Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Carries a risk of permanent visual loss in 20-50% if untreated. Associated s/sx include polymyalgia rheumatica, headache (in 40% to 90%), weight loss (16% to 76%), scalp tenderness (28% to 91%), anorexia (14% to 69%), fever, leg claudication (2% to 43%), and jaw claudication (4% to 67%)

A

Giant Cell Arteritis

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2
Q

Headaches associated with ___ may be unilateral or bilateral and are often temporal; Seldom throbbing and more often dull or boring with superimposed episodic icepick-like, lancinating pain. The headaches are often worse at night and often aggravated by exposure to cold. Scalp tenderness is often present

A

Giant Cell Arteritis

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3
Q

Hemisection of the spinal cord, most often produced by an extra medullary lesion, results in ___ which consists of s/sx: loss of pain and temperature sensation contralateral to the hemisection, ipsilateral loss of proprioceptive, ipsilateral spastic weakness, and segmental lower motor neuron and sensory signs

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

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4
Q

____ most likely presents with variable quadriparesis with the upper extremities more severely involved than the lower extremities, and with some degree of sensory sparing

A

Central Cord Syndrome

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5
Q

Compression of the third nerve by ___ characteristically causes dilatation and unresponsiveness of the pupil. Oculomotor paresis may be incomplete with at least one element of nerve dysfunction (i.e., ptosis, mydriasis, or extraocular muscle weakness) absent

A

Aneurysm

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6
Q

___ is characterized by macular degeneration with visual hallucinations

A

Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

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7
Q

Indicated for the tx of Crohn’s and MS; There is an increased risk of the development of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (due to JC virus infection) with its use

A

Natalizumab

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8
Q

A 20 y/o man p/w acute onset of HA, and pain surrounding his left eye; also w/ nasal stuffiness, rhinorrhea, and redness of the sclera of the left eye. He has about 1-2 headaches per day. In addition to sumatriptan and steroids, what is effective in acute tx?

A

High-flow oxygen treatment (Cluster headache)

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9
Q

The 3 classes of medications that are most effective for migraine prevention are ___

A

antiepileptics, antidepressants, and antihypertensives

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10
Q

___ result in an inability to depress either eye fully in adduction; a positive Bielschowsky test on tilt to either shoulder

A

Bilateral fourth nerve palsies

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11
Q

___ results in weakness and atrophy of the quadriceps and sensory loss of the anteromedial thigh

A

Femoral neuropathy

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12
Q

___ typically involves variable motor loss in the lower extremities with loss of bowel and bladder function

A

Conus medullaris syndrome

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13
Q

Patients with ___ develop unilateral or bilateral asymmetric buttock, thigh, or leg pain, and occasionally neurologic signs (e.g., numbness, loss of reflexes, or paresis) after exertion

A

Lumbar stenosis

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14
Q

___ p/w inability to walk, gaze palsy without hemiplegia, and absence of unilateral limb paresis

A

cerebellar infarct or hemorrhage

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15
Q

In acute ischemic stroke, aspirin, if not contraindicated, should be given within ___

A

first 48 hours

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16
Q

In acute ischemic stroke, IV rt-PA should be given within ___

A

first 3 hours

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17
Q

Drunk person, compressing the ___; p/w severe wrist drop with marked paresis of elbow and wrist extension, supination of the forearm, extension of all 5 metacarpophalangeal joints, and extension and abduction of the thumb + sensory loss over the entire extensor

A

radial nerve

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18
Q

Severe unilateral head or eye pain lasting minutes and associated with autonomic manifestations with frequent attacks per day, more likely in women

A

Paroxysmal hemicrania

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19
Q

Most characteristic visual aura of migraine is a ___ (occurring in about 64% of cases), beginning as a hazy spot from the center of a visual hemifield followed by shimmering light of different patterns expanding peripherally

A

Scintillating scotoma

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20
Q

Pain due to nociceptor dysfunction that persists after the rash subsides in a region affected by herpes zoster (HZ) virus reactivation (i.e., shingles).

A

Postherpetic neuralgia

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21
Q

A 42 y/o man initially complained of tingling of the feet and fingers. Over the next 1-2 weeks –> progressive symmetrical weakness of the legs and then the arms, both proximally and distally, accompanied by pain in the low back and legs. Reflexes were diffusely absent and toe signs are flexor. What is dx and tx?

A

GBS; tx/ IV immunoglobulin or plasma exchange

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22
Q

SOD-1 protein is abnormally deposited in ___

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

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23
Q

Degeneration of the large anterior horn cells of the spinal cord is seen in ___

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

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24
Q

The pattern of subacute, progressive proximal and symmetric limb muscle weakness, without involvement of the cranial nerves and preservation of sensation and reflexes, should raise the possibility of ___. The diagnosis is supported by an increase in the serum level of creatine kinase and EMG findings for an inflammatory myopathy

A

Polymyositis

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25
Q

Polymyositis dx is confirmed by ___; Tx is ___

A

Muscle biopsy; tx w/ high dose PO corticosteroids

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26
Q

CSF in viral meningitis is often characterized by ___

A

elevated protein levels, clear CSF, normal glucose, normal opening pressure

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27
Q

Laboratory CSF findings suggestive of bacterial meningitis are ___

A

high WBC count (especially neutrophils), high protein level, low glucose level.

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28
Q

A 75 y/o man presents with recent right fronto-temporal headaches and sudden, persistent loss of vision in his R eye. Exam shows severe visual impairment in all 4 quadrants and relative afferent pupillary defect of the right eye. Fundoscopy of the right eye shows that the optic disc is not swollen or pale, however the retina appears white and there is a cherry-red spot. What is dx?

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

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29
Q

Which one of the following antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) can cause aplastic anemia and liver failure, and is therefore a last resort medication?

A

Felbamate

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30
Q

A 75-year-old man states that when he is exposed to bright light, his right eye will go blind for several minutes. Monocular transient visual loss (TVL) lasting 5 to 60 minutes (usually up to 30 minutes) is strongly suggestive of ___

A

Carotid occlusive disease

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31
Q

Pt p/w mild weakness and decreased sensation in all extremities. The neurological examination demonstrates decreased proprioception and vibration sensation, hyperreflexia, and mild weakness, but normal tone, in all extremities. Dx?

A

subacute combined degeneration, which is demyelination of the dorsal and lateral spinal cord

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32
Q

The FDA also has approved ___ for the treatment of relapsing-remitting MS

A

a synthetic form of myelin basic protein, called glatiramer acetate

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33
Q

A 42-year-old woman presents with acute onset of headache, vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. Neurologic exam reveals left-beating nystagmus, left Horner syndrome, absent left gag reflex, left arm ataxia, and anesthesia to pinprick in the left face and right upper extremity.

A

vertebral artery dissection

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34
Q

The subacute onset of ataxia in a woman with normal MRI findings should strongly suggest a ___

A

paraneoplastic disorder

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35
Q

___ occur especially with ovarian, fallopian tube, endometrial, surface capillary, and breast carcinomas, and occasionally with lymphoma. They cause paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration with a subacute ataxia that may be associated with downbeat nystagmus.

A

Anti-Purkinje cell antibodies (anti-Yo antibodies)

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36
Q

Most common cause of bitemporal hemianopsia

A

pituitary tumor

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37
Q

Right-side homonous hemianopsia is due to damage to ___

A

left optic tract

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38
Q

Damage to ___ leads to dilated pupil, lid ptosis, and eye stays lateral (abducted)

A

3rd cranial nerve

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39
Q

Damage to ___ leads to contralateral lower face paralysis

A

upper motor neurons of CN 7

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40
Q

Damage to ___ leads to ipsilateral upper and lower face paralysis

A

lower motor neurons of CN 7

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41
Q

___ is one of the most common etiologies of episodic vertigo and is brought on by head movements or changes in posture and often associated with nausea and nystagmus. It is due to abnormal stimulation of the semicircular canals by otoliths from the utricle. Diagnosis may be aided by provoking nystagmus and vertigo with ___

A

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV); the Dix-Hallpike maneuver

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42
Q

___ may also result in episodic vertigo, but is typically associated with tinnitus, sensation of ear fullness, and low-frequency hearing loss.

A

Meniere’s disease

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43
Q

Episodes of transient visual loss (TVL) lasting less than 60 seconds in an older patient is concerning for ___

A

amarousis fugax (embolus from cardiac source)

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44
Q

Paroxysmal hemicranias (a subtype of trigeminal-autonomic cephalgias), hemicrania continua, valsalva-induced headaches, and primary stabbing headache are responsive to ___

A

Indomethacin

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45
Q

___ is a degenerative neurologic disorder characterized by a combination of cognitive, behavioral, balance, and visual symptoms. Among the most common signs are difficulty in the voluntary movement of the eyes in the vertical plane and impairment in voluntary eye saccades. Both difficulties with eye movement and balance are thought to contribute to sudden falls

A

progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP)

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46
Q

___ is due to destruction of the acetylcholine receptors at neuro-muscular junctions

A

myasthenia gravis

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47
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) is caused by the opportunitistic and ubiquitous ___ in immunodeficient individuals (e.g., those with HIV/AIDs) and involves destruction of ___, which create myelin in the central nervous system, leading to progressive demyelination of subcortical white matter.

A

JC virus (Polyomavirus JC);

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48
Q

Which one of the following frontal lobe areas would most likely be involved with a seizure semiology of swallowing, salivation, mastication, epigastric aura, and speech arrest often associated with clonic facial movements?

A

Operculum

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49
Q

Which one of the following findings of brainstem auditory evoked potentials (BAEPs) is consistent with a peripheral hearing disorder?

A

Absent wave 1 with normal 3 and 5

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50
Q

Clinical characteristics include: patients are usually middle aged men; proximal weakness of limbs, especially in the legs, which may improve with exercise; absent or decreased tendon reflexes; cranial nerve tends to be spared (vs. myasthenia gravis), except mild ptosis; often autonomic impairment-impotence, urinary dysfunction, dry mouth, orthostasis; repetitive stimulation study reveals a decremental response at low rates of nerve stimulation and an incremental response at high rates; often associated with small cell lung cancer

A

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

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51
Q

___ should be considered for people with tremor where essential tremor cannot be clinically differentiated from Parkinsonism.

A

Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)

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52
Q

___ occurs in children and is defined by the following triad: multiple seizure types (usually including generalized tonic-clonic, atonic, and atypical absence seizures); EEG showing slow (3 Hz) spike-and-wave discharges. impaired cognitive function in most but not all cases This syndrome is associated with CNS disease or dysfunction from a variety of causes, including developmental abnormalities, perinatal hypoxia/ischemia, trauma, infection, and other acquired lesions.

A

Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome

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53
Q

___ is a disorder of copper transport that is characterized by inadequate biliary copper excretion. This inadequacy leads to accumulation of copper in liver, brain, kidneys, and corneas. Neurologic presentation includes movement disorders such as tremors and ataxia, and spastic dystonia such as masklike face, rigidity, gait disturbance, dysarthria, drooling, and dysphasia.

A

Wilson’s disease

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54
Q

A 52-year-old woman has a 3- to 4-week history of progressive, asymmetrical, mainly distal more than proximal sensory loss and weakness of the legs, with pain in the back, buttocks, and thighs. The knee reflexes are absent and the ankle reflexes are reduced, with flexor toe signs. Dx?

A

Inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathy

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55
Q

Spinal cord neoplasms frequently affect the ___, leading to areflexia and extensor plantar responses

A

Pyramidal tract

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56
Q

“Pseudobulbar or suprabulbar palsy that occur due to interruption of the ___ as they descend through the corona radiata and internal capsule, and present with deficits in cranial nerve function and, additionally, can present with ““emotional incontinence.”””

A

corticobulbar tracts

Corticobulbar tract carries upper motor neuron input to motor nuclei of trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory, and hypoglossal nerves. The motor component of trigeminal nerves supplies muscles of mastication. The facial nerve supplies the muscles of facial expression.

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57
Q

___: clinical characteristics of this entity: usually middle aged men; proximal weakness of limbs, especially in the legs which may improve with exercise; reduced or absent reflexes; cranial nerve tend to be spared (vs. myasthenia gravis) except mild ptosis; often autonomic impairment-impotence, urinary dysfunction, dry mouth, orthostasis; repetitive stimulation study reveals a decremental response at low rates of nerve stimulation and an incremental response at high rates; often associated with ___

A

Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome; associated w/ small cell lung cancer

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58
Q

Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy syndrome (MTLE) is the most common epilepsy syndrome associated with ___. High-resolution MRI characteristically reveals ___ that appears essential in the pathophysiology of MTLE for many patients.

A

Complex partial seizures; hippocampal sclerosis

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59
Q

___ was the first drug approved in the US for ALS since it modestly protracted ALS progression. In 2017, ___, the second-drug for ALS treatment, was approved by the US FDA.

A

Riluzole; Edaravone

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60
Q

Bilateral lesions of the ___ cause Klüver-Bucy syndrome leading to hypersexuality, hyperorality (fixation on oral exploration), and disinhibited behavior, but primitive reflexes will be absent.

A

amygdala

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61
Q

Lacunar infarct of subthalamic nucleus leads to ___

A

hemiballismus

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62
Q

___ is also very short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor that is used for diagnosing myasthenia gravis

A

Edrophonium

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63
Q

___ is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that does not cross the blood-brain barrier and is used largely for treating myasthenia gravis.

A

Pyridostigmine

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64
Q

__ is the test of choice to examine ___ to diagnose Huntington’s disease. The HD gene resides on the short arm of ___

A

PCR; trinucleotide repeats (CAG); Chromosome 4 at 4p16.3

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65
Q

Huntington’s disease is transmitted by ___ pattern. If one parent is an affected carrier, the likelihood of transmission to any given child is ___

A

autosomal dominant inheritance; 50%

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66
Q

The clinical hallmark of Guillain-Barre is ___. Test of choice are ___

A

loss of deep tendon reflexes in the extremities; EMG and nerve conduction studies

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67
Q

___ presents with classic tetrad of acalculia, agraphia (without alexia), R and L confusion, and finger agnosia (inability to name fingers). Lesion localizes to ___

A

Gerstmann’s syndrome; left angular gyrus (in left parietal lobe)

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68
Q

___ is when a patient gets up from the floor/chair by using hands bc of muscle weakness in the legs. It is a classive indicator of ___

A

Gower’s maneuver; Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

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69
Q

Tx for trigeminal neuralgia (lancinating, brief sharp pain, usually unilateral)

A

Carbamazepine (Tegretol) or Oxycarbazepine (Trileptal)

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70
Q

About 25% pts with temporal arteritis also have comorbid ___

A

polymalgia rheumatica

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71
Q

Patient with ___ p/w with progressive proximal muscle weakness, generalized fatigue, and red nonpruritic rash on the face and body, esp on the knees and elbows

A

Dermatomyositis

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72
Q

Intoxicated man p/w limp right wrist and fingers (cannot lift them) and weakness when trying to extend arm from a bent to straight position. He has trouble turning his forearm over when placed palm down on a flat surface. The lesion is most like to the ___

A

Radial nerve due to entrapment from prolonged compression of axilla

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73
Q

Compression of ___ leads to weakness of flexor carpi ulnaris, intrinsic hande muscles, and 4th/5th finger deep flexor weakness

A

Ulnar nerve

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74
Q

Compresion of ___ leads to classic carpal tunnel syndrome. There is sensory loss, thenar atrophy and + percussion of nerve over wrist leading to paresthesia (=___) in 60% cases

A

Median Nerve; Tinel’s sign

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75
Q

Biceps and brachialis weakness is the hallmark of injury to ___

A

Musculocutaneous nerve
musculocutaneous nerve originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus (C5-C7) at the inferior border of pectoralis minor muscle.

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76
Q

___ is screening test for Sarcoidosis

A

Serum ACE level

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77
Q

32 y/o man with HIV p/w fever (101 F), headache, stiff neck, photophobia, and lethargy. CD4 count is 0. Dx is __, most useful immediate dx test would be ___

A

Cryptococcal meningitis; LP for CSF analysis and India ink staining

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78
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)/Prion Disease:

A

LP with CSF assay of 14-3-3 and tau proteins’

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79
Q

Lesion to ___ of brain stem leads to internuclear ophthalmoplegia in multiple sclerosis, p/w abnormal horizontal ocular movements with absence/delayed adduction of the eye ipsilateral and coarse horizontal nystagmus in the abducting eye

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

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80
Q

___ is a sensation of an electric shock descending down the spine or the extremities upon neck flexion. It is most often suggestive of ___.

A

Lhermitte’s sign; Multiple sclerosis

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81
Q

IV Immunoglobulin therapy and plasmapharesis are treatments for what two neurological conditions?

A

Myasthenia gravis and Guillain-Barre Syndrome

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82
Q

MRI scan for patient with ___ revelas numerous subcortical white matter demyelinating lesions

A

Multiple sclerosis

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83
Q

Locked-in syndrome is the result of a ___ lesion that is clinically devastating, producing quadriplegia, mutism, and lower cranial nerve palsy

A

pontine

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84
Q

34 y/o AAF p/w 6 weeks of intermittent bifrontal headache and vague visual obscurations. Immediate dx test is ___

A

LP, showing elevated opening pressure; Dx: Pseudotumor cerebri

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85
Q

Inclusion criteria for use of r-TPA:

A

ischemic stroke with onset <3 hrs prior; neuro deficits measurable on NIH stroke scale; CT scan showing no intracranial hemorrhage

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86
Q

Exclusion criteria for use of r-TPA:

A

rapidly improving/minor stroke sx; seizure at onset of stroke; prior intracranial hemorrhage; pretreatment BP > 185/110; major surgery within 14 days; prior stroke or head injury w/in 3 months, recent MI

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87
Q

Patient p/w ipsilateral Horner syndrome, ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in face, cerebellar ataxia, weakness of vocal cords/pharynx, contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation to the hemibody; Dx is ___ due to location___and vessel__

A

Lateral Medullary Syndrome; occlusion of one of vertebral arteries (infarct of lateral medulla)

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88
Q

___ is the most common offending infectious agent in AIDS-related retinopathy. It accounts for 30% cases of HIV-related retinopathy

A

Cytomegalovirus

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89
Q

Lesion at ___ causes a foot drop from dorsiflexor muscle weakness

A

L5

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90
Q

Leg extension is a function of the quadriceps muscles, which are innervated by nerves emanating from the ___ nerve roots

A

L3, L4

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91
Q

Hip flexion (raising knee in the air) is a function of the iliopsoas muscles, which are innervated by ___ nerve roots

A

L1, L2, L3

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92
Q

The Achilles or ankle jerk motor reflex is a function of the ___ motor nerve root

A

S1

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93
Q

Classic Brown-Sequard syndrome presents as ___

A

ipsilateral loss motor control, propioception, and vibration——-contralateral loss of pain and temperature

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94
Q

The ___ irrigates the medial frontal lobes; when affected, causes preferential leg greater than arm and face weakness contralateral to the side of the lesion

A

Anterior cerebral artery

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95
Q

___ is one of the classic lacunar stroke syndromes and would be expected from an infarct in the area of the ___

A

Pure motor hemiparesis; internal capsule

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96
Q

Lesion to ___ will produce hemiballismus. Most often results from an acute stroke

A

contralateral subthalamic nucleus

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97
Q

Ataxia is indicative of lesion to ___, which is perfused by the vertebrobasilar arterial system

A

cerebellum

98
Q

Patient p/w transient ipsilateral monocular blindness (amaurosis fugax), contralateral body weakness or sensory loss, aphasia w/ dominant hemisphere involvement, and contralateral homonymous visual field deficits. Dx = ___

A

Carotid territory transient ischemic attack or stroke

99
Q

___ involves parenchymal invasion of the brain by the larval stage pork tapeworm T. solium. This is caused by ingestion of undercooked pork. presentation ranges from epilepsy, focal neuro deficits, hydrocephalus, cognitive decline, meningitis, or myelopathy

A

CNS cysticercosis

100
Q

___ is more often seen in AIDS patients with low CD4 counts. CNS lesions present as ring enhancing on both CT and MRI. Tx: pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine with folinic acid

A

Toxoplasmosis

101
Q

___ presents with classic triad of gait ataxia, areflexia, and opthalmoplegia. Variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Miller-Fisher syndrome

102
Q

Dermatome at the level of the umbilicus

A

T10

103
Q

Large stroke in the (territory)___ can result in hemineglect, visual and tactile extinction, impaired speech, anosognosia, and behavioral problems such as delirium/confusion

A

right MCA territory

104
Q

A third nerve palsy resulting from an aneurysm (originating at internal carotid artery near origin on posterior communicating artery) is usually associated with ___, as contrasted with a diabetic third nerve palsy, which usually ___

A

aneurysm –> dilated pupil, eyelid ptosis; diabetic –> spares pupillary function

105
Q

Early infection can appear as meningitis, uni/bilateral Bell’s palsy, painful radiculoneuritis, optic neuritic, or GBS. After initial infection, about 2/3 develop rash (erythema chronicum migrans), painless expanding macular patch. Dx = ___

A

Lyme Disease (Borrelia burgdorferi)

106
Q

Condition starts with fever, headache, muscle aches, and GI sx about 2-14 days after tick bite. There is a rash that appears initially around wrists and hands, then spreads over days to the feet and forearms. Dx = ___

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Rickettsia rickettsii)

107
Q

Primary auditory cortex localizes to the ___

A

superior temporal gyrus in both temporal lobes

108
Q

Epidural hematomas result most often from head trauma and skull fracture that cause a tear in the ___ or one of its branches

A

middle meningeal artery

109
Q

Subdural hematoma is believed to result from tearing of the ___ over the cortical surface or from trauma to the venous sinuses or their tributaries

A

bridging veins

110
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease presents with ___ on EEG

A

periodic sharp-wave complexes

111
Q

Periodic lateralizing epileptiform discharges (PLEDs) on EEG is characteristic of ___

A

herpes simplex encephalitis

112
Q

Midline cerebellar vermian lesions cause ___

A

truncal ataxia

113
Q

___ is maneuver to dx BPPV

A

Dix-Hallpike maneuver

114
Q

On EEG, triphasic sharp waves are characteristic of ___

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

115
Q

Compression of ___ results in a painful sensory syndrome known as meralgia paresthetica, which p/w pain and sensory loss to the lateral thigh

A

lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

116
Q

___ are common characteristics of anterior horn cell diseases such as poliomyelitis and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

A

fasciculations

117
Q

___ occurs 1 day - 4 weeks postpartum, p/w puerperal headache, seizures, neuro deficits and behavior/personality changes

A

Cerebral venous thrombosis

118
Q

___ is a brief period of transient hemiparesis or hemiplegia following a seizure. Sx usually dissipate within 48 hours and treatment is expectant and supportive

A

Todd’s paralysis

119
Q

___ is a hematoma overlying the mastoid that results from a basilar skull fracture extending into the mastoid portion of the temporal bone

A

Battle sign

120
Q

Hypocalcemia that is chronic may result in clinical observation of ___, positive when the cheek is tapped with the examiner’s finger and the corner of the mouth involuntarily contracts

A

Chvostek sign

121
Q

Triphasic waves on EEG are characteristic of ___

A

hepatic or metabolic encephalopathy

122
Q

___ results from bilateral destruction of the amygdaloid bodies and the inferior temporal cortex, p/w hypersexuality, placidity, and hyperorality

A

Kluver-Bucy syndrome

123
Q

Pt p/w sudden onset of transient loss of vision that manifests as a curtain or shade or veil usually over central visual field. Brief (about 1-5 min) then generally returns to normal. Dx __ caused by ___

A

Amaurosis fugax; carotid artery territory ischemia

124
Q

___ affects the cerebellum and/or brain stem. Classive sx of ischemia include ataxia, nystagmus, vertigo, dysarthria, and dysphagia

A

Vertebrobasilar territory ischemia

125
Q

___ ischemia affects the small penetrating branching arteries off of the MCA that feed the striatum. Ischemia produces lacunar infacts of the internal capsule, resulting in pure contralateral motor hemiparesis

A

Lenticulostriate territory

126
Q

___ ischemia would be expected to cause contralateral hemiparesis of the leg preferentially

A

Anterior cerebral artery

127
Q

___ ischemia can take different forms. If lesion is in dominant hemisphere, aphasia may result. If nondominant –> hemineglect, anosognosia, visual/tactile extinction, aprosody of speech, contralateral limb apraxia

A

Middle cerebral artery

128
Q

Patient p/w rapid onset bilateral leg weakness with clear-cut sensory level below level of the lesion. Urinary and/or bowel incontinence are common. Pain and temperature are usually affected, but propioception and vibration sensation are spared. Often follows an infection or vaccination or is the direct result of dymyelination 2/2 MS. Dx =

A

Transverse myelitis

129
Q

Horner’s syndrome p/w ___; lesion usually localizes to ___

A

ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis; internal carotid artery

130
Q

Prosopagnosia, the inability to recognize faces, is associated with lesions to ___

A

Fusiforme gurus in the occipital/temporal lobes

131
Q

Difference between paralysis of Bell’s palsy vs facial paresis of hemispheric stroke

A

Bell’s palsy - entire face; stroke - spares upper 1/3 of face (brow, upper eyelid)

132
Q

Patient p/w dissociated suspended sensory deficit usually in a cape or shawl pattern over the arms and upper trunk. There is impairment of pain and temperature, but preserved light touch, vibration, and propioception

A

Syringomyelia

133
Q

___ is herpetic cranial neuritis that affects CN VII and VIII. Pathogen is varicella zoster virus and p/w painful facial palsy, vertigo, ipsilateral hearing loss, and vesicles in the external auditory canal

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

134
Q

Person p/w cortical blindness and often denies that they are blind and confabulate.

A

Anton’s syndrome (localizes to bilateral occipital lobes)

135
Q

Most common CNS cancer noted in patients with advanced AIDS

A

Lymphoma

136
Q

Most frequent CNS opportunistic infection in AIDS patients

A

CNS toxoplasmosis

137
Q

Patient with AIDS and Cd4 count 50 p/w rapidly progressive onset gait difficulties, spasticity, leg weakness, sphincter dysfunction, and loss of propioception to both feet and legs. Dx ___

A

Vacuolar myelopathy

138
Q

___ is most common peripheral nerve syndrome that complicates AIDS. Patient p/w diminished ankle jerk reflexes, decreased pain/temp/vibration sensation, possible paresthesia of feet

A

Distal sensory polyneuropathy

139
Q

___ is demyelinating d/o affecting AIDS pts with low CD4 count. Results from opportunistic infection by the JC virus. P/w hemiparesis, aphasia, sensory deficits, ataxia, and visual field deficits.

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

140
Q

___ p/w headache, ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, and contralateral hemiparesis

A

carotid artery dissection

141
Q

Bell’s palsy is believed to be result of infection from ___

A

Herpes simplex virus, Lyme disease

142
Q

Patient p/w 4-week hx headache, vague fever, and paresthesias. Temp is 103.5. He complains of difficulty swallowing with pharyngeal spasms for past 3 days. Usually progresses to encephalitis with possible autonomic hyperactivity, seizures, agitation, and psychosis. Dx ___

A

Rabies virus

143
Q

Trismus, or lockjaw, is a primary sx in over 75% cases of people infected with ___. Can p/w risus sardonicus, a sustained involuntary grimace resulting from uncontrollable facial muscle spasm. Laryngospasm can lead to respiratory depression.

A

Clostridium tetani

144
Q

Classic sx of ___ include dysphagia, dysarthria, ptosis, and diplopia. These sx rapidly progress to limb paralysis and eventually to paralysis of respiratory muscles that can lead to death if the condition is untreated

A

Botulism (Clostridium botulinum)

145
Q

“Damage to ___ p/w proximal forearm, mild paresis of the pronator quadratus, paresis of the flexor digitorum profundus I and II and flexor pollicis longus, and a ““pinch attitude”” in attempt to make a complete circle by applying pulp of thumb to that of index finger”

A

Anterior interosseous nerve

146
Q

Infection with ___ can be asymptomatic or p/w splenomegaly, pharyngitis, and cervical lymphadenopathy

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

147
Q

60 y/o woman p/w progressive downward course over 6 months characterized by behavioral disinhibition, emotional lability, severe name and word-finding difficulties, hyperorality, stubbornness, inability to plan, and poor judgment. Autopsy of brain would show:

A

Pick’s inclusion bodies and gliosis (Pick’s disease - one of frontotemporal dementias)

148
Q

The neuropatholical hallmark of idiopathic Parkinson’s disease:

A

Lewy bodies in parts reticulata of substantia nigra

149
Q

___ are eosinophilic neuronal inclusions seen in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and Alzheimer’s dementia

A

Hirano bodies

150
Q

Mesial temporal sclerosis is pathological hallmark of brain tissue in those with ___

A

temporal lobe epilepsy

151
Q

Atrophy of the head of the caudate nucleus is found in ___, but it does not correlate with illness severity

A

Huntington’s disease

152
Q

Pt p/w acute onset of pure right hemiparesis that affects face, arm, and leg equally. Stroke most likely localizes to ___; Dx __

A

Left internal capsule (Lacunar Stroke Syndrome)

153
Q

Infant consumes unpasteurized honey and then p/w weak cry, lethargy, floppiness, poor suck, and constipation. Dx ___

A

Botulism (Clostridium botulinum)

154
Q

___ is rare stroke syndrome 2/2 ischemia to bilateral parietal-occipital lobes or occiptal lobes alone. Often complication of vascular dementia. P/w ocular apraxia, optic ataxia, and deficits in visual attention

A

Bulint’s syndrome

155
Q

Pt with ___ p/w cortical blindness. Hallmark is patient being unaware or denying blindness and confabulating. Results from lesion to bilateral occipital lobes

A

Anton’s syndrome (localizes to bilateral occipital lobes)

156
Q

___ is inability to recognize familiar faces

A

Prosopagnosia

157
Q

___ p/w combination of blepharospasm (involuntary eyelid blinking) and oromandibular dystonia

A

Meige’s syndrome

Meige syndrome is a rare neurological movement disorder characterized by involuntary and often forceful contractions of the muscles of the jaw and tongue (oromandibular dystonia) and involuntary muscle spasms and contractions of the muscles around the eyes (blepharospasm).

158
Q

Inability to recognize and identify objects

A

Agnosia

159
Q

Inability to perform a skilled, learned, purposeful motor behavior

A

Apraxia

160
Q

Near muteness with normal reading, writing, and comprehension

A

Aphemia

161
Q

Positive grasp reflex is usually patholigical sign in an adult. It is a normal infantile reflex present at birth and usually disappears by 6 months. Persistent or redevelopment of the reflex in adulthood would indicate damage to ___

A

grasp reflex past the age of infancy is associated with focal lesions in the central nervous system (CNS) or diffuse neurodegeneration,

grasp reflex is fairly specific for a lesion of the supplementary motor area on the medial surface of the contralateral frontal lobe.

162
Q

___ is positive when a patient suspected of psychogenic hemiparesis does not give effort in the contralateral (unaffected) lower extremity when asked to push down on the bed with the paretic (affected) lower extremity

A

Hoover’s sign

163
Q

___ is present when straight-leg raising in a recumbent position results in reproduction of pain or paresthesia in the sciatic distribution

A

Lasegue’s sign

164
Q

___ is positive when a patient is asked to stand up straight with eyes closed and subsequently loses balance. This indicates deficit to either posterior columns of the spinal cord or to cerebellar pathology, or both

A

Romberg’s sign

165
Q

Vagal nerve stimulation is FDA approved for ___

A

adjunctive tx of refractory partial complex epilepsy and intractable MDD

166
Q

___ p/w intermittent headaches that result from increased intracranial pressue b/c of the ball-valve blockage of the passage of CSF in the ventricular system. Blockage may lead to brief intermittent drop attacks

A

Colloid cyst of the 3rd ventricle

167
Q

Isoniazid can cause ___, leading to sensory polyneuropathy

A

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency

168
Q

___ is fungus that colonizes in paranasal sinuses, can cause hypersensitivity pneumonitis. Has predilection for invading the posterior circulation and can cause vertebrobasilar strokes

A

Aspergillus

169
Q

___ presents as dementia, dermatitis, and diarrhea

A

Niacin deficiency (pellagra)

170
Q

Pimozide (Orap) is approved for treatment of Tourette’s. It’s MOA is ___

A

dopamine antagonist

171
Q

___ is most common manifestation of neurosarcoidosis, occuring in up to 75% cases

A

Cranial neuropathies, in particular facial nerve palsy

172
Q

___ typically leads to large hemispheric infarction w/ contralateral hemiparesis, conjugate eye deviation toward side of infarct, hemianesthesia, and homonymous hemianopia

A

Stem occlusion of MCA

173
Q

What neuro deficit is more common in upper division MCA infarct?

A

Broca aphasia

174
Q

Pure alexia (inability to read) without agraphia (inability to communicate through writing) is due to stroke in ___. Patients can write but cannot read their own writing. Speech, comprehension, and repititon are intact

A

posterior cerebral artery

175
Q

Stroke to ___ are usually responsible for sensory deficits of cerebral origin. presents with hemianesthesia with gradual return of sensory function and pain

A

Thalamus

176
Q

___ results from intracranial bleed that causes brief loss of consciousness, followed by initial lucid period and then further deterioration afterwards. This results from ___

A

Epidural hematoma; middle meningeal artery

177
Q

Damage to ___ results in subdural hematoma, which is often seen in alcoholics who have a head injury

A

bridging veins

178
Q

___ results from occlusion of posterior inferior cerebellar artery, producing sensory loss on ipsilateral face (from trigeminal involvement), contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation, bulbar weakness (resulting in dysphagia, dysarthria) and Horner’s syndrome

A

Lateral Medullary Syndrome (Wallenburg Syndrome)

179
Q

Person with ___ p/w fluctuating rigidity of axial musculature with superimposed spasms. 80% of patients develop this as a nonparaneoplastic phenomenon and in association with diabetes and polyendocrinopathy and often antibodies to ___

A

Stiff-Person Syndrome; glutamic acid decarboxylase

180
Q

Bilateral lesions of the brain stem or the thalamus results in ___

A

coma

181
Q

Patient suffers injurious fall down the stairs. Neuro exam reveals right biceps weakness, absent right biceps reflex, and right shoulder and arm pain radiating to the right thumb. The likely dx is ___

A

C6 radiculopathy

182
Q

Defiency in ___ is associated with subacute combined degeneration of the posterior columns of the spinal cord

A

Vitamin B12

183
Q

Most reliable CSF finding in patients with chronic progressive phase of Multiple sclerosis

A

oligoclonal

184
Q

___ is caused by JC virus. Occurs in pts with impaired immunity (AIDS, Chronic lymphocytic leukemia, Hodgkin’s lymphoma). P/w focal neuro deficits, seizure activity, and cognitive impairment characterized by memory impairment, psychomotor retardation, and inattentiveness

A

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML)

185
Q

The etiology for ___ is Epstein-Barr virus. P/w progressive personality changes, seizures, and signs of increased ICP

A

CNS Lymphoma

186
Q

__ presents with classic triad of abdo pain, peripheral neuropathy, and psychiatric disturbance (delirium, psychosis, depression, anxiety).

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

187
Q

Young man p/w several days of progressive BLE weakness and numbness. Has hx flu-like illness about 10 days prior. Also with loss of sensation to all sensory modalities below the middle of the thorax and DTR are brisker below the waist. Dx ___

A

Acute/subacute transverse myelitis

188
Q

“Patient states ““thot blegging at bremull fee felking””. He says this with normal intonation but no one can understand. He is able to respond to other questions with similar expressions but cannot execute any instructions. Dx ___”

A

Wernicke’s aphasia

189
Q

___ p/w ocular motor apraxia (difficulty directing eyes away from central fixation), optic ataxia (inability to coordinate extremity movement under visual control), and impaired visual attention. Often associated with bilateral hemisphere lesions

A

Bulint’s syndrome

190
Q

Pt p/w sudden onset R foot pain and leg paralysis. Right arm/hand/face are only slightly affected. No visual deficits. Over the ensuing weeks, pt is found to have lack of spontaneity, abulia, and loss of bladder controol. Stroke affected ___

A

Left anterior cerebral artery

191
Q

In ___, an otherwise cognitively intact individual suddenly loses memory for recent events, asks repetitive questions about his/her environment, and sometimes confabulates. Lasts several to 24 hours.

A

Transient Global Amnesia

192
Q

Treatment of choice for lancinating pain of Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

193
Q

35 y/o pt p/w headache, fever, seizures, confusion, stupor that evolve ove 1 week. EEG shows periodic lateralized high-voltage sharp waves emanating from left temporal region. CT shows low-density lesion in the left temporal lobe. Most likely dx ___. (Fever in 90%; Headache in 80%, disorientation in 70%, personaity changes in 70-85%; focal or generalized seizures in 40-67%)

A

Herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1) encephalitis

194
Q

70 y/o pt p/w leg stiffness w/ ambulation and LE spasms while sleeping. Neuro exam shows markedly stiff-legged gait with leg adduction while walking. LE tone is increased with a spastic catch and knee jerk reflexes are hyperactive and ankle jerk reflexes elicit clonus. Dx ___

A

Cervical spondylosis

195
Q

___ commonly manifests with neck/face/head pain ipsilateral, frequently associated with ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome and often follows head or neck trauma.

A

Carotid artery dissection

196
Q

Clostridium tetani causes trismus and dysphagia by ___

A

inhibiting GABA and glycine release in the brain and spinal cord

197
Q

Broca’s aphasia results from lesion to ___ and p/w ___

A

left posterior inferior frontal gyrus; broken, stuttering, staccato speech, with inability to repeat. reading often impaired

198
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia results from lesion in ___ and p/w ___

A

superior temporal gyrus; fluent speech but comprehension impaired, speech may be logorrheic or overproductive

199
Q

Conduction aphasia results from lesion from ___ and p/w ___

A

arcuate fasciculus; inability to repeat, relatively normal spontaneous speech and possibility of paraphasic errors and hesitancy

200
Q

Wallenburg syndrome is due to lesion in ___ and p/w ___

A

lateral medulla; ipsilateral Horner syndrome, ipsilateral loss of pain/temp sensation in face, cerebellar ataxia, weakness of vocal cords, contralateral loss of pain/temp sensation to the hemibody

201
Q

A large stroke in the ___ can result in hemineglect, visual and tactile extinciton, impaired speech prosody (loss of musical and emotional inflection), anosognosia (not knowing you have a deficit) and behavioral problems (delirium, confusion)

A

Right MCA territory

202
Q

Boy goes to summer camp and p/w sudden onset facial diplegia. Causative agent ___

A

Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)

203
Q

Truncal ataxia or instability can result specifically from lesion to ___

A

cerebellar vermis

204
Q

Lesion to ___ cause ipsilateral limb ataxia and/or dysmetria of either the arm/leg or both. can result in dysdiadochokinesis

A

cerebellar hemisphere

205
Q

Lesions in ___ can result in cranial neuropathy, particularly V, VII, VIII. can p/w ipsilateral bells palsy, ipsilateral facial numbness, ipsilateral hearing loss/tinnitis/vertigo

A

cerebellopontine angle area

206
Q

___ is a common characteristics of anterior horn diseases such as polymyositis and ALS

A

fasciculations

207
Q

D2 overstimulation in ___ leads to tics and extraneous motor movements (parkinsons, tourettes, tics)

A

Caudate nucleus

208
Q

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord is due to ___

A

Deficiency of vitamin B12 (cobalamin)

209
Q

Onset of muscle weakness is more common in the upper than the lower extremities, but in approximately 25% of patients, weakness begins in bulbar-innervated muscles. Pseudobulbar palsy may present with inappropriate or forced crying or laughter, which is often a source of great emotional distress for patients. The EMG examination characteristically reveals a combination of acute (positive sharp waves and fibrillation potentials) and chronic (reduced neurogenic firing pattern with evidence of increased amplitude and duration, polyphasic motor unit potentials) changes in a widespread distribution

A

ALS

210
Q

___ commonly manifests with neck, face, and head pain ipsilateral to the dissection, frequently is associated with an ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, and often follows head or neck trauma

A

Carotid artery dissection

211
Q

3 core clinical criteria are fluctuations in cognitive function with varying levels of alertness and attention; visual hallucinations; and Parkinsonism

A

Lewy Body Disease

212
Q

frontotemporal lobar degeneration –> pt can become aggressive and socially inappropriate, and demonstrate a lack of concern, apathy, abnormal self-awareness, and an inability to appreciate meaning. Speech and language abnormalities often begin early and progress rapidly.

A

Pick’s Disease

213
Q

Asymmetric resting tremor in UE’s, lack of coordination, soft voice, decreased facial expression, progressive bradykinesia, rigidity and gait difficulty. Neurocognitive disorder generally occurs late

A

Parkinson’s Disease

214
Q

A score of ___ on MMSE is consistent with moderate-severe dementia; appropriate for memantine

A

10-20 out of 30

215
Q

In one study with neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson’s disease, 90% of patients reported reduction in visual hallucinations with ___

A

cholinesterase inhibitors (Donepezil)

216
Q

Which regions of the brain are most affected by HIV-associated dementia (HAD)?

A

Basal ganglia and hippocampus

217
Q

___ is caused by infectious protein agents known as prions

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

218
Q

A 79 y/o man displays fluctuating levels of cognitive function. Which one of the following neurocognitive disorder diagnoses is most likely?

A

Neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies

219
Q

Hyperphosphorylated tau protein found in the hippocampus is most common in which one of the following neurocognitive disorders?

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

220
Q

___ characterized by rapidly progressive cognitive decline and behavioral change, as well as gait disturbance, myoclonic jerks, and fatigue

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

221
Q

___ is the etiologic agent of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

A

JC Virus

222
Q

___ is deposited in disorders such as Lewy body disease, Parkinson ‘s disease, and REM sleep behavior disorder

A

Synuclein

223
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles (aggregates of hyperphosphorylated tau) are seen in ___

A

Alzheimer’s disease

224
Q

Pick cells (distinctive, enlarged vacuolar neurons with argentophilic neuronal inclusions in the cytoplasm bodies) are seen in ___

A

Neurocognitive disorder due to frontotemporal lobar degeneration

225
Q

On autopsy, ___ can be seen in vascular dementia

A

Lacunar infarcts

226
Q

On autopsy, ___ can be seen in Alzheimer’s disease

A

Neuritic plaques

227
Q

In patients with neurocognitive disorder due to frontotemporal lobar degeneration, ___ is often seen on autopsy

A

TDP-43 proteinopathy

228
Q

Which one of the following chromosomes is involved in the development of frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder?

A

Chromosome 17

229
Q

___ are primarily used to treat the cognitive symptoms of neurocognitive disorder withLewy bodies, but they may also be of some benefit in reducing psychiatric and motor symptoms

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil and rivastigmine

230
Q

___ is caused by the bacterium Tropheryma whipplei, which creates a malabsorption syndrome, as well as skin rashes, diarrhea, arthritis, and cognitive decline.

A

Whipple’s disease

231
Q

The rapid decline of neurocognitive function over the course of a few months, along with the presence of a movement disorder like myoclonus (sudden, uncontrolled movement of limbs), strongly suggests ___. It is associated with co-morbid mental health disorders, including mood, anxiety, and panic disorders. EEG shows ___

A

prion disease

232
Q

In an elderly patient with no other concerning history, ___ can present as disinhibition and impairment in judgment, sexually disinhibition, social inappropriateness, and psychosis (hallucinations and delusions). Stroke, neoplasm, or well-circumscribed focal infectious processes can cause this

A

orbitofrontal syndrome

233
Q

Patient with neurocognitive dysfunction and 14-3-3 protein in CSF has ___

A

Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease

234
Q

Genetic predisposition is the strongest risk factor in decreasing the age of onset of Alzheimer’s Disease in homozygous individuals having polymorphism of ___

A

apolipoprotein E4 gene

235
Q

___ have been proven to be safe and efficacious for treating neuropsychiatric component of NCD with Lewy bodies

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors (Rivastigmine, donepezil, and galantamine)

236
Q

In Creutzfeldt Jakob disease, EEG shows ___ at a certain point during the course of the disease but is not present in all patients. Comprises of movement disorders like ___

A

typical periodic, sharp, synchronous triphasic waves at a rate of 0.5-2 Hz

237
Q

Carriers of ___ (which resides on chromosome 19) are at increased risk of posttraumatic dementia as well as Alzheimer’s disease

A

apo E4

238
Q

MRI finding for patients with Huntington’s Disease

A

caudate and cerebral atrophy

239
Q

Gait disturbance characterizied by involuntary acceleration found in Parkinson’s disease

A

Festination

240
Q

Pt with ___ p/w motor weakness, areflexia, paresthesias with minor sensory loss, and increased protein in the CSF w/o pleocytosis (albuminocytological dissociation)

A

Guillan-Barre Syndrome