Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Recap - Outline the main roles of the
a) Frontal lobe
b) Temporal Lobe
c) Parietal Lobe
d) occipital lobe

A

Frontal - decision making, movement, executive function, personality.

Temporal - hearing (primary auditory cortex), memory and language, smell, facial recognition

Parietal - Sensory info

Occipital lobe - Vision

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2
Q

Recap - What are the main responsibilities for the
a) Brainstem
b) Cerebellum

A

brainstem - controls Heart and breathing rate, Blood pressure and GI function, as well as consciousness

Cerebellum - Muscle coordination, and balance

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3
Q

Recap - what are the two arteries that supply the brain?

A

Internal carotid
Vertebral arteries

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4
Q

What does the internal carotid artery branch off to supply?

A

branches off to create the Anterior cerebral artery, as well as posterior communicating artery to join the circle of Willis

After this the ICA continues on as the Middle cerebral artery, which supplies the lateral portions of the cerebrum.

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5
Q

What does the middle cerebral artery supply?

A

· MIDDLE CEREBRAL ARTERY—(huge artery) supplies majority of lateral surface of the hemisphere and deep structures of anterior part of cerebral hemisphere.

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6
Q

After entering the cranium through the foramen magnum, what branches does the vertebral artery give off? What do the 2 vertebral arteries then go on to do?

A

Give off Spinal arteries, supply the entire length of spine
Gives off The Posterior Inferior cerebellar artery - supplies cerebellum
also gives off a menigeal branch

But after this two vertebral arteries converge to form the basilar artery

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7
Q

What arteries branch off the basilar artery?

A

Superior cerebellar artery (SCA)
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) - Both to supply the cerebellum
The Pontine arteries

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8
Q

What does the posterior cerebral artery go on to supply? What is it a branch of?

A

Supplies occipital lobe, posteromedial temporal lobes, midbrain, thalamus,

It is the terminal branch of the basilar arteries,

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9
Q

What does the anterior cerebral artery supply?

A

· ANTERIOR CEREBRAL ARTERY (supplies and runs over Corpus Callosum and supplies Medial aspects of Hemispheres (anteromedial aspects of the cerebrum)

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10
Q

What does the anterior cerebral artery supply?

A

· ANTERIOR CEREBRAL ARTERY (supplies and runs over Corpus Callosum and supplies Medial aspects of Hemispheres (anteromedial aspects of the cerebrum)

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11
Q

What is a stroke?

A

An acute neurological deficit lasting more than 24 hours and caused by cerebrovascular aetiology

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12
Q

What are the Two types of:

a) Strokes the in brain
b) Ischaemic events in the brain

A

Two kinds of stroke are ischaemic (85%) and haemorrhagic (15%)

The two types of ischaemic events in the brain are a Cerebral infarction (an ischaemic stroke) or a Transient ischaemic attack (TIA)

a TIA is not considered to be an actual stroke

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13
Q

Describe the epidemiology of strokes

A
  • Average age is 68-75
  • 3rd leading cause of death in the UK
  • More common in Asian and black Africans
  • More common in males
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14
Q

What are the different causes of an ischaemic stroke?

A
  • Cardiac: atherosclerotic disease, AF, paradoxical embolism due to septal abnormality
  • Vascular: aortic dissection, vertebral dissection
  • Haematological: Hypercoagulability such as antiphospholipid syndrome, sickle cell disease, polycythaemia
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15
Q

What are the different causes of haemorrhagic strokes

A

Intracerebral: bleeding within the brain parenchyma:
- Trauma
- Cerebral amyloid
- Hypertension

Subarachnoid: bleeding between the pia and arachnoid matter
- Trauma
- Berry aneurysm
- Arteriovenous malformation

Intraventricular: bleeding within the ventricles

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16
Q

What are the risk factors for developing a stroke?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Smoking
  • AF
  • Vasculitis
  • Medication e.g. hormone replacement therapy
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17
Q

If the anterior cerebral artery is affected in a stroke where in the body will be affected?

A

Feet and legs

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18
Q

If the middle cerebral artery is affected in a stroke where in the body will be affected?

A
  • Hands and arms
  • Face
  • Language centres in the dominant hemisphere
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19
Q

If the posterior cerebral artery is affected in a stroke where in the body will be affected?

A

The visual cortex will be affected meaning the patient won’t be able to see properly

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20
Q

Where will symptoms happen in regards to the stroke?

A
  • Symptoms will usually happen on the side contralateral to the stroke unless a brainstem stroke then both sides will be affected
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21
Q

What are the symptoms of a anterior cerebral artery stroke?

A

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss more commonly affecting the lower limbs

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22
Q

What are the symptoms of a middle cerebral artery stroke?

A
  • Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss with upper limbs > lower limbs
  • Homonymous hemianopia
  • Aphasia: if the affecting dominant hemisphere 95% of right handed people this is the left side
  • Hemineglect syndrome if affecting the non-dominant hemisphere patients won’t be aware of one side
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23
Q

What the symptoms of a posterior cerebral artery stroke?

A
  • Contralateral homonymous hemianopiawithmacular sparing
  • Contralateral loss of pain and temperature due to spinothalamic damage
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24
Q

What are the symptoms of a vertebrobasilar artery stroke?

A
  • Cerebellar signs
  • Reduced consciousness
  • Quadriplegia or hemiplegia
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25
Q

What is Weber’s syndrome and what are the symptoms of it?

A
  • It is a midbrain infarct that leads to oculomotor palsy and contralateral hemiplegia
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26
Q

What are the symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion)

A
  • Ipsilateralfacial loss of pain and temperature
  • IpsilateralHorner’s syndrome: miosis (constriction of the pupil), ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid), and anhidrosis (absence of sweating of the face)
  • Ipsilateralcerebellar signs
  • Contralateralloss of pain and temperature
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27
Q

What is used to classify stokes and how does it do it?

A

The Bamford classification and it categorises strokes based on the area of circulation affected

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28
Q

What are the different classifications in the Bamford classification?

A
  • Total anterior circulation stroke
  • Partial anterior stroke
  • Lacunar stroke
  • Posterior circulation stroke
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29
Q

What is a TACS?

A

total anterior circulation stroke

Blood vessel= anterior or middle cerebral artery

Criteria: all of
- Hemiplegia
- Homonymous hemianopia
- Higher cortical dysfunction

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30
Q

What is a PACS?

A

partial anterior circulation stroke

Blood vessel= anterior or middle cerebral artery
Criteria is any two of:
- Hemiplegia
- Homonymous hemianopia
- Higher cortical dysfunction

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31
Q

What is a lacunar stroke?

A

Blood vessel= perforating arteries
Criteria: there is no higher cortical dysfunction or visual field abnormality and there is one of:
- Pure hemimotor or hemisensory loss
- Ataxic hemiparesis
- Pure sensomotor loss

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32
Q

What is a PCS?

A

posterior circulation stroke

Blood vessel= Posterior cerebral or vertebrobasilar artery
Criteria:
- Cerebellar syndrome
- Isolated homonymous hemianopia
- Loss of consciousness

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33
Q

What is used to identify strokes in the community?

A

F- Face
A- Arm
S- Speech
T- Time (this is a stupid one because it is not a symptom just there to make the word fast)

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34
Q

What is used to identify strokes in hospital?

A

Recognition of Stroke in the Emergency Room (ROSIER) scale.

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35
Q

What are the criteria for the ROSIER scale?

A
  • Loss of consciousness
  • Seizure activity

New, acute onset of:
- Asymmetric facial/arm/leg weakness
- Speech disturbance
- Visual filed defect

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36
Q

When would a stroke be possible using the ROSIER scale and what would happen as result?

A

A stroke is possible if they have any of the criteria and hypoglycaemia has been excluded

WOULD REQUIRE URGENT NON-CONTRAST CT
- Aspirin 300mg stat (after the CT)

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37
Q

What are the intial investigations for a suspected stroke?

A

First line: non-contrast CT of head

ECG- to asses for AF
Bloods to look for hyponatremia/hypoglycaemia
Carotid doppler

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38
Q

What is the gold standard test for a stroke?

A

Diffusion weighted MRI is more sensitive but harder to obtain

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39
Q

What are the differentials for strokes?

A
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hypercalcaemia
  • Uraemia
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
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40
Q

What is the treatment for a ischaemic stroke?

A
  • Antiplatelets: aspirin given as soon as possible once haemorrhagic stroke is excluded
  • Thrombolysis: alteplase (tissue plasminogen activator)- given if to re-establish blood flow is <4.5 hours of symptom onset
  • Thrombectomy must score > 5 on NIH Stroke Scale/Score (NIHSS) and pre-stroke functional status < 3 on the modified Rankin scale
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41
Q

What should be performed before thrombectomy?

A

CT angiogram (CTA):identifies arterial occlusion

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42
Q

What is given for the prevention of ischaemic strokes?

A
  • Clopidogrel an antiplatelet
  • High dose staitn
  • Carotid stenting
  • Manage underlying risks
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43
Q

What is the treatment for a haemorrhagic stroke?

A
  • Related to the subtype of haemorrhage which will cover later

But for now:
- Admit to neurocritical care:patients will need intensive monitoring
- If features of raised intracranial pressure: consider intubation with hyperventilation, head elevation (30°) and IV mannitol
- Surgical intervention:decompression may be needed

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44
Q

What is the prognosis for a stroke?

A

For ischaemic stroke, the prognosis depends on the severity. A total anterior circulation stroke confers the poorest prognosis. Regarding thrombolysis, if administered within 3 hours, patients are 30% more likely to have minimal or no disability.

In general, mortality for haemorrhagic stroke is significantly higher than for ischaemic stroke and can be as high as 40%.

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45
Q

What are the driving rules after a stroke?

A
  • Must not drive for 1 month after a stroke and can’t drive a HGV for 1 year after a stroke
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46
Q

What is a TIA?

A
  • A transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord or retinal ischaemia without acute infarction.
  • It usually resolves within 24 hours
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47
Q

What are the symptoms of a TIA in the internal carotid artery?

A

ACA: weak numb contralateral leg

MCA: body, face drooping w/forehead spared, dysphasia (temporal)

PCA -Homonymous hemianopia: visual field loss on the same side of both eyes
Hemisensory loss
Amaurosis fugax

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48
Q

What are the symptoms of a TIA in the vertebral/ basilar arteries

A

Diplopia – double vision
Vertigo
Vomiting
Choking and dysarthria
Ataxia
Hemisensory loss

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49
Q

what score can help stratify which patients are at a higher risk of a stroke following a TIA?

A

ABCD2 score:

A: age greater than 60
B: Blood pressure greater than 140/90
C: clinical feature: Unilateral weakness (2 points), speech disturbance (1 point)
D- Diabetes
D- Duration 60 minuets or longer (2 points) 10 to 59 (1 point)

High risk:
ABCD2 score of 4 or more, AF is present, More than TIA in one week or a TIA whilst on anti-coagulation

Low risk:
None of the above
Present more than a week after their last symptoms have resolved

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50
Q

What are the primary investigations for a TIA?

A
  • Auscultation: listen for carotid bruit
  • CT scan - Request an urgent CT scan of the head
  • Carotid doppler – look for stenosis
  • CT angiography – look for stenosis
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51
Q

What is the management for a TIA?

A
  • First line is antiplatelet initially with aspirin 300mg
  • Carotid endarterectomy: surgery to remove blockage of >70% on doppler
  • Manage cardiovascular risk with atorvastatin etc
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52
Q

What is a crescendo TIA?

A

Where there are two or more TIAs within a week. It carries a high risk of a stroke

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53
Q

How many people who have a TIA will go on to have a stroke?

A

10% within 3 months

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54
Q

What are the two categories a haemorrhagic stroke can be split in to?

A
  • Intracerebral where the bleeding occurs within the cerebrum
  • Subarachnoid when bleeding occurs between the pia and arachnoid matter
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55
Q

What can cause an intracerebral haemorrhage?

A
  • Hypertension causing arteriosclerosis and microaneurysms called bouchard aneurysms
  • Arteriovenous malformations blood vessels that directly connect an artery to a vein
  • Vasculitis/Vascular tumours
  • Secondary to an ischaemic stroke- ischaemia causes brain tissue death. If there is reperfusion there’s an increased chance that the damaged vessel might rupture
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56
Q

What are the risk factors for developing an intracerebral haemorrhage stroke?

A
  • Head injury
  • Hypertension
  • Aneurysm
  • Brain tumour
  • Anticoagulant
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57
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of an intracerebral haemorrhage?

A
  • Once blood starts to spew from damaged vessel it creates a pool of blood that increases pressure in the skill and puts pressure on nearby cells and vessels. This can also lead to brain herniation
  • Haemorrhage also results in less blood flowing downstream to cells. The pressure or lack of blood can lead to tissue death within hours
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58
Q

What are the presentations of an intracerebral haemorrhage?

A
  • Sudden headache is a key feature
  • Weakness
  • Seizure
  • Vomiting
  • Reduced consciousness
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59
Q

What are the investigations for a intracerebral haemorrhage?

A
  • CT/MRI to confirm size and location of the haemorrhage
  • Check FBC and clotting
  • Angiography to visualise the exact location of the haemorrhage
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60
Q

What is the management for a intracerebral haemorrhage?

A
  • Consider ICU and intubation and ventilation if there is reduced consciousness
  • Correct any clotting abnormalities
  • Correct severe hypertension but avoid hypotension
  • Drugs to relieve intercranial pressure mannitol
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61
Q

What are the surgeries that can be performed for an intracerebral haemorrhage?

A
  • Craniotomy part of the skull bone is removed to drain any blood and relieve pressure
  • Stereotactic aspiration: aspirate off blood and relieve intracranial pressure guided by a CT scanner. Good for bleeding that is located deeper in the brain
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62
Q

Describe the epidemiology of a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • Most common in people 45-70
  • More common in women
  • More common in black patients
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63
Q

What can cause SAH?

A
  • Trauma is a key factor
  • Atraumatic cases are referred to as spontaneous SAH
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64
Q

What is the most common cause of a spontaneous SAH?

A
  • Berry aneurysm- they account for 80% of cases.
  • Arise at points of bifurcation within the circle of Willis; the junction between the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral artery
  • They are associated with PKD, coarctation of the aorta, and connective tissue disorders (Marfan)
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65
Q

What are the risk factors for having a SAH?

A
  • Cocaine use
  • Sickle cell anaemia
  • Connective tissue disorders
  • Neurofibromatosis: tumours form on your nerve tissues
  • PKD
  • Alcohol excess
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66
Q

What can occur as a result of a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • Blood vessels that are bathing in a pool of blood can start to intermittently vasoconstrict (vasospasm) called. If this occurs in the circle of Willis it will reduce the supply of blood flow to the brain causing further injury .
  • Over time blood in the subarachnoid space can irritate the meninges and cause inflammation which leads to scarring of the surrounding tissue. The scar tissue can obstruct the normal outflow of CSF causing fluid to build up leading to hydrocephalous
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67
Q

What are the signs of a SAH?

A
  • 3rd nerve palsy- if the aneurysm occurs in posterior communicating artery
  • 6th nerve palsy a non-specific sign which indicates raised intercranial pressure
  • Reduced GCS
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68
Q

What are the symptoms of a SAH?

A
  • Thunderclap headache during strenuous activity or sex. It’s like being hit really hard on the back of the head
  • Neck stiffness
  • photophobia
  • Vison changes
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69
Q

What are the initial investigations for SAH?

A
  • FBC
  • Serum glucose
  • Clotting screening
  • Urgent non-contrast CT of the head. Blood will cause hyperattenuation (this means becoming more dense on CT will show as white) in the subarachnoid space
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70
Q

What tests would you perform if CT is negative but a SAH is still suspeccted?

A
  • Lumbar puncture: will show RBCs or xanthochromia (yellow pigmentation due to degradation of haemoglobin to bilirubin)
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71
Q

What is the management to prevent vasospasm?

A

Nimodipine is a CCB and prevents vasospasms

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72
Q

What is the management to stop the bleeding?

SAH

A
  • first-line is endovascular coilingof the aneurysm;
  • second-line is surgical clippingvia craniotomy
  • If features of raised intracranial pressure: consider intubation with hyperventilation, head elevation (30°) and IV mannitol
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73
Q

What are the complications of a SAH?

A
  • Rebleeding 22% risk at one month
    • Vasospasm: accounts for 23% of deaths; at highest risk for the first 2-3 weeks after SAH; treated with (induced) hypertension,hypervolemia andhaemodilution (triple-H therapy).
  • Hydrocephalus: acutely managed with external ventricular drain (CSF drainage into an external bag) or a long-term ventriculoperitoneal shunt, if required
  • Seizures: seizure-prophylaxis is often administered (e.g. Keppra)
  • Hyponatraemia: commonly due to syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
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74
Q

What is the prognosis for SAH?

A

At 6 months, 25% of patients are dead and 50% are moderately to severely disabled.

Causes of mortalityinclude medical complications (23%), vasospasm (23%), rebleeding (22%) and initial haemorrhage (19%)

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75
Q

What is a subdural haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding below the dura matter

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76
Q

Who is most likely to suffer from a SDH?

A
  • Elderly
  • Alcoholics
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77
Q

What can cause a SDH?

A
  • Brain atrophy: in the elderly the brain shrinks in size meaning the bridging veins are stretched across a wider space where they are largely unsupported
  • Alcohol abuse: causes the wall of veins to thin out making them more likely to break
  • Trauma/injury: falls, shaken baby syndrome, acceleration-deceleration injury
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78
Q

What is a haematoma and how do they cause issues?

A

The collection of blood that forms as a result of a haemorrhage.

As damaged bridging veins are under low pressure, the bleeding can be slow causing a delayed onset of symptoms as the haematoma gradually increases in size. Over time this will compress that brain and increase intercranial pressure

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79
Q

What is an acute SD haematoma?

A

One that causes symptoms within 2 days

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80
Q

What is a subacute SD haematoma?

A

One that causes symptoms between 3-14 dyas

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81
Q

What is a chronic SD haematoma?

A

One that causes symptoms after 15 days

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82
Q

What are the symptoms of a SDH?

A
  • Reduced GCS: which can occur straight away or in the ensuing days and weeks as the haematoma increases in size
  • Headaches
  • Vomiting
  • Seizures
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83
Q

What are the investigations for a SDH?

A

Immediate CT head

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84
Q

What will an acute SDH look like on a CT?

A

A hyperdense mass more white than the surrounding healthy brain tissue

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85
Q

What will an acute SDH look like on a CT?

A

A hyperdense mass more white than the surrounding healthy brain tissue

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86
Q

What will a chronic SDH look like on a CT?

A

A hypodense mass less white than the surrounding healthy brain tissue

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87
Q

What shape does a subdural haematoma show as on a CT?

A

Bleeding is between the dura and the arachnoid so it follow the contour of the brain and dorms a crescent shape and cross suture lines.

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88
Q

What are the differentials for a SDH?

A
  • Stroke
  • Dementia
  • CNS masses e.g. tumours or abscesses
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhage
  • Epidural haemorrhage
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89
Q

What is the management for a SDH?

A

Drainage:
- small SDH are drained via a burr hole washout a small tube called
- large SDH requires a craniotomy which is when part of the skull bone is removed
- IV Mannitol to reduce ICP

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90
Q

What are the complications a the raised intercranial pressure in a SDH?

A
  • Supratentorial herniation: cerebrum is pushed against the skull or the tentorium, can compress the arteries that nourish the brain leading to an ischaemic stroke
  • Infratentorial herniation: cerebellum is pushed against the brainstem, can compress the vital area in the brainstem that control consciousness, respiration, and heart rate
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91
Q

What is an epidural haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding above the dura matter

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92
Q

Who is an EDH most common in?

A

They usually occur in young adults

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93
Q

What is the most common cause of a EDH?

A

It is most commonly caused by head trauma. The meningeal arteries are protected by the skull but can be damaged by serious head trauma

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94
Q

Where is the most common site for a EDH to occur?

A

The Pterion which is the spot where the frontal, parietal and temporal and sphenoid bone join together.

It is a thin area of the skull and located just above the middle meningeal artery

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95
Q

What happens once the meningeal artery ahs been torn?

A

Blood will pool between the skull and the external layer of the dura mater, separating it from the inner surface of the skull. The blood builds up between the skull and the outer layer of the dura mater but cannot cross the suture lines where the dura mater adheres more tightly.

If blood accumulates slowly, there may be a lucid interval which is when several hours pass before the onset of symptoms.

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96
Q

What are the symptoms of a EDH?

A
  • Reduced GCS: loss of consciousness after the trauma due to concussion
    • There might be a lucid interval after initial trauma if there is a slower bleed. This is followed by rapid decline.
  • Headaches
  • Vomiting
  • Confusion
  • Seizures
  • Pupil dilation if bleeding continues
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97
Q

What will a EDH look like on an CT scan?

A

Hyperdense mass = looks “more white” than the surrounding healthy brain tissue.

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98
Q

What shape will an EDH be on a CT scan?

A

Epidural haemorrhages cause blood to build up between the outer layer of the dura mater and the skull.

Epidural haematomas don’t cross suture lines and they push on the brain forming a biconvex shape.

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99
Q

What are the differentials for a EDH?

A
  • Epilepsy
  • Carotid dissection
  • Carbon monoxide poisoning
  • Subdural haematoma
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhage
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100
Q

What is the management for a EDH?

A
  • Clot evacuation
    • Craniotomy: part of the skull bone is removed in order to remove accumulated blood below.
    • Followed by ligation of the vessel.
  • IV mannitol to reduce ICP
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101
Q

What is Cushing’s reflex?

A

physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in Cushing’s triad of:
- increased blood pressure
- irregular breathing,
- bradycardia.

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102
Q

What is the meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the leptomeninges (the arachnoid and pia) and usually occurs due to a bacterial or viral cause

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103
Q

What are the most common cause of bacterial meningitis?

A
  • S.pneumoniae
  • N. meningitidis
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104
Q

What is the most common cause of viral meningitis?

A
  • Enteroviruses such as coxsackievirus
  • Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
  • Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
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105
Q

What are the causes of fungal meningitis?

A
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
  • Candida
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106
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in neonates?

A

Group B streptococcus (GBS) S. agalactiae usually contracted during birth from the GBS bacteria that can often live harmlessly in the mothers vaginas.

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107
Q

What are some risk factors for developing meningitis?

A
  • Immunocompromised: such as being in the extremes of age, infection (HIV), and medication (Chemotherapy) Listeria monocytogenes
    M. Tuberculosis
  • Non-immunised: at risk ofH. influenza, pneumococcal and meningococcal meningitis
  • Crowded environments: students living in halls of residence are a commonly affected demographic
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108
Q

What are the two routes of infection for meningitis?

A
  • Direct spread
  • Hematogenous spread
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109
Q

How can meningitis spread directly?

A
  • Pathogens get inside the skull or spinal column and penetrate the meninges
  • Sometimes the pathogen will have come through the overlying skin or up through the nose but more likely through anatomical defect or acquired like a skull fracture
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110
Q

How does meningitis spread via the blood?

A
  • Pathogens enter the blood stream and move through the endothelial cells in the blood vessels making up the blood brain barrier
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111
Q

What happens once the pathogen causing meningitis reaches the CSF?

A
  • Once in CSF pathogen will start multiplying, This will cause WBC in CSF to release cytokines and recruit additional immune cells. This will massively increase the number of WBC in CSF
  • Additional immune cells will attract more fluid to the area and start causing local destruction this will cause CSF pressure to rise
  • Immune reaction will cause the glucose concentration of the CSF to fall and protein level increase
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112
Q

What types of meningitis are acute and which are more commonly chronic?

A
  • Bacterial and viral meningitis are usually acute
  • Fungal is more chronic
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113
Q

What are the two tests to look for meningeal infection?

A

Kernigs Test
Brudzinski’s Test

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114
Q

What is Kernigs Test?

A
  • Involves patient lying on their back and flexing one hip and knee to 90 degrees and then slowly straightening the knee whilst keeping the hip flexed. This causes the meninges to stretch
  • A positive test will be where there is spinal pain or resistance to the movement
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115
Q

What is Brudzinski’s Test?

A
  • Involves lying a patient on their back and gently using your hands to lift their head and neck off the bed and flexing their chin to their chest
  • A positive test is when a patient involuntarily flexes their hips and knees
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116
Q

What is another classic sign of meningococcus meningitis?

A

. non-blanching rash” that everybody worries about as it indicates the infection has caused disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) and subcutaneous haemorrhages.

Other causes of bacterial meningitis do not cause this rash

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117
Q

What are the symptoms of meningitis?

A
  • Headache
  • Photophobia
  • Neck stiffness
  • Fever
  • Nausea vomiting
  • Seizures
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118
Q

What are the primary investigations for meningitis?

A
  • FBC:leukocytosis
  • CRP:raised inflammatory markers
  • Coagulation screen: required prior to lumbar puncture (LP)
  • Blood glucose: required in all patients and for comparison with CSFglucose
  • Blood culture:positive in the case of bacterial infection
  • Whole-blood PCR forN meningitidis
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119
Q

What is the main investigation for meningitis?

A

Lumbar puncture

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120
Q

What are some contraindications for a lumbar puncture?

A

Raised ICP
GCS <9
Focal Neurological signs

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121
Q

Where is a lumbar puncture usually taken from?

A

Between L3/L4
Since spinal cord ends L1/2

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122
Q

What will a lumbar puncture show for different types of meningitis?

A
  • Bacteria will release proteins and use up glucose
  • Virus don’t use glucose but may release small amounts of proteins

The immune system releases neutrophils for bacterial and lymphocytes for viral

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123
Q

What is used to treat patients in primary care with suspected meningitis and a non-blanching rash?

A

(IM or IV) of benzylpenicillin prior to transfer to hospital as time is so important:

< 1 year – 300mg
1-9 years – 600mg
> 10 years and adults – 1200mg

This shouldn’t delay transfer. Where there is a true penicillin allergy transfer should be the priority rather than other antibiotics.

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124
Q

How would you treat bacterial meningitis in hospital?

A

Ideally a blood culture and a lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) if the patient is acutely unwell antibiotics should not be delayed.

There should be a low threshold for treating suspected bacterial meningitis, particularly in babies and younger children. Always follow the local guidelines however typical antibiotics are:

< 3 months – cefotaxime plus amoxicillin (the amoxicillin is to cover listeria contracted during pregnancy from the mother)
> 3 months – ceftriaxone

Vancomycin should be added to these if there is a risk of penicillin resistant pneumococcal infection such as from recent foreign travel or prolonged antibiotic exposure.

Dexamethasone is given 4 times daily for 4 days to children over 3 months if the lumbar puncture is suggestive of bacterial meningitis. to reduce chances of neurological symptoms afterwards

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125
Q

What is the treatment for viral meningitis?

A
  • Conservative management is appropriate most of the time
  • Give Aciclovir if HSV or VZV
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126
Q

Is meningitis a notifiable disease?

A

Yes obviously the only reason this question is in here is so I can say that it is

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127
Q

What are the complications of meningitis?

A
  • Hearing loss
  • seizures and epilepsy
  • Cognitive impairment
  • Memory loss
  • Limb weakness or spasticity
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128
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

Inflammation of the brain parenchyma. It mostly affects the frontal and temporal lobes

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129
Q

What is the main cause of encephalitis?

A

The herpes simplex virus HSV-1 accounts for 95% of cases from cold sores.

In neonates HSV-2 from genital herpes is the most common

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130
Q

What are some risk factors for developing encephalitis?

A
  • Immunocompromised
  • Blood/fluid exposure: HIV and west Nile virus
  • Mosquito bite: west Nile virus
  • Transfusion and transplantation: CMV, EBV, HIV
  • Close contact with cats: toxoplasmosis
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131
Q

What causes encephalitis?

A
  • An immune response to an invading pathogen
  • HSV gets into the sensory ganglia by travelling retrograde from skin and recurrent infection happens when it travels anterograde back to the skin. I
  • If it travels to the CNS, it leads to encephalitis. This is usually along olfactory or trigeminal nerves.
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132
Q

Where are the signs of encephalitis?

A
  • Pyrexia
  • Reduced GCS
  • Aphasia
  • Hemiparesis
  • Cerebellar signs
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133
Q

What are the symptoms of encephalitis?

A
  • Fever
  • Headache
  • Fatigue
  • confusion
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134
Q

What are some behavioural changes that occur in encephalitis?

A
  • Memory disturbance
  • Psychotic behaviour
  • Withdrawal or change in personality
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135
Q

What are some investigations for encephalitis?

A
  • Throat swab
  • HIV serology
  • MRI of head will show evidence of inflammation will be normal in 1/3 of cases
  • Lumbar puncture and CSF investigation including a PCR for HSV
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136
Q

What are some differentials for encephalitis?

A
  • Meningitis
  • Encephalopathy
  • Status epilepticus
  • CNS vasculitis
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137
Q

What is the treatment for encephalitis?

A
  • Aciclovir should be given in all cases where it is suspected
  • Ganciclovirmay be preferred in other herpesvirus infections, such as HHV-6
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138
Q

What is the prognosis for encephalitis?

A

Untreated HSV encephalitis is associated with a 70% mortality. This is significantly reduced with early antiviral therapy.

Survivors often have neurological sequelae such as short-term memory impairment and behavioural changes

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139
Q

What is MS?

A

An autoimmune cell-mediated demyelinating disease of the central nervous system

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140
Q

What is the epidemiology of MS?

A
  • More common in women
  • 20-40 most common age for diagnosis
  • More common in white
  • More common in northern latitudes

Symptoms will improve in pregnancy and post-partum period

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141
Q

What are some risk factors for developing MS?

A
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Family history: HLA-DR2 is implicated; 30% monozygotic twin concordance
  • EBV infection: the virus with the greatest link to MS
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
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142
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of MS

A
  • T-cells get through the blood brain barrier and are activated by myelin. The T-cell then changes the BBB to allow more immune cells to get in the brain
  • MS is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction: T-cells release cytokines and these recruit more immune cells whilst also damaging the oligodendrocytes.
  • B-cells will make antibodies that will destroy the myelin of the e oligodendrocytes. leaving behind areas of plaque/sclera
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143
Q

How does MS progress over time?

A

In early disease, re-myelination can occur and symptoms can resolve. In the later stages of the disease, re-myelination is incomplete and symptoms gradually become more permanent.

A characteristic feature of MS is that lesions vary in their location over time, meaning that different nerves are affected and symptoms change over time

MS lesions change location over time is that they are “disseminated in time and space”.

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144
Q

What are the different types of MS?

A
  • Relapsing-remitting:
  • Secondary progressive
  • Primary progressive
  • Progressive relapsing
  • Clinically isolated syndrome (kind of counts)
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145
Q

What is Relapsing-remitting: MS?

A
  • The most common pattern 85% of cases
  • Episodic flare-ups separated by periods of remission. There isn’t full recovery after flare ups so disability increases over time.

60% will develop secondary within 15 years

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146
Q

What is secondary progressive MS?

A

Initially, the disease starts with arelapsing-remitting course, but then symptoms get progressively worse withnoperiods of remission

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147
Q

What is primary progressive MS?

A
  • Symptoms get progressively worse from diseaseonsetwithno periods of remission
  • Accounts for 10% of cases and is more common inolder patients
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148
Q

What is Progressive relapsing MS?

A
  • One constant attack but there are bouts superimposed during which the disability increases even faster
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149
Q

What is clinically isolated syndrome MS?

A
  • This describes the first episode of demyelination and neurological signs and symptoms. MS cannot be diagnosed on one episode as the lesions have not been “disseminated in time and space”.
  • Patients with clinically isolated syndrome may never have another episode or develop MS. If lesions are seen on MRI scan then they are more likely to progress to M
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150
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of MS?

A
  • Optic neuritis
  • Eye movement abnormalities- double vision VI nerve
  • Focal weakness (incontinence, limb paralysis, Bells palsy)
  • Focal sensory symptoms ( numbness, pins and needles, Lhermitte’s sign is an electric shock sensation that travels down the spine and into the limbs when flexing the neck.)
  • Ataxia
  • Uhthoff’s phenomenon: worsening of symptoms following a rise in temperature, such as a hot bath
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151
Q

What is optic neuritis?

A

Demyelination of the optic nerve which present with:
- Unilateral reduced vision
- Central scotoma (enlarged blind spot)
- Pain on eye movement
- Impaired colour vision (red)

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152
Q

What is the primary investigation for MS and what would it show?

A

MRI of brain and spine:
- Will show demyelinating plaques called Dawson’s fingers
- High signal L2 lesions
- Old lesions willnotenhance with contrast, whereas newer lesions will. This provides evidence of dissemination of lesions in time and space which is required for a diagnosis of MS

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153
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria used to diagnose MS?

A

McDonald criteria

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154
Q

What is the McDonald criteria based on?

A

2 or more relapses and either:
- Objective evidence of two or more lesions
- Objective evidence of one and a reasonable history of a previous relapse

‘Objective evidence’ is defined as an abnormality on neurological exam, MRI or visual evoked potentials

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155
Q

What is used to treat a MS relapse?

A
  • Oral or IV methylprednisolone
  • Plasma exchange: to remove disease-causing antibodies
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156
Q

What is used for maintenance of MS?

A
  • Disease-modifying drugs- don’t really need to know them but just in case your feeling keen – thanks but im not xx
  • Beta-interferon: decreases the level of inflammatory cytokines
    • Monoclonal antibodies e.g. alemtuzumab (anti-CD52) and natalizumab (anti-α4𝛃1-integrin)
    • Glatiramer acetate: immunomodulator drug which acts as a ‘decoy’
    • Fingolimod: a sphingosine-1-phosphate receptor modulator that keeps lymphocytes in lymph nodes so they can’t cause inflammation
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157
Q

What are some complications of MS?

A
  • Genitourinary:urinary tract infections, urinary retention and incontinence
  • Constipation
  • Depression: offer mental health support if required
  • Visual impairment
  • Mobility impairment: offer physiotherapy, orthotics and other mobility aids
  • Erectile dysfunction
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158
Q

What is Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A

An acute paralytic polyneuropathy. It is an autoimmune, rapidly progressive demyelinating condition of the peripheral nervous system

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159
Q

What are the risk factors for developing Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A
  • Male
  • Age 15-35 and 50-75
  • Malignancies
  • Vaccines (flu)
  • Infections
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160
Q

What are the most common infections that trigger Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A
  • Campylobacter jejuni (most common)
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • EBV
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161
Q

What causes Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A
  • A pathogenic antigen resembles myelin gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system.
  • The immune system targets the antigen and attacks the myelin sheath of sensory and motor neurones
  • It occurs in patches along the length of the axon so is called segmental demyelination
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162
Q

What antibodies are found in 25% of people with Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A
  • Anti-ganglioside antibodies (anti-GMI)
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163
Q

Describe the disease course of Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A

Symptoms usually start within 4 weeks of the preceding infection. The symptoms typically start in the feet and progresses upward.

Symptoms peak within 2-4 weeks, then there is a recovery period that can last months to years.

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164
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A
  • Symmetrical ascending weakness (starting at feet and moving up the body)
  • Reduced reflexes
  • Loss of sensation and pain
  • Cranial nerve involvement such as facial nerve weakness
  • Autonomic features (sweating, raised pulse)
  • Struggling to breathe
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165
Q

What is used to diagnose Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A

A clinical diagnosis that is evidenced by progressive weakness and hyporeflexia in the weaker limbs.

The Brighton criteria is used for diagnosis. (This does not include letting your manager go to Chelsea or selling all of your best players) (it may include being - at time of writing - 3 positions higher, 4 points better off and having 2 games in hand over Chelsea)

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166
Q

What are the differentials of Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Transverse myelitis
  • Polymyositis
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167
Q

What is the treatment for Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A
  • IV immunoglobulins IV IG
  • Plasma exchange (alternative to IV IG)
  • Venous thromboembolism prophylaxis (PE is the leading cause of death)
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168
Q

What is the prognosis for Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A

80% will fully recover
15% will be left with some neurological disability
5% will die

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169
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease (PD)?

A

A neurodegenerative disorder characterised by the loss of dopaminergic neurons within the substantia nigra pars compacta (SNPC) of the basal ganglia.

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170
Q

What are the risk factors for developing PD?

A

Age: prevalence is 1% in 60-70 and 3% in those above 80
Gender: men are 1.5 times more likely than females to develop PD
Family history

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171
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of PD

A
  • In PD there is progressive loss of dopamine-producing neurons meaning there is a reduction in the amount of dopamine produced at the substantia nigra
  • Loss of these neurons results in reduction in action of the direct pathway and a resultant increase in the antagonistic indirect pathway which has a restrictive action on movement. Therefore bradykinesia and rigidity are key symptoms
  • There is also formation of protein clumps Lewy bodies
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172
Q

What are the 3 key presentations of PD?

A
  • Bradykinesia
  • Tremor
  • Rigidity

PD symptoms usually start unilaterally and then become bilateral later in the disease course.

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173
Q

What symptoms would not be present in the early stages of PD?

A
  • Incontinence
  • Dementia
  • Early falls
  • Symmetry

Can be a sign of normal pressure hydrocephalus

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174
Q

What does the bradykinesia look like in PD?

A
  • Handwriting gets smaller
  • Only take small steps (shuffling gait)
  • Difficulty initiating movement
  • Difficulty turning around when standing
  • Reduced facial movements and expressions
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175
Q

What does the tremor look like in PD?

A
  • A unilateral resting tremor. Described as pill rolling tremor looks like they are rolling pill between thumb and finger
  • The tremor is worse at resting and when they are distracted like using the other hand

Frequency of 4-6 times a second

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176
Q

What is the rigidity like in PD?

A
  • If you take their hand and passively flex and extend their arm at the elbow you will feel tension in their arm that gives way to movement in small increments (little jerks)
  • Described as cogwheel
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177
Q

What are some other symptoms of PD?

A
  • Depression
  • Sleep disturbance and insomnia no REM
  • Loss of sense of smell
  • Postural instability
  • Cognitive impairment and memory problems
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178
Q

What are the differences between a PD tremor and a benign essential tremor?

A
  • PD= asymmetrical BET= symmetrical
  • PD= frequency= 4-6 BET= 5-8
  • PD= worse at rest BET= better at rest
  • PD= improves with intentional movement BET= worse
  • PD= no change with alcohol BET= better with alcohol
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179
Q

What is used to treat a benign essential tremor?

A
  • Beta blocker (propranolol)
  • Primidone
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180
Q

What is used to diagnose PD?

A

PD is a clinical diagnosis and should be suspected in a patient with bradykinesia and at least one of the following:
- Tremor
- Rigidity
- Postural instability

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181
Q

What is the management for PD?

A

Motor symptoms not affecting quality of life:
A choice of one of the following:

Dopamine agonist(non-ergot derived)
- Pramipexole, ropinirole
Monoamine oxidase B inhibitor (MOA-B)
- Selegiline, rasagiline
- Stop breakdown of circulating dopamine

Motor symptoms affecting the quality of life:

  • Synthetic dopamine levodopa given with a drug that stops it being broken down. These are peripheral decarboxylase inhibitors. Carbidopa and benserazide.

Co-benyldopa (levodopa and benserazide)
Co-careldopa (levodopa and carbidopa)

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182
Q

What is the prognosis for PD?

A

PD is a chronic and progressive condition with no cure.

Overall, life expectancy is reduced with the mortality being 2-5 times higher for those aged 70-89 years old. Also, the risk of dementia is up to 6 times higher in PD patients.

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183
Q

What is Huntington’s disease?

A

An autosomal dominant genetic neurodegenerative condition that causes a progressive a progressive deterioration in the nervous system.

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184
Q

What causes HD?

A
  • It is a trinucleotide repeat disorder that involves a genetic mutation in the HTT gene on chromosome 4
  • There is a repeat of CAG which codes for glutamine 36 times in a row so patients have 36 glutamine in a row on the Huntington protein
  • These mutated proteins aggregate within neuronal cells of the caudate and putamen causing neuronal cell death. This leads to decreased ACh and GABA synthesis. This leads to dopamine increase leading to excessive movement
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185
Q

What is anticipation and how is it linked to HD?

A
  • It is a feature of trinucleotide repeat disorders. When copying the HTT gene, DNA polymerase can lose track of which CAG it’s on and so add extra CAGs. This is called repeat expansion.

This leads to successive generations having more repeats in the gene resulting in:
- Early age of onset
- Increased severity of the disease

186
Q

What are the symptoms of HD?

A

Patients will be asymptomatic until 30-50.

Symptoms:
- Begin with Cognitive, psychiatric or mood problems
- Chorea (involuntary, abnormal movements)
- Eye movement disorders
- Dysarthria: speech difficulties
- Dysphagia: swallowing difficulties
- Dementia

187
Q

How is diagnosis of HD made?

A

Made at a specialist genetic centre that looks for the number of CAG repeats.

This will involve pre and post test counselling

188
Q

What is the treatment for HD?

A

There are currently no treatment options for slowing or stopping the progression of the disease.

The key to management of the condition is supporting the person and their family.

Effectively breaking bad news
Involvement of MDT in supporting and maintaining their quality of life (e.g. occupational therapy, physiotherapy and psychology)
Speech and language therapy where there are speech and swallowing difficulties
Genetic counselling regarding relatives, pregnancy and children
Advanced directives to document the patients wishes as the disease progresses
End of life care planning

189
Q

What medications are given for symptoms relief?

A

Medications that can suppress the disordered movement:

Antipsychotics (e.g. olanzapine)
Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam)
Dopamine-depleting agents (e.g. tetrabenazine)

190
Q

What is the prognosis for HD?

A

Life expectancy is around 15-20 years after the onset of symptoms.

As the disease progresses patients become more susceptible and less able to fight off illnesses. Death is often due to respiratory disease (e.g. pneumonia). Suicide is a more common cause of death than in the general population.

191
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A
  • Most common form of dementia
  • More than 500,000 people with it in the UK
  • More common in women
192
Q

What are the risk factors for developing AD?

A

Age
CVD
Depression
Low educational attainment
- Low social engagement and support
- head trauma, learning difficulties

193
Q

What genes put you at risk of AD?

A
  • <5% are inherited so the familial but genes such as APP and presenilin genes (PSEN1, PSEN2) have been identified as causes.
  • APP is on chromosome 21 so people with down syndrome have an increased risk
  • Certain alleles of apolipoprotein E (APOE) have also been identified as a risk factor. —> APOE E4 - this allele of the APOE gene is not as good at clearing beta plaques
    (APOE E2 is protective, as better at clearing beta plaques)
194
Q

What are the amyloid beta plaques and how do they contribute to AD?

A
  • Senile plaques deposits of beta amyloid aggregate. Amyloid precursor protein is found on neurons (helps it to grow and repair after injury).
  • If it is broken down normally by alpha secretase and gamma secretase it is soluble and easy to remove
  • However if it is broken by beta secretase the leftover fragment isn’t soluble and creates a monomer called beat amyloid. These are sticky and can in between neurones and their signalling, They also increase inflammation which damages surrounding neurones
195
Q

What are neurofibrillary tangles and how do they contribute to AD?

A
  • Neurons are held together by their cytoskeleton which is made up of microtubules a protein called tau makes sure they stay together.
  • Beta amyloid build-up outside the neurones initiates pathways which leads to the activation of kinase. This leads to the phosphorylation of tau
  • The tau protein then changes shape, stops supporting the microtubules, and clumps up with other tau proteins, forming neurofibrillary tangles
  • Neurones with tangles and non-functioning microtubules can’t signal as well, and sometimes end up undergoing apoptosis. As neurones die, the brain starts to atrophy.
196
Q

What are some of the symptoms of AD?

A
  • Agnosia- can’t recognise things
  • Apraxia can’t do basic motor skills
  • Aphasia speech difficulties

Cognitive impairment
Agitation and emotional lability
Depression and anxiety
Sleep cycle disturbance: Motor disturbance: wandering is a typical feature of dementia

197
Q

How can the activities of daily life be affected in AD?

A

Loss of independence: increasing reliance on others for assistance with personal and domestic activities:
- Early stages: problems with higher level function (e.g. managing finances, difficulties at work)

  • Later stages: problems with basic personal care (e.g. washing, eating, toileting) and motor function (e.g. walking, transferring)
198
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for AD?

A
  • Functional ability: inability to carry out normal functions
  • Impairment in 2 or more cognitive domains
  • Differentials excluded
199
Q

What imaging is used for AD?

A

CT/MRI: exclude other diagnosis and can help determine type of dementia; will show medial temporal lobe atrophy

200
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis for AD?

A
  • Brain biopsy after autopsy
201
Q

What are the two cognitive assessments that can be performed to asses AD?

A
  • Mini mental state examination (MMSE)
  • Montreal cognitive assessment scale (MoCA)
202
Q

What is assessed in the cognitive assessments?

A
  • Attention and concentration
  • Recent and remote memory
  • Language
  • Praxis (planned motor movements)
  • Executive function
  • Visuospatial function
203
Q

What are the different score on the MMSE and MoCA and what do they represent?

A
  • Mild: MMSE 21-26, MoCA 18-25, CDR 1
  • Moderate: MMSE 10-20, MoCA 10-17, CDR 2
  • Severe: MMSE <10, MoCA <10, CDR 3
204
Q

What is the treatment for AD?

A
  • Non-pharmacological: programmes to improve/maintain cognitive function
  • Mild to moderate AD: acetylcholinesterase inhibitors e.g., Donepezil and rivastigmine
  • Moderate to severe AD: N-methyl-d-aspartic acid receptor antagonist memantine
205
Q

What is frontotemporal dementia?

A

A neurodegenerative disorder characterised by focal degeneration of the frontal and temporal lobes.

It is a heterogenous condition with various subtypes e.g., Pick’s disease

206
Q

Describe the epidemiology of FTD?

A
  • It is an uncommon cause of dementia (2% of dementias)
  • Typically affects patients at a younger age (< 65 years)
207
Q

What are the genes associated with FTD?

A

C9ORF72 gene: found on chromosome 9. Most common genetic cause of inherited FTD. Also implicated in hereditary motor neuron disease.

  • MAPT (microtubule associated protein)- found on chromosome 17
  • Granulin precursor(GRN): found on chromosome 17.
208
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of FTD?

A
  • In Pick disease 3R isoforms of the tau protein become hyperphosphorylated. This means they change shape and stop being able to tie together the tubulins in the neurones cytoskeleton.
  • These proteins start to clump together forming tangles of tau proteins known as pick bodies
209
Q

What are the frontal lobe effects of FTD?

A

Personality and behaviour change:
- Disinhibition
- Loss of empathy
- Apathy
- Hyperorality(e.g. dietary changes, attempt to consume non-edible products, eat beyond satiety)
- Compulsive behaviour(e.g. cleaning, checking, hoarding)

210
Q

What are the temporal lobe effects of FTD?

A

Language problems:
- Effortful speech
- Halting speech
- Speech sound errors
- Speech apraxia
- Word-finding difficulty
- Surface dyslexia or dysgraphia: mispronouncing difficult words (e.g. yacht)

211
Q

How would you diagnose FTD?

A
  • Diagnosis based on cognitive assessment
  • Imaging:
    • MRI: exclude other pathology; indicates changes in the frontal and temporal lobes
  • Definitive diagnosis: brain biopsy after a person has died
212
Q

What are the pharmacological treatments for FTD?

A
  • Serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI): used for difficult behavioural symptoms. Have been shown to decrease disinhibition, anxiety, impulsivity and repetitive behaviours.
  • Atypical anti-psychotics: can help with agitation and behavioural symptoms.
213
Q

What is the prognosis for FTD?

A

Overall survival is 8-10 years from symptoms onset.

214
Q

What is the epidemiology of VD?

(vascular dementia)

A
  • Makes up 20% of dementias
  • It is the second most common form
215
Q

What can cause VD?

A
  • Ischaemic stroke
  • Small vessel disease
  • Haemorrhage
  • Other: cerebral amyloid, which is a cause of small vessel disease. Deposition of amyloid in small arteries. CADASIL, which is due to mutation in the NOTCH3 gene and leads to arterial thickening and occlusion.
216
Q

Normal Physiology - how much of the hearts cardiac output goes to the brain?
What is unique about the brain’s metabolism?

A
  • The brain uses around 20-25% of oxygen
  • Neurons can only function in aerobic conditions and don’t have long term energy stores so need a constant supply
217
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of VD?

A
  • Once blood supply to the brain falls below the demands to the tissue, it’ considered an ischaemic stroke. The tissue damage is permanent because the dead tissue liquifies in a process called liquefactive necrosis
  • Brain tissue necrosis leads to a loss of mental function in the area where the loss has occurred
218
Q

How do the symptoms of VD appear?

A
  • They appear suddenly and the brain function decline is step-wise e.g. it decreases with each stroke
  • Symptoms will vary depending on which vessels are affected in stroke/atherosclerosis
219
Q

What is Lewy body dementia?

A

A type of dementia characterised by fluctuating cognitive impairment, visual hallucinations and parkinsonism

220
Q

What % of dementia does LBD make up?

A

15-25%

221
Q

What causes LBD?

A
  • Neurons contain a protein called alpha synuclein and in LBD this proteins is misfolded within the neurons
  • This misfolded protein aggregates to form Lewy bodies that deposit inside the neurones particularly in the cortex and the substantia nigra.
222
Q

What other disease are Lewy bodies seen?

A
  • Parkinson’s
  • Multiple system atrophy
223
Q

What are the early symptoms in LBD?

A
  • Alzheimer’s like cognitive ones:
  • Difficulty focusing
  • Poor memory
  • Visual hallucinations
  • Disorganized speech
  • Depression
224
Q

What are the later symptoms of LBD?

A
  • Later symptoms are typically motor ones (Parkinson’s-like)
    • Resting tremors
    • Stiff and slow movements
    • Reduced facial expressions
  • Some patients may have sleep disorders e.g. sleep walking or talking in their sleep
225
Q

What is the management for LBD?

A
  • Dopamine analogue e.g. levodopa: for Parkinson’s like motor symptoms
  • Cholinesterase inhibitors e.g. donepezil: increases acetylcholine availability, used for Alzheimer’s-like cognitive symptoms
226
Q

What drugs should be avoided in LBD?

A

Antipsychotics as they can have harmful side effects

227
Q

What are primary headaches and give some examples?

A

No underlying cause relevant to the headache:
- Migraine
- Cluster
- Tension
- (Trigeminal Neuralgia)

228
Q

What are red flags for headaches in regard to the features of the headache?

A
  • Sudden-onset reaching worse severity within 5 minuets (subarachnoid haemorrhage)
  • New-onset over 50 (GCA/ space occupying lesion)
  • Progressive/persistent headache or one that has changed dramatically (space-occupying lesion/ subdural haematoma)
229
Q

What are red flag precipitating factors for headaches?

A
  • Recent head trauma within 3 months (subdural haematoma)
  • Headache worse lying down (raised ICP)
  • Headache worse on standing (CSF leak)
  • Household contacts with similar symptoms (CO poisoning)
230
Q

What are red flag associated symptoms of headaches?

A
  • Fever, photophobia or neck stiffness (meningitis or encephalitis)
  • New neurological defect (raised ICP/stroke)
  • Visual disturbance (GCA/ acute closure glaucoma)
  • Vomiting (raised ICP, brain abscess and CO poisoning)
231
Q

List some red flags for some more practice

A
  • Fever, photophobia or neck stiffness (meningitis or encephalitis)
  • New neurological symptoms (haemorrhage, malignancy or stroke)
  • Dizziness (stroke)
  • Visual disturbance (temporal arteritis or glaucoma)
  • Sudden onset occipital headache (subarachnoid haemorrhage)
  • Worse on coughing or straining (raised intracranial pressure)
  • Postural, worse on standing, lying or bending over (raised intracranial pressure)
  • Severe enough to wake the patient from sleep
  • Vomiting (raised intracranial pressure or carbon monoxide poisoning)
  • History of trauma (intracranial haemorrhage)
  • Pregnancy (pre-eclampsia)
232
Q

What is an important investigation to carry out for a headache?

A

fundoscopy which will look for papilledema which indicates a raised intercranial pressure

233
Q

What are the risk factors for migraines?

A
  • Family history
  • Female gender 3 times more common
  • Obesity
  • Triggers
234
Q

What are some triggers for migraines?

A

CH- Chocolate
OC- Oral contraceptive
OL- alcohOL
A- anxiety
T- travel
E- exercise
CHOCOLATE

Other triggers can be red wine, bright lights and menstruation

235
Q

What are the different types of migraine?

A
  • Migraine without aura
  • Migraine with aura
  • Silent migraine (just the aura without the headache)
  • Hemiplegic migraine
236
Q

What causes migraines?

A
  • Headache is thought to be due to neuronal hyperexcitability. This leads to trigeminal nerves initiating an inflammatory response with dilation of meningeal blood vessels and sensitisation of surrounding nerve fibres leading to pain
  • Aura is thought to occur due to cortical spreading depression which is a propagating wave of depolarisation across the cerebral cortex causing the brain to become hypersensitive to certain stimuli
237
Q

What are the headache symptoms of a migraine?

A

Last between 4-72 hours:
- Pounding or throbbing in nature
- Usually unilateral (can be bilateral more common in children)
- Photophobia
- Phonophobia (loud noises)
- Aura
- Nausea and vomiting

238
Q

What is aura?

A

Aura is the term used to describe the visual changes associated with migraines symptoms can be:
- Sparks in vision
- Blurring vision
- Line across vision
- Loss of different visual fields

239
Q

What is a hemiplegic migraine?

A

They can mimic a stroke. Need to rule out if patient has symptoms:
- typical migraine
- Sudden onset
- Hemiplegia
- Ataxia
- Change in consciousness

240
Q

What are the 5 stages of a migraine?

A
  • Prodromal stage subtle symptoms such as yawning, fatigue or mood changes
  • Aura
  • headache
  • Resolution the headache can fade away and be relieved by vomiting or sleeping
  • Postdromal stage
241
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for migraines with aura?

A

At least two headaches filling criteria shown in picture

242
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for migraines without aura?

A

At least five headaches filling criteria shown in picture

243
Q

What is the management for migraines?

A
  • Analgesia (avoid opioids)
  • Oral triptan ( 500mg sumatriptan) as the headache starts
  • Antiemetics metoclopramide
244
Q

What are triptans?

A

They 5HT (serotonin) receptor agonists and they cause:
- smooth muscle contraction in arteries
- Peripheral pain receptors to inhibit activation of pain receptors
- Reduce neuronal activity in the central nervous system

245
Q

What are the medications used for migraine prophylaxis?

A
  • Propranolol
  • Topiramate (don’t use in pregnancy as it is teratogenic and can cause cleft lip) patient must be fitted with coil if age where they can get pregnant
  • Amitriptyline
246
Q

What should not be given to a female who experiences migraines with aura?

A

The combined pill it increases the risk of a stroke

247
Q

What are the non-pharmacological treatments for migraines?

A
  • Acupuncture: if both propranolol and topiramate are ineffective or unsuitable
  • Riboflavin (vitamin B2): **may be effective in some people, but avoid in pregnancy
248
Q

What is amaurosis faugax?

A
  • A classical syndrome of painless short-lived monocular blindness. Is mainly caused by transient obstruction e.g. an emboli but can be caused by GCA
  • Often described as a black curtain coming across the vision.
249
Q

What is a tension headache?

A

The most common form of a primary headahce

250
Q

Where is a lumbar puncture usually taken from?

A

Between L3/L4
Since spinal cord ends L1/2

251
Q

What are Tension Headaches?

A

Most common primary headache

Can be episodic (<15 days/month) or chronic (>15 days a month for at least 3 months)

252
Q

What are the causes of tension headaches?

A

Missed meals
Stress
Overexertion
Lack of sleep
Depression

253
Q

What are the symptoms of tension headaches?

A
  • Bilateral with a pressing/tight sensation of mild-moderate intensity
  • Nausea or vomiting
  • Photophobia
  • Phonophobia
254
Q

What is the main risk factor for a tension headache?

A

STRESS

255
Q

What are cluster headaches?

A

Severe unilateral headaches often periorbital that come in clusters of attacks

256
Q

What is the typical presentation for cluster headaches?

A

A typical patient with cluster headaches in your exams is a 30 – 50 year-old male smoker. Attacks can be triggered by things like alcohol, strong smells and exercise.

257
Q

How long can a cluster headache last?

A

Patient may suffer 3 – 4 attacks a day for weeks or months followed by a pain-free period lasting 1-2 years. Attacks last between 15 minutes and 3 hours.

258
Q

What are the symptoms of a cluster headache?

A
  • Severe and intolerable pain
  • unilateral
  • Red swollen watering eye
  • Pupil constriction
  • Eyelid dropping
  • Nasal discharge
  • Facial sweating
259
Q

What is the acute management of cluster headaches?

A
  • Triptans (6mg sumatriptan subcut)
  • High flow oxygen 100%
260
Q

What are the prophylaxis for cluster headaches?

A

Verapamil (CCB)
Lithium
Prednisolone (a short course for 2-3 weeks to break the cycle during clusters)

261
Q

What are the risk factors for Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A
  • females
  • 50-60
  • increases with age
  • unilateral
  • MS
262
Q

What are the causes of Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

Normally due to compression of the trigeminal nerve by a vascular loop often the superior cerebellar artery

263
Q

What are triggers for TGN?

A
  • Light touch
  • Washing
  • Shaving
  • Talking
  • Cold weather
264
Q

What is the headache like in Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

Electric Shock Pain that lasts for seconds to minutes across the face

90% unilateral
10% bilateral

265
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Clinical Dx
3 or more attacks with characteristic unilateral facial pain and Symptoms

MRI - exclude secondary causes/other pathology

266
Q

What is the treatment for TGN?

A

-First line: Carbamazepine
- Second line: microvascular decompression or ablative surgery may be considered in refractory patients

267
Q

What is a seizure?

A

A paroxysmal alteration of neurological function as a result of excessive hypersynchronous discharge of neurons within the brain

268
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

A neurological disorder characterised by an increased tendency to have recurrent seizures that are idiopathic and unprovoked.

(>2 episodes more than 24hrs apart)

269
Q

What are the different causes of seizures?

A

VITAMIN DE
- Vascular
- Infection
- Trauma
- Autoimmune- SLE
- Metabolic
- Idiopathic
- Neoplasms
- Dementia and drugs (cocaine)
- Eclampsia

270
Q

What are the causes of epilepsy?

A
  • Genetic
  • Structural
  • Metabolic- visible neurological abnormalities that predisposeto seizures (e.g. chronic cerebrovascular disease, congenital malformation)
  • Immune
  • Infectious- a chronic one e.g HIV
  • Unknown
271
Q

What happens in the brain during a seizure?

A
  • Clusters of neurons in the brain become temporarily impaired and start sending put lots of excitatory signals (said to be paroxysmal which means rapid onset). Happen either due to too much excitation glutamate or nor enough inhibition GABA
  • It is often noticed by obvious outward signs like jerking, moving and losing consciousness but can also be subjective and only noticed by the person experiencing it like fears or strange smells
272
Q

What are the different types of seizure?

A
  • Generalised:when both hemispheres are affected always a loss of consciousness
  • Focal : when the affected area is limited to one half of the brain or sometimes even smaller like a single lobe can progress to bilateral
273
Q

What are the different subtypes of generalised seizure?

A
  • Tonic
  • Atonic
  • Clonic
  • Tonic-clonic
  • Myoclonic
  • Absence
274
Q

What are the two types of focal seizure?

A

Simple (without impaired awareness)
Complex (with impaired awareness)

275
Q

What are the general clinical manifestations of seizures?

A
  • Prodromal phase:
    • Confusion, irritability or mood disturbances
  • Early-ictal phase:
    • Aura: warning felt before a seizure. These can include sensory, cognitive, emotional or behaviour changes.
  • Ictal phase:
    • Will vary depending on seizure type
  • Post-ictal phase:
    • Confused, drowsy and irritable during recovery
276
Q

What is a tonic, clonic and tonic-clonic seizure?

A
  • Tonic seizure: the muscles become stiff and flexed which will cause the patients to fall backwards
  • Clonic seizures: violent muscle contractions (convulsions)

Tonic-clonic: there is loss of consciousness and tonic (muscle tensing) and clonic (muscle jerking episodes). Typically the tonic phase comes before the clonic phase. (tongue biting, incontinence, groaning and irregular breathing.

After the seizure there is a prolongedpost-ictal periodwhere the person is confused, drowsy and feels irritable or depressed.

277
Q

What is the management for a tonic-clonic seizure?

A

First line: sodium valproate
Second line: Lamotrigine or carbamazepine

278
Q

What is an Atonic seizure?

A

Known as drop attacks. This is where the muscles suddenly relax and become floppy which can cause the patient to fall usually forward.

They don’t usually last longer than 3 minuets. They typically begin in childhood. They may be indicative ofLennox-Gastaut syndrome.

279
Q

What is the management for an Atonic seizure?

A

First line: sodium valproate
Second line: Lamotrigine

280
Q

What is a myoclonic seizure?

A
  • They present as sudden brief muscle contractions like a sudden jump. The patient usually remains awake during the episode.
  • They occur in various forms of epilepsy but typically happen in children as part of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.
281
Q

What is the management for a myoclonic seizure?

A

First line: sodium valproate
Other options: lamotrigine, levetiracetam or topiramate

282
Q

What is an absence seizure?

A
  • Impaired awareness or responsiveness. Patient becomes blank and stares into space before returning to normal. Motor abnormalities are either absent or very minor e.g. eyelid flutters or repetitive lip smacking.
  • Common in children. Most patients (> 90%) stop having absence seizures as they get older.
283
Q

What is the management for a absence seizure?

A

First line: sodium valproate or ethosuximide

284
Q

What are infertile spasms?

A

Known as West syndrome. It is a rare (1 in 4000) disorder starting in infancy at around 6 months of age. It is characterised by clusters of full body spasms. There is a poor prognosis: 1/3 die by age 25, however 1/3 are seizure free.

285
Q

What is the management for infertile/west syndrome seizures?

A

Prednisolone
Vigabatrin

286
Q

What is a simple focal seizure (focal aware seizure)?

A
  • No loss of consciousness
  • The patient is aware and awake
  • Will have uncontrollable muscle jerking
287
Q

What is a complex focal seizure (focal impaired awareness seizure)?

A
  • There is loss of consciousness
  • Patient is unaware
288
Q

What is the most common region of the brain affected in a focal seizure?

A

Temporal lobe

289
Q

What are the features of a temporal lobe seizure?

A

They affect hearing, speech, memory and emotions:
- Hallucinations
- Memory flashbacks
- Déjà vu
- Doing strange things on autopilot

Can also include audio symptoms such as buzzing, ringing and vertigo

290
Q

What are the features of a frontal lobe seizure?

A
  • Motor symptoms: pelvic thrusting, bicycling and tonic posturing
  • Bizarre behaviour
  • Vocalisations
  • Sexual automatisms
291
Q

What are the features of a parietal focal seizure?

A
  • Paraesthesia
  • Visual hallucinations
  • Visual illusions
    More subjective and difficult to diagnose than other areas
292
Q

What are the features of a Occipital focal seizure?

A
  • Visual hallucinations
  • Transient blindness
  • Rapid and forced blinking
  • Movement of head or eyes to the opposite side
293
Q

What can happen if a focal seizure spreads?

A

Focal to bilateral tonic-clonic: a focal seizure may spread to affect a wider network of neurons involving both hemispheres. Traditionally termed a secondary generalised seizure.

294
Q

What is the treatment for a focal seziure?

A

Opposite to generalised:
First line: Carbamazepine
Second line: sodium valproate

295
Q

What is required for a diagnosis of epilepsy?

A
  • Must have had 2 or more seizures more than 24 hours apart
  • MRI/CT: examine the hippocampus look for underlying cause
  • EEG: 3H2 wave absence
  • Bloods: rule out metabolic/infection
296
Q

How does sodium valproate work and what are the side effects of it?

A

It works by increasing the activity of GABA which has a relaxing effect on the brain:
- Teratogenic don’t give to females of child bearing age
- Liver damage
- Hair loss
- Tremor

297
Q

How does carbamazepine work and what are the die effects of it?

A
  • Carbamazepine
    • Sodium channel blocker; prevents repetitive and sustained firing of action potentials.
  • Agranulocytosis
  • Aplastic anaemia
  • Induces the P450 system so there are many drug interactions
298
Q

What is the medical emergency associated with epilepsy?

A

Status Epilepticus

299
Q

How do you treat status Status Epilepticus?

A

ABCDE

Give IV lorazepam 4mg and repeat 10 minuets after if it doesn’t work

If seizure persist then give IV phenobarbital or phenytoin

300
Q

What are the driving rules for a seizure?

A

Adults who present with anisolatedseizure:

  • Should stop driving for6 months, providingno cause is foundon brain imaging and there is no epileptiform activity on EEG

If the aboveconditions are not metor the patient has knownepilepsy:

  • Patients must be seizure-free for12 monthsbefore they may qualify for a driving license
  • If seizure-free for 5 years, a ‘til 70 licence is usually reinstated
301
Q

What is spinal cord compression SCC?

A

Results form processes that compress or displace arterial, venous and cerebrospinal fluid spaces as well as the cord itself.

302
Q

What is the main cause of SCC?

A

Metastatic cancer lesions

303
Q

Where are the metastasis most commonly from the cause SCC?

A
  • Breast
  • Lung
  • Prostate
  • Thyroid
  • Kidney
  • Myeloma
  • Lymphoma
304
Q

What area of the spine is most commonly affected by metastasis in SCC?

A
  • Thoracic 60%
  • Lumbar 30%
  • Cervical 10%
305
Q

What are some other causes of SCC?

A
  • Disc herniation
  • Disc prolapse
  • Primary spinal cord tumour
  • Infection
  • Haematoma
306
Q

What are the symptoms of SCC?

A
  • Back pain
  • Progressive weakness of legs with UMN signs
  • Sensory loss 1-2 cord segments below level of lesion
  • UMN signs below level of lesion
  • LWN signs at the level of the lesion
307
Q

What is a late sign of SCC?

A

Bladder and anal sphincter involvement: hesitancy, frequency and painless retention

308
Q

What are the nerve routes for the ankle Jerk reflex?

A

S1/S2

309
Q

What are the nerve routes for the Knee jerk reflex?

A

L3/L4

310
Q

What are the nerve routes for the Big toe reflex?

A

L5

311
Q

What would the features of a complete spinal cord compression be?

A

Loss of all motor and sensory function below the level

312
Q

What would be the features of an anterior spinal cord compression?

A

Disruption of the anterior spinal cord:

  • Loss of motor function below the level
  • Loss of pain and temperature sensation
  • Preservation of fine touch and proprioception
313
Q

What would be the features of a posterior spinal cord compression?

A

Disruption of posterior spinal cord or posterior spinal artery (rare)
- Loss of fine touch and proprioception (posterior column)
- Preservation of pain and temperature sensation (anterior column)

314
Q

What are the features of brown-sequard syndrome?

A

Hemi section of spinal cord:
- Ipsilateral paralysis
- Ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception
- Contralateral loss of pain and temperature

315
Q

What is the primary investigation if suspecting a Spinal cord compression?

A
  • MRI of spinal cord
  • Biopsy/surgical exploration
316
Q

What is the treatment for SCC?

A

Surgical decompression
- Laminectomy: removal of the lamina/spongy tissue between the discs to relieve pressure
- Microdiscectomy: removal of the herniated tissue from the disc

317
Q

What is the treatment for SCC?

A

Surgical decompression
- Laminectomy: removal of the lamina/spongy tissue between the discs to relieve pressure
- Microdiscectomy: removal of the herniated tissue from the disc

318
Q

What is sciatica?

A

L4/S3 lesion Sensory loss and pain in the back of the thigh and lateral aspect of little toe

319
Q

What nerves are branches of the sciatic nerve?

A

Common peroneal
Tibial

320
Q

What are the symptoms of sciatica?

A
  • Unilateral pain from the buttock radiating down the back of the thigh to below the knee or feet
  • Paraesthesia numbness and motor weakness
321
Q

What are the main causes of sciatica?

A
  • Herniated/prolapsed disc
  • Tumours
  • Spinal stenosis
  • Piriformis syndrome
322
Q

What is bilateral sciatica a red flag for?

A

Cauda equina syndrome

323
Q

What is the main treatment for sciatica?

A

Physiotherapy + Analgesia:
Amitriptyline
Duloxetine

324
Q

What is cauda equina syndrome?

A

It is a neurosurgical emergency which occurs when the bundle of nerves below the end of the spinal cord are compressed

325
Q

What are the causes of CES?

A
  • Lumbar disc herniation: the most common cause of CES
  • Trauma
  • Spinal tumour
  • Lumbar spinal stenosis: narrowing of the spinal cord may result in CES. This can be congenital or acquired e.g. spinal osteoarthritis (spondylosis), rheumatoid arthritis, and a slipped vertebra (spondylolisthesis)
  • Epidural abscess or haematoma
326
Q

What are the key presentations of CES?

A
  • Saddle anaesthesia (loss of sensation in the perineum) can you feel wiping after poo
  • Loss of sensation in bladder and rectum (not knowing when they’re full)
  • Urinary retention or incontinence
  • Faecal incontinence
327
Q

What are the investigations for CES?

A
  • Examinations: PR exam, knee and ankle reflexes
  • MRI spine is gold standard
  • Bladder ultrasound: to determine whether there us urinary retention
328
Q

What is the treatment for CES?

A

Emergency decompressive laminectomy: surgery should be performed within24-48 hoursof symptom onset.

The incidence of thromboemboli in patients with CES is remarkably high, therefore patients require adequate thromboprophylaxis

329
Q

What is the main differential of CES?

A

Conus medullaris

330
Q

What are the symptoms of a CN3 palsy?

A
  • Ptosis
  • Down and out eye
  • Fixed a dilated pupil
331
Q

What are the causes of a CN3 palsy?

A
  • Raised ICP
  • Diabetes
  • Hypertension
  • GCA
332
Q

What are the signs of a CN4 palsy?

A
  • Diplopia when looking down.

Compensation by tilting head away from the affected side

333
Q

What are the causes of CN4 palsy?

A
  • Trauma to the orbit
  • Diabetes
  • Infarction secondary to hypertension
334
Q

What are the signs of CN5 palsy?

A
  • Weakness of jaw (jaw deviates to weak side when mouth is open
  • Loss of corneal reflex
335
Q

What are the causes of sensory CN5 lesions?

A
  • Trigeminal neuralgia
  • HSV
  • Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
336
Q

What are the causes of motor CN5 lesion?

A
  • Bulbar palsy
  • Acoustic neuroma
337
Q

What are the causes of motor CN5 lesion?

A
  • Bulbar palsy
  • Acoustic neuroma
338
Q

What are the symptoms of CN6 palsy?

A

Adducted eye the inability to look laterally

339
Q

What are the causes of CN6 palsy?

A
  • Raised ICP
  • MS
  • Pontine stroke
340
Q

What are the signs of a CN7 palsy?

A
  • Unilateral facial weakness (motor)
  • Altered taste (sensory)
  • Dry mouth (parasympathetic)
341
Q

What are the causes of CN7 palsy?

A
  • Bell’s palsy
  • Fractures to pteroid bone
  • Parotid inflammation
  • Otitis media
342
Q

What is Bell’s palsy/

A

Neurological condition that presents with rapid onset of unilateral facial paralysis

343
Q

Why is the top half of the face sometimes spared in Bell’s palsy?

A

The lower half of the faces only has contralateral innervation

Top half has bilateral. forehead sparing

344
Q

How can you tell between an UMN and LMN Bell’s palsy?

A

UMN injured: means the contralateral side is weak but the forehead is not
LMN - weakness of all the muscles on the ipsilateral side of the face

345
Q

What are the symptoms of a CN8 palsy?

A
  • Hearing impairment
  • Vertigo
  • Loss of balance
346
Q

What are the causes of a CN8 palsy?

A
  • Skull fracture
  • Otitis media
  • Tumours
  • Compression
347
Q

What are the signs of a CN9 and CN10 lesion?

A
  • Gag reflex issues
  • Swallowing issues
  • Vocal issues- hoarse voice
348
Q

What are the causes of a CN9/CN10 lesion?

A

Jugular foramen lesion

349
Q

What are the signs of a CN11 palsy?

A

Can’t shrug shoulders/turn head against resistance

350
Q

What are the symptoms of a CN12 palsy?

A

Tongue deviation towards the side of the lesion

351
Q

What is motor neurone disease?

A

Motor neurone disease is an umbrella term that encompasses a variety of specific diagnoses. They are neurodegenerative diseases that affect both upper and lower motor neurones but sensory neurons are spared

352
Q

What is the most common cause of MND?

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) accounts for 50% of cases

353
Q

What are some other causes of MND?

A
  • Progressive muscular atrophy: LMN only
  • Primary lateral sclerosis: UMN only
  • Progressive bulbar palsy: affects muscles of talking and swallowing (second most common) LMN only
354
Q

What gene is implicated in some cases of ALS?

A

SOD1

355
Q

What are the risk factors for MND?

A
  • Increasing age (over 60)
  • Male
  • Pesticides
  • Heavy metals
  • Rugby (unlucky louis)
356
Q

What are the general symptoms of MND?

A
  • Progressive weakness of the muscles throughout the body affecting the limbs, trunk, face and speech.
  • The weakness is often first noticed in the upper limbs. There may be increased fatigue when exercising.
  • They may complain of clumsiness, dropping things more often or tripping over. They can develop slurred speech (dysarthria).
357
Q

What are the signs of LWN disease?

A
  • Muscle wasting
  • Reduced tone
  • Reduced reflex
  • Fasciculations
  • Loss of power
  • Babinski reflex negative
358
Q

What are the signs of a UMN lesion?

A
  • Increased tone
  • Brisk reflexes
  • Rigidity + spasticity
  • Babinski reflex positive
359
Q

What is never affected in MND?

A
  • Eye muscles
  • Sensory function and sphincters
360
Q

What are the symptoms of MND?

A
  • Progressive weakness
  • Fatigue
  • Falls
  • Speech and swallow issues
361
Q

What are the investigations for MND?

A

MND is a clinical diagnosis

  • Electromyography: in MND there will be evidence of fibrillation potentials
    • Nerve conduction studies:may show modest reductions in amplitude
  • MRI spine:imaging can help exclude spinal pathology which may mimic MND, such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy
362
Q

What are some differentials for MND?

A
  • MS
  • Polyneuropathies
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • GBS
363
Q

What is the management for MND?

A
  • Riluzole prolongs survival by 2-4 months by protecting motor neuron damage form glutamate
  • Respiratory support:patients with reduced FVC can use non-invasive ventilation at home, usually BiPAP; prolongs survival by 7 months
  • Supportive treatment:
    • Antispasmodics: such as baclofen
364
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

A chronic autoimmune disorder of the postsynaptic membrane at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle

365
Q

When does Myasthenia Gravis affect men and women?

A
  • Symptoms peak in women in 20/30s
  • Symptoms peak in men 50/60s
366
Q

What are the risk factors for developing Myasthenia Gravis?

A
  • Female 2x as common
  • Autoimmune: linked to rheumatoid and SLE
    -Thymoma or thymic hyperplasia: 10-15% have a thymoma and 70% have thymic hyperplasia
367
Q

Describe the normal physiology of a neuromuscular junction

A
  • Axons of motor nerves are situated across a synapse from from the post-synaptic membrane on the muscle cell
  • The axons release a neurotransmitter from the pre-synaptic membrane. This neurotransmitter is acetylcholine.
  • ACh travels across the synapse and attaches to nicotinic receptors on the post-synaptic membrane stimulating muscle contraction
368
Q

What antibody is the main cause of Myasthenia Gravis?

A
369
Q

What is the main cause of disease in Myasthenia Gravis?

A
  • In around 85% of patients there are acetylcholine receptor antibodies present
  • These bind to the receptors on the post-synaptic membrane and prevent ACh from binding and causing muscle contraction
  • The problem is worsened during exercise as more of the receptors become blocked up. So the more the muscles are used the weaker they get. Gets better with rest

These antibodies also activate the complement system which damages cells further making the problem worse

370
Q

What are the two other antibodies that can cause MG and how do they do it?

A
  • Muscle specific kinase (MuSK)
  • low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4 (LRP4).

They are both proteins that are important for making the acetylcholine receptor. These antibodies lead to inadequate acetylcholine receptors causing MG

371
Q

What are the signs of MG?

A
  • Proximal muscle weakness: often affecting the face and neck
  • Ptosis (drooping eyelid)
  • Complex ophthalmoplegia: cannot be isolated to one cranial nerve
  • Head drop: a rare sign due to weakness of cervical extensor muscles
  • Myasthenic snarl: a ‘snarling’ expression when attempting to smile
372
Q

What are the symptoms of MG?

A
  • Muscle weakness that gets worse throughout the day
  • Diplopia: double vision
  • Slurred speech
  • Fatigue in jaw while chewing
373
Q

What is are the investigations for MG?

A

Look for presence of autoantibodies:
- Acetylcholine receptor (ACh-R) antibodies (85% of patients)
- Muscle-specific kinase (MuSK) antibodies (10% of patients)
- LRP4 (low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4) antibodies (less than 5%)

CT/MRI of thymus gland to look for thymoma

374
Q

What is another test that can be performed if unsure about MG?

A

Edrophonium test: patients given IV Edrophonium chloride (neostigmine). Will prevent breakdown of ACh by cholinesterase enzymes and improve symptoms temporarily

375
Q

What are the treatments for MG?

A

First-line: Reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (neostigmine/pyridostigmine)

Second-line: Immunosuppressants: prednisolone/azathioprine

Consider monoclonal antibodies (rituximab)

Thymectomy can also improve symptoms.

376
Q

What is the main complication of MG?

A
  • Myasthenic crisis often triggered by another illness such as respiratory tract infection . Causes an acute worsening of symptoms and can lead to respiratory failure
377
Q

What is the treatment for a Myasthenic crisis?

A
  • Patients may require non-invasive ventilation with BiPAP or full intubation and ventilation.

Medical treatment of myasthenic crisis is with immunomodulatory therapies such as IV immunoglobulins and plasma exchange.

378
Q

What is the main differential for MG?

A

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

379
Q

What drugs should be avoided in MG?

A
380
Q

What is Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome has a similar set of features to myasthenia gravis. It causes progressive muscle weakness with increased use as a result of damage to the neuromuscular junction. The symptoms tend to be more insidious and less pronounced than in myasthenia gravis.

381
Q

What causes Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A
  • Typically occurs in patients with SCLC. It is a result of antibodies produced by the immune system against voltage gated calcium channels in SCLC but this also targets the pre-synaptic terminal
  • These channels are responsible for assisting the release of ACh at the synapse
382
Q

What is the presentation of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A
  • Proximal muscle weakness that develops more slowly
  • All other same symptoms really e.g., double vision ptosis, jaw tiredness, slurred speech
383
Q

What is the difference clinically between Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome and MG?

A

Lambert Eaton Syndrome symptoms tend to improve following a period of strong muscle contraction.

Post Tetanic Potentiation

384
Q

What is the treatment for Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A
  • Amifampridine allows more ACh to be released in the neuromuscular junction synapses by blocking voltage gated potassium channels
385
Q

What are some other treatments for Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A
  • Immunosuppressants (e.g. prednisolone or azathioprine)
  • IV immunoglobulins
  • Plasmapheresis
386
Q

What is syncope?

A

A term used to describe the event of temporarily losing consciousness due to disruption in blood flow.

Known as vasovagal episodes

387
Q

What are the causes of primary syncope?

A
  • Dehydration
  • Missed meals
  • Extended standing in warm environment
  • Vasovagal response to stiumli
388
Q

What are the causes of secondary syncope?

A
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Anaemia
  • Hypovolaemia e.g. due to haemorrhage, GI bleeding, ruptured aortic aneurysm
  • Infection
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Arrhythmias
  • Valvular heart disease
  • Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
  • Pulmonary embolism: causing hypoxia
389
Q

What are some risk factors for syncope?

A
  • Elderly
  • Pregnant women
  • Certain medications such as - that block vasoconstriction e.g. calcium channel blockers, beta blockers, alpha blockers, and nitrates
  • Affect the volume status e.g. diuretics
  • That prolong the QT interval e.g. antipsychotics and antiemetics
390
Q

What is a vasovagal episode (neurocardiogenic) syncope?

A
  • Caused by problems with the autonomic nervous system regulating blood flow to the brain
  • When the vagus nerve receives strong stimulus it causes an increase in parasympathetic activation which causes vasodilation and reduction in BP and blood flow to brain leading to the loss of consciousness
391
Q

What is Carotid sinus hypersensitivity?

A

This occurs when mild external pressure on the carotid bodies in the neck is enough to induce this reflex response (vagal stimulation). Mild pressure could be due to shaving, neck turning, tight collar etc

392
Q

What is s orthostatic hypotension syncope?

A
  • A drop of blood pressure of more than 20mmHg or a reflex tachycardia of more than 20 beats. When a person goes from lying down to standing
  • It occurs when there’s a delay in constriction of the lower body veins, which is needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure when changing position to standing.

As a result, blood pools in the veins of the legs for longer and less is returned to the heart, leading to a reduced cardiac output.

393
Q

What are the prodrome symptoms for syncope?

A
  • Hot or clammy
  • Sweaty
  • Heavy
  • Dizzy or lightheaded
  • Vision going blurry or dark
  • Headache
394
Q

What is loss of consciousness defined as?

A
  • Suddenly losing consciousness and falling to the ground
  • Unconscious on the ground for a few seconds to a minute as blood returns to their brain
  • Twitching, shaking or convulsion activity, which can be confused with a seizure
395
Q

What are the primary investigations for syncope?

A

Clinical Hx and examination

Ix to rule out pathological causes:
Bloods - infection
FBC - anaemia
ECG- arrythmia
Glucose - Hypoglycaemia
B-hCG - ectopic pregnancy

396
Q

What is a mononeuropathy?

A

A process of nerve damage that affects a single nerve

397
Q

What is polyneuropathy?

A

Disorders of peripheral or cranial nerves whose distribution is usually symmetrical and widespread

398
Q

What is mononeuritis multiplex?

A

A type of peripheral neuropathy where there is damage to several individual nerves due to systemic causes

399
Q

What are the causes of mononeuritis multiplex?

A

WARDS PLC
- Wegner’s granulomatosis
- AIDS
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Diabetes
- Sarcoidosis
- Polyarteritis nodosa
- Leprosy
- Carcinoma

400
Q

What is peripheral neuropathy?

A

Nerve pathology outside of the CNS that affects the peripheral nerves

401
Q

What are the mechanisms that cause peripheral neuropathy?

A
  • Demyelination
  • Axonal damage
  • Nerve compression
402
Q

What can cause peripheral neuropahty?

A

ABCDE

  • A- Alcohol
  • B- B12 deficiency
  • C- Cancer and CKD
  • D- Diabetes and drugs
  • E- Every vasculitis
403
Q

What drugs can cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

amiodarone
isoniazid
vincristine
nitrofurantoin
metronidazole

404
Q

What are the main symptoms of peripheral neuropathy?

A

numbness and tingling in the feet or hands

burning, stabbing or shooting pain in affected areas

loss of balance and co-ordination

muscle weakness, especially in the fee

405
Q

What is carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Compression of the median nerve as it travels through the carap tunnel in the wrist

406
Q

What two things can cause carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Swelling of the contents e.g. swelling of tendons putting pressure on nerve
  • Narrowing of the tunnel
407
Q

Who is more commonly affected by carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Females due to narrower wrists so more likely to have compression

Over 30s

408
Q

Where does the median nerve provide sensory innervation for in the hand?

A

The palmar aspects and full fingertips of the:
- Thumb
- Index and middle finger
- The lateral half of the ring finger

Note that the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve provides sensation to the palm. However, this branch originates before the carpal tunnel and does not travel through the carpal tunnel. Therefore, it is not affected by carpal tunnel syndrome.

409
Q

Where does the median nerve provide motor function for in the hand?

A

The three thenar muscles which make up the muscular budge at the base of the thumb:
- Abductor pollicis brevis (thumb abduction)
- Opponens pollicis
- Flexor pollicis brevis (thumb flexion)

The other muscle that controls thumb movement is the adductor pollicis (thumb adduction). However, this is innervated by the ulnar nerve.

410
Q

What are the causes of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Most cases are idiopathic but can be caused by:
- Repetitive strain
- Obesity
- Perimenopause
- RA
- Diabetes
- Acromegaly
- Hypothyroidism

If it is bilateral then think underlying cause

411
Q

What are the sensory symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Numbness
  • Paraesthesia (pins and needles or tingling)
  • Burning sensation
  • Pain worse at night wakes from sleep

This occurs in areas innervated so most of the palmar aspects of everything but little finger. Patients may shake hand to relieve pain

412
Q

What are the motor symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Weakness of thumb movements
  • Weakness of grip strength
  • Difficulty with fine movements involving the thumb
  • Weakness of the thenar muscles
413
Q

What are the two tests for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Phalen’s test
  • Tinel’s test
  • Durkan’s test
414
Q

What is Phalen’s test?

A
  • Involves fully flexing the wrist and holding it in this position. Often this is done by asking the patient to put the backs of their hands together in front of them with the wrists bent inwards at 90 degrees.
  • The test is positive when this position triggers the sensory symptoms of carpal tunnel, with numbness and paraesthesia in the median nerve distribution.
415
Q

What is Tinel’s test?

A
  • Involves tapping the wrist at the location where the median nerve travels through the carpal tunnel. This is in the middle, at the point where the wrist meets the hand.
  • The test is positive when this position triggers the sensory symptoms of carpal tunnel, with numbness and paraesthesia in the median nerve distribution.
416
Q

What is the management for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Rest and altered activities
  • Wrist splints that maintain a neutral position of the wrist can be worn at night (for a minimum of 4 weeks)
  • Steroid injections
  • Surgery (last resort)
417
Q

Who is more commonly affected by carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Females due to narrower wrists so more likely to have compression

Over 30s

418
Q

What are the nerve roots of the radial nerve?

A

C5-T1

419
Q

What is the classical presentation of a radial nerve palsy?

A

Wrist drop

420
Q

What can cause wrist drop?

A

Damage to the radial nerve e.g. mid shaft fracture of humerus or compression of radial nerve at humerus

421
Q

What is the classical presentation of an ulnar nerve palsy?

A

Claw hand (4th/5th fingers claw up)

422
Q

What is the sign of a Sciatic/Common peroneal nerve Palsy?

A

Foot drop

423
Q

What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

A

A group of diseases that affect the peripheral motor and sensory nerves

424
Q

What are the most common forms of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

A

CMT1 and CMT2

425
Q

What inheritance pattern are CMT1 and CMT2?

A

Autosomal dominant

426
Q

What causes CMT1?

A
  • Caused by mutations in the PMP22 and MPZ genes which encode proteins that are part of the myelin sheath made by Schwan cells.
  • Loss of myelin slows down the transmission of nerve impulses. Over time Schwann cells try and replace myelin.
  • As a result, under a microscope, there’s often onion bulb formation - the axon is surrounded by layers of new myelin with underlying damaged layers of myelin.
427
Q

What causes CMT2?

A
  • Caused by mutations in MFN2 gene which encodes for a protein in neuronal mitochondria.
  • When the protein is defective mitochondrial function is disrupted leading to neuronal death
428
Q

What are the affects of CMT1 and CMT2?

A
  • When motor neurones are affected muscles begin to atrophy.
  • When sensory neurones are affected it first affects the feet and toes as those are the longest axons and most sensitive to damage
429
Q

What are the signs of CMT1 and CMT2?

A
  • Pes cavus: high foot arches
  • Hammer toes
  • Distal muscle wasting
  • Hand and arm muscle wasting
  • Thickened palpable nerves
430
Q

What are the symptoms of CMT?

A
  • Weakness in the lower legs, particularly loss ofankle dorsiflexion
    • Foot drop
    • High-stepped gait
  • Weakness in the hands
  • Reduced tendon reflexes
  • Reduced muscle tone
  • Peripheral sensory loss
  • Tingling and burning sensations in the hands and feet
  • May be neuropathic pain
431
Q

What are the investigations for CMT?

A
  • Nerve conduction studies: measures ability of nerves to conduct impulses
  • Neurologists and geneticists make the diagnosis by looking for mutations
432
Q

What is Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?

A

A genetic condition that cause gradual weakening and wasting of muscles.

433
Q

What is another type of muscular dystrophy?

A

Becker’s

434
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive

435
Q

What causes Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?

A
  • There is a mutation which codes for the dystrophin protein which is used to stabilise the muscle fibres. Without it the sarcolemma wilts and becomes unstable.
  • Overtime cellular proteins e.g. creatinine kinase starts escaping the damaged cell and calcium starts to enter the cell leading to its death
  • In the short term there is muscle regeneration resulting in muscle fibres of different sizes but in the long term the muscles atrophy and are infiltrated by fat and fibrotic tissue making them really weak
436
Q

What will a muscle biopsy in Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy show?

A
  • Biopsy of the tissue show changes in the muscle itself but not in the nerves which is used to distinguish it between neuropathies
437
Q

What are the symptoms of Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?

A

Symptoms usually present at around 3-5:
- Weakness is muscles around pelvis
- Walking late
- Waddling gait
- Enlarged calves

438
Q

What is Gower’s sign?

A

Children with proximal muscle weakness use a specific technique to stand up from a lying position. This is called Gower’s sign.

To stand up, they get onto their hands and knees, then push their hips up and backwards like the “downward dog” yoga pose. They then shift their weight backwards and transfer their hands to their knees. Whilst keeping their legs mostly straight they walk their hands up their legs to get their upper body erect. This is because the muscles around the pelvis are not strong enough to get their upper body erect without the help of their arms.

439
Q

What are the investigation for DMD?

A
  • High creatinine kinase level
  • Genetic testing looking for dystrophin mutations (can be diagnostic)
  • Muscle biopsy
  • Electromyogram: distinguish between neuropathic and myopathic pathology
440
Q

What are the treatments for DMD?

A
  • Occupational therapy
  • Oral steroids have been shown to slow the progression of muscle weakness
  • Creatine supplementation can give an improvement in muscle strength
441
Q

What are the complications of DMD?

A
  • Respiratory failure because of a weak diaphragm
  • Scoliosis
  • Dilated cardiomyopathy and arrhythmias: dystrophin protein is also expressed in heart muscle.
442
Q

What is the life expectancy for DMD?

A

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy: patients have a life expectancy of around 25 – 35 years with good management of the cardiac and respiratory complications.

Becker’s muscular dystrophy has a better prognosis

443
Q

What are the different types of brain tumour?

A
  • Gliomas
  • Meningiomas
  • Pituitary
  • Hemangioblastoma
  • Acoustic neuroma

Accounts for less than 2% of all malignant tumours but 20% of childhood cases

444
Q

What are glioblastomas?

A
  • They are tumours in the brain or spinal cord there are 3 types
445
Q

What are the 3 types of glioblastoma?

A
  • Astrocytoma
    • Glioblastoma multiformeis the most common
  • Oligodendroglioma
  • Ependymoma
446
Q

What is an astrocytoma?

A
  • Glioblastoma multiformeis the most common
    • Most commonly found in cerebral hemisphere
    • Histologically has pseudo-palisading pattern - peripheral tumour cells lined up around necrotic centre
    • Grade IV (most malignant)
447
Q

What is an Oligodendroglioma?

A
  • Most common in 40s-50s
  • Adult oligodendrogliomas typically form in the frontal lobes
  • Categorised as grade II or III, slow-growing tumours,
  • Histologically, prominent features can vary from fairly small, round nuclei, surrounded by well-defined “halos” or thick white borders of cytoplasm giving them a “fried egg” appearabce
448
Q

What is an Ependymoma?

A

Arise from ependymal cells (form the epithelial lining of the ventricles in the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord)

449
Q

What is a Meningioma?

A
  • They grow from cells found in the arachnoid mater of the meninges
  • They are usually benign and this can lead to raised intercranial pressure and lead to the neurological symptoms

These tumours may also cause the formation of calcifications called psammoma bodies.

450
Q

What are the symptoms of brain tumours?

A

They are initially asymptomatic .
- As they develop they present with focal neurological symptoms.
- Will show signs of raised ICP

451
Q

What are the focal symptoms of a frontal lobe tumour?

A
  • Hemiparesis
  • personality change,
  • Broca’s dysphasia,
  • lack of initiative,
  • unable to plan tasks
452
Q

What are the focal symptoms of a temporal lobe tumour?

A
  • Dysphagia
  • Amnesia
453
Q

What are the focal symptoms of a parietal lobe tumour?

A
  • Hemisensory loss
  • Dysphasia
  • reduction in 2-point discrimination
  • astereognosis (unable to recognise object from touch alone
454
Q

What are the focal symptoms of a cerebellum tumour?

A

DASHING -
- Dysdiadochokinesis (impaired rapidly alternating movement),
- Ataxia,
- Slurred speech (dysarthria),
- Hypotonia,
- Intention tremor,
- Nystagmus,
- Gait abnormality

455
Q

What are the symptoms of raised ICP?

A
  • Headache
  • Vomiting
  • Visual field defect
  • Seizures
  • Papilloedema (on fundoscopy)
  • cushings reflex
456
Q

What are the investigations for a brain tumour?

A
  • CT/ MRI
  • Blood tests e.g. FBC, U&Es, LFT’s, B12
  • Tissue biopsy: to determine cancer grade and guide management
457
Q

What is used to grade brain tumours?

A

Severity is classified by the World Health Organisation’s (WHO) scale

The scale goes from I to IV based on the morphologic and functional features of the tumour cells; a grade IV tumour being the most abnormal looking cells that also tend to be the most aggressive.

458
Q

How common are secondary brain tumours?

A
  • Brain metastasis affects up to 40% of patients with cancer
  • 10 times more common than primary brain tumours
459
Q

What are the most common metastases of secondary brain tumours?

A
  • Ling
  • Breast
  • Melanoma
  • Renal cell
  • GI
460
Q

What is used to treat a benign essential tremor?

A