‘Hyperdense artery’ sign

A

Acute ischaemic strokes

515
Q

Hyperdense material (blood) surrounded by low density (oedema)

A

Acute haemorrhagic strokes

516
Q
A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

517
Q

Petechial rash, fever, neck stiffness, vomiting and confusion

A

Meningitis

518
Q

What does the image show?

A

Petechial, non-blanching rash - meningitis

Rashes which do not disappear with pressure

519
Q

Weakness and reduction in sensation over the fourth and fifth fingers medial digits of the right hand. Commonly occurs in people who lean on their elbow, sleep with their arm hanging off the bed, or with impact over the “funny bone”

A

Cubital tunnel syndrome - affects ulnar nerve

520
Q

Ix for SAH

A

CT, followed by lumbar puncture 12 hours post headache if CT normal

521
Q

Tingling involving both legs from the knees down. Reduced sensation in both legs distally, with absent ankle reflexes, but preserved power. Plantars are down-going

A

Peripheral neuropathy

522
Q

“Glove-and-stocking” distribution, with foot involvement preceding hand involvement

A

Sensory peripheral neuropathies

523
Q

____________ and __________ would indicate large fibre involvement in sensory peripheral neuropathies

A

Paraesthesia and proprioceptive ataxiaa

524
Q

____________, ____________ and __________ would indicate small fibre involvement in sensory peripheral neuropathies

A

Burning sensations, allodynia (pain from non-painful stimuli), and hyperalgesia (increased pain response)

525
Q

Worsening back pain and leg weakness with walking, along with relief of symptoms with forward bending

A

Spinal claudication

526
Q

Leg pain that worsens with walking and improves with rest, weak or absent peripheral pulses, cold and pale extremities, and, in severe cases, non-healing ulcers on the extremities

A

Peripheral vascular disease

527
Q

Ix for spinal claudication

A

X-ray, MRI, and CT scan to identify the degree of spinal canal narrowing
Electromyography and nerve conduction studies

528
Q

Tx for spinal claudication

A

Decompression surgery or lumbar spinal fusion

529
Q

Most common causes of autonomic neuropathy

A

HIV, Lyme disease, Chagas disease, autoimmune diseases (SLE) and amyloidosis

530
Q

Vasovagal syncope vs postural hypotension

A

There is usually a precipitant for postural hypotension such as going from sitting to standing

Vasovagal syncope is precipitated by prolonged standing, heat or emotion

531
Q

Electromyograph (EMG) reveals diffuse denervation

A

MND (progressive bulbar palsy)

532
Q

Bulbar palsy is a condition typified by lower motor neurone lesions affecting cranial nerves..

A

Glossopharyngeal (IX), vagus (X), and accessory (XII)

533
Q

Absent or normal jaw jerk reflex
Absent gag reflex
Flaccid, fasciculating tongue
Nasal speech, often described as “quiet”

A

Bulbar palsy

534
Q

Upper motor neurone lesion of the cranial nerves. Signs include dysarthria, dysphagia, and emotional lability

A

Pseudobulbar palsy

535
Q

Ix for IIH

A

Ophthalmoscopy
CT/MRI (MRI Venogram may be performed to rule out secondary causes such as venous sinus thrombosis)
LP (Diagnostic)

536
Q

Tx for IIH

A

Weight loss
Acetazolamide (peripheral paraesthesia)
Alt: Topiramate and candesartan

If progressive visual loss then therapeutic lumbar punctures (if not in theatre within 24 hours of admission), surgical CSF shunting or optic nerve sheath fenestration

537
Q

Recurrent episodes of vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness in the ear

A

Ménière’s disease

538
Q

Unilateral hearing loss and cranial nerve dysfunction.

A

Acoustic Neuroma

539
Q

Vertigo, absence of hearing loss and tinnitus. Recent viral illness

A

Vestibular neuritis

540
Q

Most common cause of ICH?

A

Hypertension (uncontrolled)

541
Q

No function below the level of the head and a ventilator is needed to maintain respiration

At what level did a transection of the spinal cord occur to present with this clinical picture?

A

C1-C3

542
Q

Quadriplegia, however they can still breath on their own

At what level did a transection of the spinal cord occur to present with this clinical picture?

A

C4-C5 (phrenic nerve is spared so can breathe on their own)

543
Q

Complete loss of trunk and lower limb function, however some movements of the upper limb will be intact, allowing for functions such as feeding or using a wheelchair

At what level did a transection of the spinal cord occur to present with this clinical picture?

A

C6-C8

544
Q

Paraplegic

At what level did a transection of the spinal cord occur to present with this clinical picture?

A

T1-T9

545
Q

Some level of dysfunction of the lower limbs resulting in difficulties with walking and ambulation

At what level did a transection of the spinal cord occur to present with this clinical picture?

A

T10 and L3

546
Q

Lesions affecting the __________, __________ or __________ nerve can cause double vision (diplopia) and nystagmus

A

Oculomotor (CN III)
Trochlear (CN IV)
Abducens (CN VI)

547
Q

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is caused by a lesion in the..

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

548
Q

A lesion in the abducens (CN VI) causes a..

A

Conjugate lateral gaze disorder

549
Q

Multiple sclerosis may present with focal weakness, for example..

A

Incontinence
Horner syndrome
Facial nerve palsy
Limb paralysis

550
Q

Multiple sclerosis may present with focal sensory symptoms, for example..

A

Trigeminal neuralgia
Numbness
Paraesthesia (pins and needles)
Lhermitte’s sign

551
Q

Lhermitte’s sign indicates disease in the cervical spinal cord in the..

A

Dorsal column

552
Q

Sensory ataxia can cause ___________ and ___________

A

Positive Romberg’s test
Pseudoathetosis

553
Q

What type of ataxia is seen in MS?

A

Sensory and cerebellar

554
Q

Tx for fatigue in MS

A

Amantadine, modafinil or SSRIs
Mindfulness training and CBT

555
Q

Tx for bladder dysfunction in MS

A

If significant residual volume → intermittent self-catheterisation

If no significant residual volume → anticholinergics may improve urinary frequency

556
Q

Tx for oscillopsia in MS

A

Gabapentin

557
Q

Tx for spasticity in MS

A

Baclofen or gabapentin

558
Q

Tx for neuropathic pain in MS

A

Amitriptyline or gabapentin

559
Q

What does the clinical picture show?

A

MG - affects proximal muscles of the limbs and small muscles of the head and neck

560
Q

Difficulty climbing stairs, standing from a seat or raising their hands above their head

A

MG

561
Q

Prolonged upward gazing will exacerbate diplopia on further testing

A

MG

562
Q

Repeated blinking will exacerbate ptosis

A

MG

563
Q

Repeated abduction of one arm 20 times will result in unilateral weakness when comparing both sides

A

MG

564
Q

Tx for MG

A

Pyridostigmine
+ Prednisolone, azathioprine, cyclosporine, mycophenolate mofetil

Thymectomy

565
Q

Tx for MG crises

A

Plasmapheresis
Intravenous immunoglobulins
Non-invasive ventilation or mechanical ventilation

566
Q

+ Facial weakness. Autonomic dysfunction - urinary retention, ileus or heart arrhythmias.

What does the clinical picture show?

A

GBS

567
Q

Ix for MG

A

Single fibre EMG (high sensitivity)
CT thorax to exclude thymoma
CK normal
Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors

Tensilon test: IV edrophonium reduces muscle weakness temporarily - not commonly used any more due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmia

568
Q

Ix for MS

A

MRI
CSF
Visual evoked potentials - delayed preserved waveform

569
Q

High signal T2 lesions
Periventricular plaques
Dawson fingers

A

MS

570
Q

Ix for GBS

A

LP
Nerve conduction studies

571
Q

LP shows rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count

A

GBS

572
Q

Nerve condution studies show: Decreased motor nerve conduction velocity
Prolonged distal motor latency
increased F wave latency

A

GBS

Decreased motor nerve conduction velocity is due to demyelination!

573
Q

Tx for GBS

A

Supportive care
VTE prophylaxis (pulmonary embolism is a leading cause of death)
IV immunoglobulins (IVIG) first-line
Plasmapheresis is an alternative to IVIG

If resp failure: intubation, ventilation and ICU

574
Q

Saddle anaesthesia, urinary retention, incontinence or bilateral neurological signs

A

Cauda equina

575
Q

Intermittent neurogenic claudication

A

Spinal stenosis

576
Q

Age under 40, gradual onset, morning stiffness or night-time back pain

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

577
Q

Back pain + fever or a history of IV drug use

A

Spinal infection

578
Q

Bilateral sciatica is a red flag for..

A

Cauda equina syndrome

579
Q

Unilateral pain from the buttock radiating down the back of the thigh to below the knee or feet. “Electric” or “shooting” pain, paraesthesia, numbness and motor weakness. Reflexes may be affected

A

Sciatica

580
Q

Mx for low risk acute lower back pain

A

Self-management
Education
Reassurance
Analgesia
Staying active and continuing to mobilise as tolerated

581
Q

Mx for medium risk acute lower back pain

A

Physiotherapy
Group exercise
Cognitive behavioural therapy

NSAIDs
Codeine
Benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam)

Radiofrequency if originating in the facet joints

582
Q

Mx of Sciatica

A

Amitriptyline
Duloxetine

583
Q

Back pain worse in the morning and on standing
On examination there may be pain over the facets. The pain is typically worse on extension of the back

A

Facet joint

584
Q

Usually gradual onset
Unilateral or bilateral leg pain (with or without back pain), numbness
Pain may be described as ‘aching’, ‘crawling’
Relieved by sitting down, leaning forwards and crouching down

A

Spinal stenosis

585
Q

Pain on walking, relieved by rest
Absent or weak foot pulses and other signs of limb ischaemia
Past history may include smoking and other vascular diseases

A

Peripheral arterial disease

586
Q

Raccoon eyes and bruising behind the ears/periorbital bruising due to rupture of the tiny perforator arteries

A

Frontal bone fracture

587
Q

Which vessel is damaged in a extradural haematoma?

A

EXTRAMILE
Middle meningeal artery

588
Q

Which vessel is damaged in a subdural haematoma?

A

Bridging veins between cortex and venous sinus

589
Q

Which vessel is damaged in a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Subarachnoid

Anterior communicating artery aneurysm (‘berry aneurysm’)

Arteriovenous malformation

590
Q

Finger abduction and thumb adduction

A

Ulnar

591
Q

Triceps weakness, diminished triceps reflex and numbness along the middle finger

A

C7

592
Q

Inability to pronate the forearm or flex the wrist, loss of sensation over lateral 3½ fingers on the palmar aspect

A

Median nerve

593
Q

Flexion at distal interphalangeal joints - pinch grip

A

Anterior interosseous nerve

594
Q

Which tracts are affected in Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

Lateral corticospinal tract
Dorsal columns
Lateral spinothalamic tract

595
Q

Which tracts are affected in subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord (vitamin B12 & E deficiency)?

A

Lateral corticospinal tracts
Dorsal columns
Spinocerebellar tracts

596
Q

Which tracts are affected in friedrich’s ataxia?

A

Lateral corticospinal tracts
Dorsal columns
Spinocerebellar tracts

Good differential for SCDSC!

597
Q

Which tracts are affected in anterior spinal artery occlusion?

A

Lateral corticospinal tracts
Lateral spinothalamic tracts

598
Q

Which tracts are affected in syringomyelia?

A

Inthe central canal, expanding CSF filled “syrinx” compresses the spinothalamic tract neurons decussating in the anterior white commissureexpanding cavity

599
Q

Which tracts are affected in MS?

A

Asymmetrical, varying spinal tracts involved

600
Q

Which tracts are affected in neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis)?

A

Dorsal columns

601
Q

Ipsilateral spastic paresis below lesion
Ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration sensation
Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

602
Q

Bilateral spastic paresis
Bilateral loss of proprioception and vibration sensation
Bilateral limb ataxia

A

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord (vitamin B12 & E deficiency)

603
Q

Bilateral spastic paresis
Bilateral loss of proprioception and vibration sensation
Bilateral limb ataxia
Cerebellar ataxia
Intention tremor

A

Friedrich’s ataxia

604
Q

Bilateral spastic paresis
Bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

A

Anterior spinal artery occlusion

605
Q

Flacid paresis (typically affecting the intrinsic hand muscles)
Loss of pain and temperature sensation

A

Syringomyelia

606
Q

Combination of motor, sensory and ataxia symptoms

A

Multiple sclerosis

607
Q

Ix for RLS

A

Diagnosis is clinical although bloods such as ferritin to exclude iron deficiency anaemia may be appropriate

608
Q

Conservative mx for RLS

A

Walking, stretching, massaging affected limbs
Treat any iron deficiency

609
Q

Medical mx for RLS

A

Dopamine agonists are first-line treatment (e.g. Pramipexole, ropinirole)
Benzodiazepines
Gabapentin

610
Q

Spastic weakness and hyporeflexia

A

GBS

611
Q

Weakness of extensor hallucis longus
Sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg
Wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles

A

Common peroneal nerve lesion

612
Q

Mx for post-lumbar puncture headache

A

Blood patch, epidural saline and intravenous caffeine

613
Q

Diffuse headaches, blurred vision, pulsatile tinnitus (the ‘woosh’ sound she describes) and the bilateral papilloedema

A

IIH

614
Q

Which scoring system is used to distinguish between ischemic and haemorrhagic strokes?

A

Siriraj stroke score

615
Q

No tremor at rest but bilateral tremor when extends arms out in front

A

Essential tremor

616
Q

Medical mx for essential tremor

A

Propranolol, primidone, topiramate, gabapentin, clonazepam

616
Q

Surgical mx for essential tremor

A

Deep brain stimulation
Focused ultrasound thalamotomy
Radiosurgical (Gamma Knife)
Thalamotomy

617
Q

What does the clinical picture show?

A

PD

618
Q

Levodopa should be combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent..

A

Peripheral side effects such as nausea and vomiting

619
Q

Low mood, difficulties with concentrating, coordination problems, and irritability. As the disease progresses, chorea and dementia occur

A

Huntington’s Disease

620
Q

Mx for chorea in HT

A

Tetrabenazine

621
Q

Mx for depression in HT

A

SSRI

622
Q

Mx for psychosis in HT

A

Atypical antipsychotics

623
Q

Most common cause of death in HT

A

1st - complications related to physical decline such as pneumonia

2nd - suicide

624
Q

The eyes are open and rolled up, pupils dilate, elbows flex, arms pronate and it may be associated with incontinence, moaning, cyanosis and apnoea

A

Tonic phase

625
Q

Movements with the frequency of movements gradually decreasing and amplitude increasing. This phase may be associated with tongue biting, cyanosis and apnoea

A

Clonic phase

626
Q

At rest, the eye points upwards and inwards and the patient may present with a tilted head to compensate for the palsy

A

Trochlear nerve palsy (4th)

627
Q

Widely known for being a ‘false localising sign’ due to the path of the nerve within the brain, making it easily compromised in a state of raised intracranial pressure

A

Abducens nerve (6th)

628
Q

Patients typically remain conscious/unconscious during myoclonic seizures

A

Conscious

629
Q

Which specific signs indicate meningeal irritation?

A
630
Q

CSF clear or turbid
100-200 PMNs
Culture results positive
Protein raised
Low glucose

A

Bacterial

Protein raised due to bacterial protein contamination
Low glucose as bacteria use as an energy source

631
Q

Misnomer
CSF clear or slightly turbid
15-500x109 lymphocytes
Negative culture results
0.5-1g/l protein
Glucose normal

A

Viral/aseptic meningitis

Glucose normal because viruses use cell machinery to replicate

632
Q

CSF clear or slightly turbid
Fibrin web may develop
30-500x109 lymphocytes plus PMNs
Negative gram stain (need Auramine staining)
Protein 1-6g/L
Glucose 0-2.2

A

Tubercular meningitis

633
Q

Opening pressure is high
immunocompromised patient
India Ink staining positive

A

Crytococcal meningitis (fungi)

634
Q

Mx for bacterial meningitis

A

2g of IV ceftriaxone twice daily to ensure CNS penetration, with IV amoxicillin added in patients at age extremes for listeria coverage

635
Q

Mx for viral meningitis

A

IV aciclovir

If allergic to penicillin, alternatives such as chloramphenicol may be used

636
Q

What can cause trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Malignancy
Arteriovenous malformation
Multiple sclerosis
Sarcoidosis
Lyme disease

637
Q

Alternative mx for trigeminal neuralgia if carbamazepine is intolerable

A

Phenytoin
Lamotrigine
Gabapentin

638
Q

Surgical mx for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Microvascular decompression
Treat underlying cause: removing tumor or addressing an arteriovenous malformation
Alcohol or glycerol injections: used to damage the trigeminal nerve and reduce pain signals

639
Q

Drugs that can cause IIH

A

Oral contraceptive pill
Steroids
Tetracycline
Vitamin A
Lithium

640
Q

Alt. mx for IIH if acetazolamide is intolerable

A

Topiramate and candesartan

641
Q

Pelvic thrusting, head movements, eyes being closed, a duration of more than 3 minutes and postictal weeping

A

Non-epileptic attack disorder/ pseudoseizure

In epilepsy, the head is fixed and eyes remain open with postictal confusion, tongue biting and incontinence, as well as a raised prolactin on bloods

642
Q

Partial ptosis, miosis and anhidrosis of the affected side of the face

A

Horner’s syndrome

643
Q

Horner’s syndrome + neck pain in a young patient

A

Carotid artery dissection - red flag

644
Q

What does the clinical picture show?

A

Horner’s syndrome

645
Q

Most common cause of Horner’s syndrome

A

Pancoast tumour

646
Q

Gram-positive, lancet-shaped organism in meningitis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

647
Q

Gram positive rods in meningitis

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

648
Q

Gram-negative diplococcus in meningitis

A

Neisseria meningitidis

649
Q

Mx for raised ICP

A

Elevate head to 30*
IV mannitol
Controlled hyperventilation to reduce pCO2

650
Q

a cut-off of ____________ is often used to determine if further treatment is needed to reduce the ICP

A

> 20 mmHg

651
Q

Anti-GQ1b antibodies

A

Miller Fisher syndrome

652
Q

Mx for focal seizures

A

Lamotrigine or Levetiracetam

653
Q

Focal bilateral temporal lobe involvement

A

Encephalitis

654
Q
A
655
Q
A
656
Q

Impaired function of the corticospinal tracts (spastic paraparesis) and dorsal columns (sensory ataxia, loss of fine touch and proprioception) bilaterally

The knee jerks are present and plantars upgoing, but the ankle jerks are mute

A

Subacute combined degeneration of the cord

657
Q

Peripheral hereditary neuropathy + LMN signs

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth Syndrome

658
Q

Lower limb spastic hypertonia, ankle clonus, pyramidal weakness (extensors stronger than flexors in the lower limbs), hyper-reflexia and upgoing plantars (upper motor neurone signs). There is scissoring gait

A

Hereditary spastic paraparesis

659
Q

Which medication is contra-indicated due to previous strokes?

A

Sumatriptan - constricts cerebral blood vessels

660
Q

Spastic hemiparesis of cerebral palsy

A

Ipsilateral arm and leg affected

661
Q

Spastic diplegia of cerebral palsy

A

4 limbs are affected but the lower limbs more than the upper limbs

662
Q

Spastic quadriplegia of cerebral palsy

A

4 limbs are affected but the upper limbs more than the lower limbs

663
Q

What can cause spastic paraparesis?

A

Bihemispheric lesion (such as cerebral palsy or multiple sclerosis)
Lesion affecting the spinal cord (such as cord compression, disc prolapse, infection, trauma)
Rare causes - familial spastic paraparesis

664
Q

A way to distinguish a bihemispheric lesion from a cord lesion is that..

A

In a cord lesion there will be a sensory level, 1-2 spinal cord segment levels below the actual spinal cord lesion

665
Q

Ix for SCDC

A

Assessment of B12 and folate levels
Homocysteine levels: raised level despite normal B12 could indicate a functional B12 deficiency
MRI of the spine to exclude cervical myelopathy
Nerve conduction studies - axonal neuropathy

Homocysteine - amino acid produced when proteins are broken down

666
Q

Mx for SCDC

A

Vitamin B12 replacement - hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IM on alternate days until there is no further improvement, followed by maintenance treatment with hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IM every two months

667
Q

Involuntary and violent wide-amplitude flinging movements of the proximal right arm following a stroke

A

Hemiballismus secondary to a lesion in the left subthalamic nucleus

668
Q

Involuntary muscle jerks of the proximal right arm following a stroke

A

Myoclonus secondary to a lesion in the left subthalamic nucleus

669
Q

Central (first order neurones) Horner’s

A

Spinal cord lesions above level T1 - stroke, tumors, or syringomyelia

670
Q

Preganglionic (second order neuron) Horner’s

A

Cervical rib, subclavian artery aneurysm
Pancoast tumor

671
Q

Postganglionic (third order neuron) Horner’s

A

Dissection of the internal carotid artery - anticoagulation and carotid artery surgery

Third order neurons DO NOT anhydrosis

672
Q

Common sites of obstruction in non-communicating/obstructive hydrocephalus

A

Foramen of Monro (e.g. due to colloid cysts)
Cerebral aqueduct (e.g. due to aqueduct stenosis)
Fourth ventricle (e.g. due to posterior fossa tumour)

673
Q

Common sites of obstruction in communicating hydrocephalus

A

Subarachnoid space (haemorrhage) or infective meningitis

674
Q
A
675
Q

Tx for hemiplegic migraines

A

1st line: Verapamil
Alt: Acetazolamide, flunarizine or topiramate

2nd line: Lamotrigine

676
Q

Autoimmune vs HS encephalitis

A

Autoimmune: paraneoplastic syndrome (usually secondary to small cell lung cancer or ovarian teratoma)
HS: temporal lobes changes

677
Q

Gram-negative rod

A

Campylobacter jejuni

678
Q

Raised ICP can cause a ______________ due to herniation

A

Third nerve palsy - ptosis, pupil dilatation and an absent light reflex with intact consensual constriction

679
Q

MND is associated with which proteins?

A

Misfolding of the TDP-43 protein
Mutation in the SOD-1 gene

680
Q

Which type of MND is characterised by a combination of upper and lower motor neurone signs, associated with frontotemporal dementia and thenar atrophy?

A

ALS

681
Q

Which type of MND presents only with LMN signs?

A

Progressive muscular atrophy

682
Q

Which type of MND presents only with UMN signs?

A

Primary lateral sclerosis

683
Q

Progressive Bulbar and pseudobulbar palsy is caused by damage to cranial nerves..

A

9, 10, 12

684
Q

Which type of MND presents with dysphagia, reduced jaw and gag reflexes and tongue fasciculations?

A

Bulbar palsy

685
Q

Which type of MND presents with dysphagia, slow speech and brisk jaw reflex?

A

Pseudobulbar palsy

686
Q

Next step if status epilepticus continues >45 minutes?

A

General anaesthesia or phenobarbital

687
Q

4-6 hertz in a tremor

A

Parkinson’s Tremor

688
Q

6-12 hertz in a tremor

A

Benign Essential Tremor

689
Q

Levels of vertebrae

A

Coffee at 7, tea at 12, liquor at 5

Cervical - 7
Thoracic - 12
Lumbar - 5
Sacrum
Coccyx

690
Q

DVLA guidelines if had a simple faint

A

No restriction

691
Q

DVLA guidelines if single episode of syncope, explained and treated

A

4 weeks off

692
Q

DVLA guidelines if single episode of syncope and unexplained

A

6 months off

693
Q

DVLA guidelines if two or more episodes of syncope

A

12 months off

694
Q

DVLA guidelines if stroke or TIA

A

1 month off driving, may not need to inform DVLA if no residual neurological deficit

695
Q

DVLA guidelines if multiple TIAs over short period of times

A

3 months off driving and inform DVLA

696
Q

DVLA guidelines if craniotomy e.g. for meningioma

A

1 year off driving

697
Q

DVLA guidelines if craniotomy for a pituitary tumour

A

6 months

698
Q

DVLA guidelines if trans-sphenoidal surgery for a pituitary tumour

A

Can drive when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving

699
Q

DVLA guidelines if narcolepsy/cataplexy

A

Cease driving on diagnosis, can restart once ‘satisfactory control of symptoms’

700
Q

DVLA guidelines if chronic neurological disorders e.g. multiple sclerosis, motor neuron disease

A

DVLA should be informed, complete PK1 form (application for driving licence holders state of health)

701
Q

Progressive hypophonia and weakness of facial muscles, including the ‘hanging jaw’ sign

A

Myasthenia gravis

702
Q

Red flag signs for trigeminal neuralgia

A
703
Q

Tx for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A

Sodium valproate (both males and females)

704
Q

Cubital tunnel syndrome vs C8/T1 radiculopathy

A

CTS: Sensory depravation in palmar and dorsal aspects of 1 and 1/2 fingers medially + weakness of adductor pollicis muscle

C8/T1 radiculopathy: Sensory depravation in palmar and dorsal aspects of 1 and 1/2 fingers medially + forearm

APM: difficulty maintaining strong pinch grip between thumb and fingers

705
Q

Hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits

A

Claw hand - ulnar nerve

706
Q

Wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals) + hypothenar muscles

A

Ulnar nerve damage

707
Q

Clinical signs for ulnar damage at elbow

A

Claw hand + radial deviation of wrist

708
Q

Upward gaze of the eyes, hypermetropia (difficulty seeing things at a close distance, e.g., reading) or double vision when looking down (vertical diplopia)

A

Trochlear nerve

709
Q

Eye fixed medially (towards nose) and cannot abduct

A

Abducens nerve

710
Q

CSF is usually normal
EEG: biphasic, high amplitude sharp waves
MRI: hyperintense signals in the basal ganglia and thalamus

A

CJD

711
Q

Rapid onset of dementia + myoclonus

A

CJD

712
Q

Recreational nitrous oxide inhalation may also result in..

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency → subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord

713
Q

Ix for Diffused axonal injury

A

MRI

714
Q

What does the MRI show?

A

Diffuse axonal injury

715
Q

Symmetrical distal neuropathy seen in the context of other diseases (including diabetes mellitus)

A

Small fibre neuropathy

716
Q

Shooting pains along outer thigh + numbness and painful tingling over the area, which is also highly sensitive to light touch and heat

A

Meralgia paresthetica - compression of lateral cutaneous nerve

717
Q

Shooting pains along the limbs following flexion of the neck

A

Lhermitte phenomenon in multiple sclerosis

718
Q

Hot potato/ Donald duck speech

A

Pseudobulbar palsy

719
Q

Vertigo + vomiting. Gaze direction + changing horizontal nystagmus. Head thrust test negative

A

Posterior circulation infarct

720
Q

Unilateral hemiparesis
Significant dysphasia of speech
Hemispatial neglect on visual examination

A

Partial Anterior Circulation Infarct

Higher cognitive dysfunction such as dysphasia or hemispatial neglect would count as one criteria only. So this patient only has 2/3 of the criteria given they don’t have Homonymous Hemianopia

721
Q

Lesion in the subthalamic nucleus would cause which clinical sign?

A

Hemiballismus + gross motor movement impairment

722
Q

Dysarthria, intention tremor and an ataxic gait

A

Cerebellar signs

DANISH (Dysdiadokinesia, ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor, speech, hypotonia)

723
Q

When is a preventative given in a migraine?

A

When migraines occur >1/week on average

Until then, oral triptans (nasal is under 18)

724
Q

Unilateral supratentorial arterial bleed

A

Extradural haematoma

725
Q

Unilateral infratentorial venous bleed

A

Subdural haematoma

726
Q

When can you give Topiramate to women of child-bearing age?

A

If not planning on having kids (post-menopause, contraceptives etc)

727
Q
A
728
Q
A
729
Q
A
730
Q
A
731
Q

Parkinisonism and involves spontaneous activity by an affected limb, or akinetic rigidity of that limb

A

Cortico-basal degeneration

732
Q

Causes of ischaemic stroke

A

Thrombus or embolus (DVT)
Atherosclerosis
Shock (hypoxia)
Vasculitis

733
Q

Causes of haemorrhagic stroke

A

Intracerebral (HT, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, vascular malformation)
Subarachnoid
Sympathomimetic drugs e.g. cocaine

734
Q

High-attenuating amorphous substance filling the sulci within the brain

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

735
Q

Albumino-cytologic dissociation

A

Guillain-Barré syndrome

Elevated protein in CSF without a corresponding increase in WBC

736
Q

Surgical Tx for extradural haemorrhage

A

Ligation of the damaged blood vessel

737
Q

Surgical Tx for acute subdural haemorrhage

A

Craniotomy

738
Q

Surgical Tx for chronic subdural haemorrhage

A

Burr hole craniostomy

739
Q

Surgical Tx for subarachnoid haemorrhages

A

Endovascular coiling

740
Q

Pain improved on bending over/walking uphill

A

Spinal claudication

Spinal = Steep (walking downhill)
Peripheral = Push (walking uphill

741
Q

Pain worst on bending over/walking uphill

A

Peripheral vascular disease

Spinal = Steep (walking downhill)
Peripheral = Push (walking uphill)

742
Q

Acute cord compression in the setting of anticoagulation (atrial fibrillation) and possible iatrogenic dural puncture (epidural analgesia)

A

Epidural haematoma

743
Q

Bilateral hyperreflexia, spasticity, and a positive Babinski’s sign

Deep and localized back pain

Sensory disturbance below level of lesion

A

Spinal cord compression

744
Q

Ix for spinal cord compression

A

Urgent MRI

745
Q

Mx for spinal cord compression

A

Radiation therapy
Surgical decompression within 48 hrs
Dexamethasone if malignancy on MRI or those with high clinical suspicion, given at 16 mg daily in divided doses, along with proton pump inhibitors (PPI)

746
Q

Bilateral hyperintensity of the temporal lobes.

A

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) encephalitis

746
Q

Enlarged blind spots and constriction of the visual filed

A

IIH

747
Q

Inherited syndrome is characterised by tremors, myoclonus and tonic-clonic seizures

A

Familial adult myoclonic epilepsy

748
Q

Persistent weakness or paralysis in the part of the body following a seizure

A

Todd’s paresis

749
Q

Brief seizures in children that usually occur at night, with facial twitching or paraesthesias present

A

Benign rolandic epilepsy

750
Q

Occurs as a result of hypoperfusion of the brain and increased vagal tone in children, and may be as a response to fear or anxiety, or as a result of “breath-holding attacks”. Typically there is a loss of consciousness and limb jerking that is brief (<1 minute)

A

Reflex anoxic seizure

751
Q

Causes of an ataxic gait

A

PASTRIES

P - Posterior fossa tumour
A - Alcohol
S - Multiple sclerosis
T - Trauma
R - Rare causes
I - Inherited (e.g. Friedreich’s ataxia)
E - Epilepsy treatments
S - Stroke

752
Q

Most common form of GBS

A

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy

752
Q

Inability to flex the 1st, 2nd and 3rd digits of the hand

A

Median nerve

753
Q

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

A

Uncal herniation

754
Q

Function of extensor muscles of the posterior forearm

A

Produce extension at the wrist and fingers

Innervated by the radial nerve

755
Q

The interossei are supplied by the..

A

Ulnar nerve

756
Q

Involves vertebrobasilar arteries. Presents with 1 of the following:

  1. cerebellar or brainstem syndromes
  2. loss of consciousness
  3. isolated homonymous hemianopia
A

Posterior circulation infarcts

757
Q

Diminished reflexes and impaired balance and sensation

A

Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy

758
Q

Miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis, and enophthalmos

A

Horner’s syndrome

759
Q

Ptosis, down & out deviation of the eye, and a dilated pupil

A

Raised ICP - third nerve palsy

760
Q

Huntington’s disease results in degeneration of ___________ and ___________ neurons in the striatum of the basal ganglia

A

Cholinergic and GABAergic

761
Q

Huntington’s disease causes a defect in huntingtin gene on chromosome ___

A

4

762
Q

Encephalomalacia affecting the left motor cortex

A

Focal seizures

763
Q

When are epileptics started?

A

Neurological deficit
Brain imaging shows a structural abnormality
EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity
Patient or their family or carers consider the risk of having a further seizure unacceptabl

764
Q

What is Jendrassik manoeuvre?

A

Compares a reflex with/without distraction e.g. clenching teeth

765
Q

What is Hoffman’s sign?

A

Investigate the cause of ataxia; if positive means sensory ataxia

766
Q

What is Romberg’s test?

A

Reflex test to investigate corticospinal tract lesions

767
Q

Encephalitis typically affects which lobes?

A

Temporal and inferior frontal lobes

768
Q

Types of Encephalitis?

A

Anti-NMDA Receptor - most common
Limbic - underlying malignancy

769
Q

Differentiate between upper quadrant defect and lower quadrant defect

A

UP LOC
Upper - Pitiuitary
LOwer - Craniopharyngiomaa

770
Q

Chronic form of GBS. Can present with numbness and tingling in extremities

A

Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy

771
Q

How long do cluster headaches last?

A

15 minutes to 3 hours

772
Q

In which lobe does Broca’s aphasia occur?

A

Be (Brocas) Expressive in (inferior) front (frontal) of Everyone

773
Q

The left visual field is picked up by the nasal retina in the left eye, and the temporal retina in the right eye

These go through the optic nerves and when they reach the chiasm, nasal fibres cross to opposite sides, and temporal fibres do not cross.
This means that the left visual field information ends up in the right temporal lobe
Superior and inferior also swap

A
774
Q

Absent corneal reflex + proptosis

A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm (pupil dilated)
= Think: 3rd nerve palsy = ptosis + dilated pupil

775
Q

Patients with meningococcal meningitis are at risk of..

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (adrenal insufficiency secondary to adrenal haemorrhage)

Commonly caused by N. meningitis

776
Q

The _____________ nerves are frequently injured during axillary dissection

A

intercostobrachial

777
Q

An 8-year-old boy falls onto an outstretched hand and sustains a supracondylar fracture. In addition to a weak radial pulse the child is noted to have loss of pronation of the affected hand

A

Median

778
Q

A 23-year-old rugby player sustains a Smiths Fracture. On examination opposition of the thumb is markedly weakened

A

Median

778
Q

Ix for SAH

A
779
Q

weakness of foot dorsiflexion
weakness of foot eversion
weakness of extensor hallucis longus
sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg
wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles

A

Common peroneal nerve lesion

780
Q

Steele-Richardson-Olszewski syndrome

A

Unusual constellation of supranuclear gaze palsy, progressive axial rigidity, pseudobulbar palsy, and mild dementia .This disease is now a well-recognized atypical parkinsonian syndrome (or Parkinson-plus disorder)

781
Q

Inverted champagne bottle sign and pes cavus

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth

782
Q

Unilaterally dilated pupil with a sluggish or fixed light response

A

3rd nerve compression secondary to tentorial herniation

783
Q

Bilaterally dilated pupil with a sluggish or fixed light response

A

Poor CNS perfusion
Bilateral 3rd nerve palsy

784
Q

Unilaterally dilated pupil with a cross reactive (Marcus - Gunn)

A

Optic nerve injury

785
Q

Bilaterally constricted pupil with difficult to assess light response

A

Opiates
Pontine lesions
Metabolic encephalopathy

786
Q

Unilaterally constricted pupil with a preserved response

A

Sympathetic pathway disruption

787
Q

Reduced Glasgow coma score, quadriplegia, miosis, and absent horizontal eye movements.

A

Pontine haemorrhage

787
Q

Differentiate between viral meningitis and GBS based on lumbar puncture findings

A

Viral meningitis - raised white cells and predominant lymphocytes

GBS - isolated raise in protein

787
Q

Dorsiflexion of the great toe elicited by irritation downward of the medial side of the tibia. (UMN lesion sign similar to Babinski’s)

A

Oppenheim’s sign

788
Q

Worsening of demyelinating symtpoms (classically vision) due to increased body temperature

A

Uhthoff’s phenomonon

789
Q

LMS vs Weber’s

A

Lateral medullary syndrome
* ipsilateral: ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy e.g. Horner’s
* contralateral: limb sensory loss

Weber’s syndrome
* ipsilateral III palsy
* contralateral weakness

790
Q

Type II resp failure (hypoxia and hypercapnia) in GBS vs MG

A

GBS: reduced or absent tendon reflexes
MG: normal reflexes

791
Q

Loss of pain sensation (analgesia)
Loss of temperature sensation (thermoanesthesia)
Motor function impairment
Loss of autonomic functions
Vibration, proprioception, fine touch preserved

A

ASAI

792
Q

High-frequency tremor, most pronounced on the left, when the patient holds up his arms in front of him

Changes in his voice with the appearance of a mild vibrato

A

Essenital tremor

793
Q

Long-standing cough and shortness of breath
Waddling gait
Hyporeflexia

A

LEMS

794
Q

Where does jacksonian march originate from?

A

Michael Jackson was the Frontman of the Jackson 5

Jacksonian march = Frontal Lobe

795
Q

Sudden, painful visual loss in a patient with diabetes. Accompanied by headache, nausea, redness of the eye and seeing haloes

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma

796
Q

Mild symptoms, redness of the eye and nausea. On examination, the cornea may be bulging and the pupil may be dilated and/or unresponsive to light

A

Acute open-angle glaucoma

797
Q

Posterior cerebral artery stroke can cause visual symptoms but this usually presents as contralateral homonymous hemianopia due to infarction of the…

A

Occipital cortex

798
Q

In a posterior cerebral artery stroke, there may be hemisensory loss and/or burning pain affecting one side of the body if there is an infarction of..

A

Thalamus

799
Q

In a posterior cerebral artery stroke, there may be oculomotor palsy if the ______ territory is affected

A

Central

800
Q

What needs to be monitored when starting phenytoin in status epileptics?

A

Cardiac - pro arrhythmogenic effects (unpredictable pharmacokinetics so levels are also required following initial loading)

801
Q

Which arteries are affected in SAH?

A

Circle of willis

802
Q

The presence of similar amounts red blood cells in all three samples is suggestive of a SAH

If there is a small amount of red blood cells in the first bottle, and a decreasing amount (or no further red blood cells) in the second and third bottles then this may be a..

A

Traumatic lumbar puncture with the spinal needle passing through local blood vessel.

803
Q
A
804
Q
A
805
Q
A

DCML

806
Q
A
807
Q
A
808
Q
A
809
Q
A
810
Q

Unilateral absence of movements and muscle rigidity with a tremor. It is a progressive neurological disorder that can also affect cognition

A

Corticobasal syndrome

811
Q

Which type of sleep disorder occurs in PD?

A

REM sleep behaviour disorder

812
Q

Features of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

CAN OPEN

Confusion
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Ophthamoplegia
PEripheral
Neuropathy

813
Q

What is the most common psychiatric feature in PD?

A

Depression

814
Q

Ix for LBD

A

DaTscan (SPECT)

815
Q

Mx for LBD

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. donepezil, rivastigmine)
Memantine

816
Q

__________ should be avoided in Lewy body dementia as patients are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism

A

Neuroleptics

E.g. Patient deteriorated after recieving an antipsychotic agent

817
Q

Which lobe does AZ occur in?

A

Temporal - cortex and hippocampus

818
Q

Which structure is impacted by dyskinetic cerebral palsy?

A

Basal ganglia

819
Q

Which structure is generally spared in dementia syndrome?

A

Medulla oblongata

820
Q

Deficit of acetylcholine from damage to an ascending forebrain projection

A

AZ

821
Q

Tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing its function

A

AZ

822
Q

A normal ___________ level supports the diagnosis of MG since it suggests there is no muscle inflammation or damage

A

Creatine kinase (CK)

823
Q

Cranial nerves carrying parasympathetic fibres

A

III VII IX X
Oculomotor
Facial
Glassopharyngeal
Vagus

824
Q

Damage to the _______ nerve in the bony canal may result in impaired innervation to stapedius and therefore sounds are no longer dampened

A

Facial

825
Q

Sensory loss over anterior thigh
Weak hip flexion, knee extension and hip adduction
Reduced knee reflex
Positive femoral stretch test

A

L3 nerve root compression

826
Q

Sensory loss anterior aspect of knee and medial malleolus
Weak knee extension and hip adduction
Reduced knee reflex
Positive femoral stretch test

A

L4 nerve root compression

827
Q

Sensory loss dorsum of foot
Weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion
Reflexes intact
Positive sciatic nerve stretch test

A

L5 nerve root compression

828
Q

Facial dropping + absent corneal reflex

A

Facial nerve (efferent)

829
Q

Absent corneal reflex + jaw deviates to weak side

A

Trigeminal (afferent)

830
Q

History of malignancy - sensory loss and numbness in dermatome corresponding to spinal level. Tendon reflexes increased below level of lesion and absent at level of lesion

A

Neoplastic spinal cord compression

831
Q

GBS is LMN/UMN

A

LMN

832
Q

Mnemonic for:

C5-6
C7-8
L2-3
L3-4
L4-5
L5-S1
S1-2

A

C5-6 pick up sticks
C7-8 lay them straight
L2-3 lift my knee
L3-4 kick the door
L4-5 toes point to the sky
L5-S1 kick my bum
S1-2 stand on my shoe

833
Q

Which sign to differentiate between CTS and DCM?

A

DCM: Positive Hoffman’s sign

834
Q

The brachioradialis reflex tests predominantly for the integrity of the..

A

C6 (and partially C5)

835
Q

Parasympathetic fibres in the eye are supplied by ________ blood vessels as opposed to vasa nervorum

A

Pial

836
Q

Sleep paralysis - REM/Non-REM sleep (if troublesome clonazepam may be used)

Night terrors - REM/Non-REM sleep

A

Sleep paralysis - REM sleep (if troublesome clonazepam may be used)
Night terrors - Non-REM sleep

837
Q

Function of Riluzole

A

Prevents stimulation of glutamate receptors

838
Q

Riluzole used mainly in..

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

839
Q

Orthostatic tremor

A

Affects the legs

840
Q

All TIA patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy..

A

Stenosis of <70% OR a complete blockage of their carotid artery

841
Q

Epidural haematoma causes __________ herniation

A

Transtentorial

842
Q

Nuchael rigidity

A

Meningitis/SAH

843
Q

Which haematoma is not limited by suture lines?

A

Subdural (SNS - SMS)

844
Q

6 tests in suspected brain death

A

Please Check Out Cute And Neatly

Pupillary reflex
Corneal reflex
Oculo-vestibular reflex
Cough reflex
Absent response to supraorbital pressure
No spontaneous respiratory effort

845
Q

Medication overuse headache timeline

A

15 days or more. Symptoms resolve within 2 months

846
Q

Decreased GCS and abnormal posturing (with fixed flexion of both arms, called the ‘mummy baby’ pose), on the background of a subdural haemorrhage + CN III palsy

A

Brain herniation

847
Q

Anterior spinal artery syndrome occurs due to infarction of….

A

Corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts following traumatic injury to the aorta or due to atherosclerosis

Function of the dorsal columns is preserved because of their blood supply from the posterior spinal artery

848
Q

Does levodopa not also cause postural hypo as a side effect?

A

Yes, but if it was only due to the levodopa, you would expect reflex tachycardia to compensate for the low BP. The lack of reflex tachycardia suggests autonomic dysfunction

849
Q

__________ is a common complication of intraventricular haemorrhage

A

Hydrocephalus

850
Q

C5 - T1 movements

A

C5 - shoulder abduction
C6 - elbow extension
C8 - thumb extension
T1 - finger abduction/adduction

851
Q

Werenick’s - _______ temporal gyrus

Broca’s - _________ frontal gyrus

A

Superior

Inferior

852
Q

____________ may be used as ‘rescue therapy’ for exacerbations of neuropathic pain

A

Tramadol

853
Q

_____________ may be used for localised neuropathic pain (e.g. post-herpetic neuralgia)

A

Topical capsaicin

854
Q

About 25% of cases of ALS begin as….

A

Progressive bulbar palsy termed ‘bulbar-onset’ ALS

855
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (50% of patients)

A

Typically LMN signs in arms and UMN signs in legs

In familial cases the gene responsible lies on chromosome 21 and codes for superoxide dismutase

856
Q

Primary lateral sclerosis

A

UMN signs only

857
Q

Progressive muscular atrophy

A

LMN signs only
Affects distal muscles before proximal
Carries best prognosis

858
Q

Progressive bulbar palsy

A

Palsy of the tongue, muscles of chewing/swallowing and facial muscles due to loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei
Carries worst prognosis

859
Q

___________ is a hydroxytryptamine (HT) receptor agonist

A

Sumatriptan

860
Q

In trigeminal neuraligia, failure to respond to carbamazepine treatment or atypical features (e.g. < 50 years old) should prompt…

A

Referral to neurology

861
Q

Damage to pyramidal pathways ( pyramidal weakness)
Increased tone and reflexes, a flexed hip and elbow, and a ‘clasp-knife’ spasticity
‘Scissor’ gait
Can be monoplegic, diplegic, or hemiplegic

A

Spastic

862
Q

Damage to the basal ganglia pathways
Presents with choreiform movements
Can exhibit signs of Parkinsonism

A

Dyskinetic/ athetoid

863
Q

Damage to cerebellar pathways
Presents with uncoordinated movements
Exhibits signs of cerebellar lesions

A

Ataxic

864
Q

Spasticity, increased deep tendon reflex and persistent primitive reflexes

A

Cerebral palsy

865
Q

Meningitistypically leads to which type of hydrocephalus?

A

Communicating due to impaired absorption of CSF rather than non-communicating caused by obstruction (ACM)

866
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition in which thiamine deficiency causes neuronal death in certain areas with high metabolic requirements. These include..

A

Mamillary bodies
Periaqueductal grey matter
The floor of the fourth ventricle
Thalamus

867
Q

Ankle and plantar reflex are lost but the knee jerk is intact

A

Sciatic nerve lesions

868
Q

Proximal fibular fracture, extrinsic compression (such as a cast), or knee dislocation

A

Common peroneal nerve lesion

869
Q

Neurological signs combined with abdominal pain is ___________ or _________ until proven otherwise

A

Acute intermittent porphyria or lead poisoning

870
Q

The ______________ pathway is a dopaminergic pathway emanating from the hypothalamus to the median eminence. Inhibition of this pathway leads to a raised prolactin

A

Tuberoinfundibular

871
Q

The __________ pathway is involved in the pathophysiology of Parkinson’s disease

A

Nigrostriatal

872
Q

The ___________ pathway is thought to be overactive in schizophrenia which causes a patient’s positive symptoms such as hallucinations

A

Mesolimbic

873
Q

The ___________ pathway is thought to be abnormal in schizophrenia, which causes the negative symptoms e.g. avolition

A

Mesocortical

874
Q

Single, homogenous-enhancing lesion and a positive (rather than negative) thallium SPECT scan

A

CNS lymphoma

875
Q

High-signal demyelinating white matter lesions are typically seen on MRI

CT may show single or multiple lesions

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

876
Q

Sensory loss up to the shin level while maintaining normal muscle power. bilateral extensor plantar response and absent reflexes

A

SCDSP

877
Q

Muscle weakness and atrophy that typically starts in one limb before spreading

A

ALS

878
Q

Sensory deficits following a glove-and-stocking distribution pattern

A

T2DM

879
Q

Diffuse cerebral oedema may require…

A

Decompressive craniotomy

880
Q

ICP monitoring is appropriate in those who have GCS ______ and ______ CT scan
ICP monitoring is mandatory in those who have GCS ______ and ______ CT scan

A

ICP monitoring is appropriate in those who have GCS 3-8 and normal CT scan
ICP monitoring is mandatory in those who have GCS 3-8 and abnormal CT scan

881
Q

Minimum of cerebral perfusion pressure of ________ in adults
Minimum cerebral perfusion pressure of between ________ and ________ mmHg in children

A

Minimum of cerebral perfusion pressure of 70mmHg in adults
Minimum cerebral perfusion pressure of between 40 and 70 mmHg in children

882
Q

A sudden-onset headache, reaching maximum intensity within ____ minutes, is a red flag requiring further evaluation to exclude a subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

5 minutes

883
Q

Flexion of head, trunk, limbs → extension of arms (Salaam attack); last 1-2 secs, repeat up to 50 times
Progressive mental handicap
EEG: hypsarrhythmia

A

Infantile spasms (West’s syndrome)

884
Q

Tx for Infantile spasms (West’s syndrome)

A

Vigabatrin and steroids

885
Q

Duration few-30 secs; no warning, quick recovery; often many per day
EEG: 3Hz generalized, symmetrical

A

Typical (petit mal) absence seizures

886
Q

atypical absences, falls, jerks
90% moderate-severe mental handicap
EEG: slow spike
May be an extension of infantile spasms

A

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

887
Q

Tx of Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

A

Ketogenic diet

888
Q

Most common in childhood, more common in males
Paraesthesia (e.g. unilateral face), usually on waking up

A

Benign rolandic epilepsy

889
Q

Typical onset is in the teenage years, more common in girls
infrequent generalized seizures, often in morning//following sleep deprivation
Daytime absences
Sudden, shock-like myoclonic seizure (these may develop before seizures)

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (Janz syndrome)

890
Q

Tx for Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (Janz syndrome)

A

Sodium valproate

891
Q

PMH of PD, postural hypotension, normal HR

A

PD due to autonomic failure

892
Q

PMH of PD, postural hypotension, reflex tachycardia

A

4 D’s:

Deconditioning
Dysfunctional heart: aortic stenosis
Dehydration: disease (acute illness, adrenal insufficiency), dialysis, drugs (diuretics, narcotics)
Drugs: anti-anginals, anti-parkinsonian medications (levodopa), antidepressants, antipsychotics, anti-benign prostatic hyperplasia drugs (tamsulosin)

893
Q

What is the treatment for the following CT?

A

Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

Toxoplasmosis: single/multiple ring enhancing lesions

894
Q

What is the treatment for the following CT?

A

Steroids (may significantly reduce tumour size)
Chemotherapy (e.g. methotrexate) + with or without whole brain irradiation
Surgical may be considered for lower grade tumours

Primary CNS lymphoma: single or multiple homogenous enhancing lesions

895
Q

Widespread demyelination due to infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus (a polyoma DNA virus)
symptom

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

896
Q

CT: single or multiple lesions, no mass effect, don’t usually enhance

MRI: high-signal demyelinating white matter lesions are seen

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

897
Q

Innervation of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue

A

Taste: chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve via special visceral afferent fibres

Sensation: lingual branch of the mandibular (V3) division of the trigeminal nerve via general visceral afferent fibres

898
Q

Innervation of the posterior two-thirds of the tongue

A

Taste and sensation: glossopharyngeal nerve via a mixture of special and general visceral afferent fibres

899
Q

Innervation of the base of the tongue

A

Taste and sensation: internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve (itself a branch of the vagus nerve)

900
Q

In which space is a lumbar puncture performed?

A

Subarachnoid space

901
Q

Biconvex collection of blood

A

Epidural haematoma

902
Q

Biconcave collection of blood

A

Subdural haematoma

903
Q

Circulation of CSF

A

Lateral ventricles (via foramen of Munro)
3rd ventricle
Cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius)
4th ventricle (via foramina of Magendie and Luschka)
Subarachnoid space
Reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into superior sagittal sinus

904
Q

This most common cause of cavernous sinus thrombosis is…

A

Infection - spreads due to the anastomosis between the facial vein and superior ophthalmic veins

905
Q

The ________ nerve is most commonly affected in CST

A

Abducens

906
Q

Complications of meningitis

A

Neurological sequalae:

Sensorineural hearing loss (most common)
Seizures
Focal neurological deficit
Infective/sepsis
Intracerebral abscess
Pressure
Brain herniation
Hydrocephalus

907
Q

Bilateral foot drop is more likely to be due to…

A

Peripheral neuropathy

908
Q

Unilateral foot drop is more likely to be due to…

A

Peroneal nerve lesion

909
Q

Peripheral neuropathy - peripheral neuropathy causes

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome
Porphyria
Lead poisoning
Hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies - CMT
CIDP
Diphtheria

910
Q

Peripheral neuropathy - predominately sensory loss

A

Diabetes
Uraemia
Leprosy
Alcoholism
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Amyloidosis

911
Q

A stroke would cause an ________ motor neurone lesion that would manifest in spastic (hypertonic) weakness and increased reflex responses.

A

Upper

912
Q

The sciatic nerve most commonly arises from…

A

L4 to S3

913
Q

Uncontrolled hypertension with a systolic blood pressure of ____________ and or diastolic blood pressure of ____________ would be a contraindication to thrombolysis in stroke due to increase bleeding risk

A

Systolic blood pressure of >185mmHg and or diastolic blood pressure of >110mmHg

914
Q

Lateral pontine syndrome (__________ syndrome)
Ventral pontine syndrome (__________ syndrome)

A

Lateral pontine syndrome (Marie-Foix syndrome)
Ventral pontine syndrome (Millard-Gubler syndrome)

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery - lateral pontine syndrome

915
Q

In disk prolapse the _____________ is the structure which usually herniates

A

Nucleus pulposus

916
Q

Causes of Mononeuritis multiplex

A

WARDS PLC
Wegener’s, Amyloidosis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Diabetes, Sarcoid, PAN, Leprosy, Carcinomatosis.

917
Q

Contraindications to thrombolysis

A
918
Q

Vertical nystagmus - ?
Horizontal nystagmus - ?

A

Vertical nystagmus (looking up and around your brain to your cerebellum) - cerebellar stroke
Horizontal nystagmus (looking side to side i.e. your ears) - viral labrynthitis

919
Q

Transverse myelitis typically presents with __________ and ____________ below the affected level within the spinal cord

Tabes dorsalis, a manifestation of tertiary syphilis, entails infiltration of the spinal cord by the infection. It typically results in ____________ and ____________

A

Transverse myelitis typically presents with both spastic paraparesis and complete sensory loss below the affected level within the spinal cord

Tabes dorsalis, a manifestation of tertiary syphilis, entails infiltration of the spinal cord by the infection. It typically results in diminished proprioception and vibration sense.

920
Q

Headache, fever and focal neurology and suggestive of a…

A

Brain abscess

921
Q

Drugs used in urge incontinence

A

Oxybutynin (immediate release)
Tolterodine (immediate release)
Darifenacin (once daily preparation)
Solifenacin

922
Q

The following aura symptoms are atypical and may prompt further investigation/referral…

A

motor weakness
double vision
visual symptoms affecting only one eye
poor balance
decreased level of consciousness

923
Q

Confirm death by..

A

Confirming the patients identity
Checking for any obvious signs of life
Checking response to verbal and painful stimuli
Assessing pupils - they should be fixed and dilated
Feeling a central pulse
Listening for heart sounds and respiratory sounds for a total of 5 minutes

924
Q

Seizure Ix

A

CT head, FBC, U&Es, Serum calcium, LFTs, ABG, Blood glucose, Urine tox screen -

925
Q

Tx for patients with a suspected tricyclic antidepressant overdose..

A

sodium bicarbonate

926
Q

Cavernous sinus thrombosis is another important complication in sinusitis but usually presents with..

A

Unilateral facial oedema, photophobia, proptosis and palsies of the cranial nerves which pass through it (III, IV, V, VI)