Misc Review From Drive Flashcards
____ set out clear standards for integrated community services for individuals with severe, chronic psychiatric illness who had, to that point, been largely cared for in state hospitals; credited with sparking the move towards deinstitutionalization of patients with chronic, severe mental illness.
The 1999 Olmstead decision
The Trail Making Test is a good indicator of ___
executive functioning
The MMPI assesses ___
personality traits
The Benton Facial Recognition test assesses for ___
visuoperceptual problems
___ is assessed in the California Verbal Learning test
memory
According to Piaget, cause and effect thinking, logical thinking and think about thoughts, make deductions are elements of the ___ (11-16 years) where deductive reasoning can be used
formal operations stage
According to Piaget, the ___ (ages 2 to 7 years) is marked by immanent justice and magical thinking
preoperational stage
Alcohol withdrawal tremulousness (the shakes or the jitters) usually begins ___ after cessation of drinking
6 to 8 hours
Psychotic and perceptual symptoms begin ___ after cessation of drinking
8 to 12 hours
Withdrawal seizures usually occur between ___ after the last drink
12 and 24 hours
The onset of alcohol withdrawal delirium, if it is going to happen, will occur between ___ after the last drink
72 hours and 1 days
___ hallucinations occur when waking up from sleep
Hypnopompic
___ hallucinations occur when falling asleep
Hypnogogic
___ on polysomnography would be most consistent with rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder (RBD)?
Loss of muscle atonia during REM sleep
The ___ is the most commonly-used, 4-item screening questionnaire for delirium
confusion assessment method (CAM)
Sleep change observed in normal 75 year old patient
Decreased Non-REM sleep
EEG findings (8-14 Hz) while awake
Alpha waves
EEG findings in stage 1 of sleep (N1)
Theta waves (4-7 Hz), slowing of alpha activity
EEG findings in stage 2 of sleep (N2)
Sleep spindles and K complexes on EEG (50%),dec temp RR, and BP
EEG findings in stage 3 of sleep (N3)
Delta waves
___ is a projective test assessing the person’s interpretation of illustrations of ambiguous interpersonal situations; sheds light on a person’s interpersonal function and can also identify psychotic processes in the case of idiosyncratic interpretations.
The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
___ deficiency is the most common cause of pellagra. In addition to diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia, it may involve photosensitivity, glossitis, ataxia, and dilated cardiomyopathy
Vitamin B3, or niacin
___ deficiency can cause Wernicke encephalopathy, which involves truncal ataxia, confusion, and ophthalmoplegia, and Korsakoff syndrome (amnestic-confabulatory syndrome)
Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
___ deficiency can cause peripheral neuropathy, pellagra-like skin changes, anemia, depression, confusion, and seizures
Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
___ deficiency can cause anemia and subacute combined degeneration, which involves peripheral motor weakness, paresthesias, and spasticity.
Vitamin B12
If TSH is low and you suspect hypothyroidism then ordering ___ could help with diagnosis of secondary hypothyroidism (due to disease of pituitary)
free T4
Anorexia nervosa complicated by purging may present with what electrolyte abnormalities?
hypochloremic alkalosis and with elevated serum bicarbonate levels; hyponatremia, hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia
Narcolepsy is characterized with significantly lower CSF levels of ___
hypocretin
Sleepwalking disorder, or somnambulism, usually occurs in the first third of the night in ___ and frequently progresses to leaving bed and walking about without full consciousness or later memory. It usually begins between 4 and 8 years of age, has peak prevalence at ___
deep NREM (stages III and IV) sleep; 12 years
MDD causes what effect on sleep?
reduced REM sleep latency, increased REM sleep activity and reduced slow wave sleep
Organophosphate pesticides are powerful acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. Poisoning leads to excessive cholinergic activity and SLUDGE signs (salivation, lacrimation, urination, diaphoresis (or defecation), gastrointestinal motility, and emesis). ___ is an antidote.
Atropine, a muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist
which competes with acetylcholine at the muscarinic receptors. The initial dose for adults is 2 to 5 mg IV or 0.05 mg/kg IV for children until reaching the adult dose.
___ is a cholinergic agonist that could be used to treat anticholinergic toxicity
Physostigmine
Tests of ___ on the MOCA include Trails B, cube drawing, and clock drawing
executive functioning
In terms of sleep patterns, ___ and ___ decrease with age
Slow-wave or NREM stage 3 sleep; sleep efficiency
___ involves the liver as well as the brain, as copper accumulation in this disorder damages both. Symptoms of Parkinsonism are often present (i.e., masked facies, tremor, and rigidity), along with ataxia, dystonia, or dysarthria. Renal tubular acidosis, cardiomyopathy, and hypoparathyroidism can also complicate the picture. The ___ is only present in two-thirds of patients
Wilson’s disease; Kayser-Fleischer ring
Both ___ and ___ are characterized by decreased REM latency, frequent arousals, and periods of wakefulness on polysomnography, suggesting that their pathophysiology may be related in ways as yet unappreciated.
major depressive disorder and narcolepsy
___ is a type of disinhibition, particularly of executive function, associated with brain damage, where the patient has difficulty resisting the impulse to operate or manipulate objects in the visual field and within reach.
Utilization behavior
___, named after the defendant in a murder trial who had suffered from delusions for many years before killing one of his perceived persecutors, holds that a person is not guilty of a crime by reason of insanity if they had a mental illness that made them unaware of the nature, quality, and consequences of their acts or if they were incapable of realizing that their acts were wrong
The M’Naghten rule
Manifestations of ___ include anemia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, muscle weakness, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Treatment is ___
Adrenal insufficiency (or Addison’s Disease); Corticosteroids such as prednisone
A ___ trial of a new drug is conducted to determine how a new drug should be given, how often it should be given, what dose is safe, and what the side effects are
phase I
In ___ trials, researched give a new drug to a group of people with a certain disease to assess the drug’s side effects and efficacy for treating the disease
phase II
In ___ trials, researchers compare the efficacy and side-effects of a new drug with the current treatment for a certain disease
phase III
___ trials are carried out after a drug is approved by the FDA and allow data to be collected about the efficacy and side-effects of a drug in a wider variety of populations and over a longer period of time than earlier trial phases allowed
Phase IV
___ is done for: (1) evaluation of suspected narcolepsy to confirm the diagnosis or (2) evaluation of suspected idiopathic hypersomnia to differentiate it from narcolepsy.
Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT)
___ are useful in monitoring a patient’s abstinence
CDT and GGT
___ is the compulsive utterance of obsecene words, as seen in Tourette’s
Coprolalia
Group of patients are looked at with regard to risk for heart disease. They are divided into those who have the TF and those who do not. These groups are followed for a number of years to see who does and who does not develop heart disease. THis is an example of a ___
Cohort Study
A ___ is a retrospective study that examines persons w/o a disease
Case-control study
___ describe the prevalence of a disease in a population at a particular point in time
Cross-sectional surveys
___ developed stages of separation-individuation to describe how children develop identity that is separate from their mothers
Mahler
Chronic schizophrenic takes his medication daily. This is an example of ___ prevention (reducing deficits caused by an illness to obtain highest possible level of function)
tertiary
___ prevention is when a clinician does something to prevent the onset of a disease by reducing causative agents, reducing risk factors, etc
primary
___ is when one identifies a disease in its early stages and seeks prompt treatment
secondary
Use of positive and negative reinformcenet is part of operant conditioning developed by ___
Skinner
___ is associated with low levels of CSF hypocretin (orexin)
Narcolepsy
___ test helps find the location of brain lesions as well as differentiating between those who are brain damaged and those who are neurologically intact
Halstead-Reitan battery
___ is Malaysian cultural syndrome that consist of a sudden rampage including homicide and/or suicide, which ends in exhaustion and amnesia
Amok
___ is an Asian delusion that the penis will disappear into the abdomen and cause death
Koro
Complete loss of the gag reflex would be expected only in devastating stroke involving ___
the brain stem or complete brain death
You would expect to find ___ on EEG for normal adult drowsiness
Frontocentral beta activity
On EEG, you would find ___ when eyes are closed
Posterior alpha rhythm
“___ pioneered the concept that different mental health disorders have different outcomes; used the term ““dementia praecox”””
Kraepelin
EEG showing bilaterally synchronous triphasic slow waves indicates ___
Hepatic encephalopathy
What are EEG findings in MDD?
Shortened latency of REM sleep, decreased stage IV sleep, increased REM density
Type I error occurs when ___
Null hypothesis is rejected when it should have been retained
___ is the probability of finding the difference between two samples
Power
PCP stays in urine __; Cocaine up to ___; Heroin up to ___
PCP-8 days; Cocaine-8 hrs; Heroin-72 hrs
___ is electrolyte abnormality to watch out for in bulimic patients
hypokalemic, hypochloremic alkalosis
___ focused on social interaction. This person defined each stage of life through the need to interact with certain individuals, shaping the development of the personality.
Harry Stack Sullivan
___ is characterized by inability to repeat, relatively normal spontaneous speech, and possibility of paraphasic erros/hesitancy. Naming may be impaired by auditory comprehension is intact. This results from damage to ___.
Conduction aphasia; left-hemispheric (dominant) lesion –> arcuate fasciculus
___ is characterized by broken, stuttering staccato speech with inability to repeat and phonemic and paraphasic errors. Reading is often impaired, although auditory comprehension is usually intact. This involves lesion to ___.
Broca’s aphasia; Left posterior inferior frontal gyrus
___ is characterized by fluent speech but impaired comprehension; speech may also be logorrheic or overproductive. Repetition, naming, auditory comprehension, reading comprehension are impaired. This results from lesion in ___
Wernicke’s aphasia; superior temporal gyrus
___ is characterized by speech that is nonfluent or mute; impaired comprehension; naming, reading, repetition, and writing are all poor; results from damage to ___
Global aphasia; large lesion involving superior, temporal, inferior frontal, and parietal lobes
___ is characterized by telegraphic, stuttering speech, sparing of comprehension, and fluent repitition; fluent paraphasic speech, paraphasic naming, and impaired reading/auditory comprehension, normal repetition; lesion localizes to ___
Transcortical motor aphasia, Frontal lobe
___ is the method of predicting the value of one variable in relation to another variable based on observed data
Regression analysis
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a rare late complication from ___. P/w personality and cognitive changes, myoclonic seizures, spasticity, choreoathetoid movements, difficulty swallowing
Measles virus
Konrad Lorenz, during his work with animals, demonstrated the concept of ___, which may be used to understand early human psychological development
Imprinting
___ was first to give a comprehensive study of the defense mechanisms
Anna Freud
In the case of ___, the US Supreme Court determined that, to have the competence to stand trial, a criminal defendant must be able to have the ability to consult his lawyer with a reasonable degree of rational understanding and must have reaasonable and rational understanding of the proceedings agianst him/her
Dusky vs United States
