Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

How long do TIA symptoms last for?

A

< 24 hours.

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2
Q

What is a TIA?

A

An acute loss of cerebral or ocular function with symptoms lasting less than 24 hours. Caused by an inadequate cerebral or ocular blood supply due to reduced blood flow, ischaemia or embolism associated with disease of the blood vessels or heart. Complete recovery and no evidence of infarction on imaging.

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3
Q

What percentage of strokes are preceded by TIA?

A

15%.

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4
Q

What is the main cause of TIA?

A

Main cause is atherothromboembolism from the carotid artery.

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5
Q

What are the causes of TIA?

A

Main cause is atherothromboembolism from the carotid artery.

Other causes:
• Small vessel occlusion
• Cardioembolism resulting in microemboli from mural thrombosis post MI, valve disease, prosthetic valve, AF
• AF: no blood flow in or out of the atrial appendage in the left atrium. Results in the stasis of and pooling of blood which is a point on Virchow’s triangle. Forms a clot and if it dislodges, it may be carried as an embolus. The path of least resistance if the carotid arteries but emboli go elsewhere in the body too.
• Endocarditis
• Hyperviscosity e.g. polycythaemia, sickle cell anaemia, myeloma, very high white cell count.

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6
Q

What are the risk factors for a TIA?

A

Age, hypertension, smoking, diabetes, heart disease e.g. valvular, ischaemic, AF, previous TIA, peripheral arterial disease.

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7
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a TIA?

A

Commonest cause is cerebral ischaemia so lack of oxygen to brain and cerebral dysfunction. Ischaemia is short-lived and symptoms only last a maximum of 15 minutes after onset. Then resolves before irreversible cell death occurs. Gradual progression of symptoms suggests a different pathology e.g. demyelination, tumour or migraine.

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8
Q

What percentage of TIAs are in the anterior circulation (carotid artery)?

A

90%.

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9
Q

What percentage of TIAs are in the posterior circulation (vertebrobasilar artery)?

A

10%.

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10
Q

What are the symptoms of an anterior (carotid artery) circulation TIA?

A
  • Amaurosis fugax: “fleeting darkness” described as a “curtain descending”. Most likely is an embolus in the internal carotid artery and then in the retinal/opthalmic arteries
  • Aphasia: inability to formulate and/or understand speech
  • Hemiparesis: weakness or inability to move on one side of the body
  • Hemisensory loss
  • Hemianopic visual loss: visual field loss on the left or right side of the vertical midline, affecting one eye or both eyes
  • Dysphasia: inability to produce speech.
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11
Q

What are the symptoms of a posterior (vertebrobasilar artery) circulation TIA?

A
  • Diplopia (double vision)
  • Vertigo
  • Vomiting
  • Choking and dysarthria (muscles used to produce speech are damaged)
  • Ataxia: many symptoms mimic being drunk
  • Hemisensory loss
  • Hemianopic or bilateral visual loss
  • Tetraparesis: all four limbs are weak
  • Loss of consciousness: rare
  • Transient global amnesia possibly.
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12
Q

What are the signs of a TIA?

A
  • Aphasia
  • Carotid bruit (whooshing noise over artery)
  • Dysarthria
  • Ataxia
  • Hemisensory loss
  • Hemaniopic or bilateral vidual loss
  • Tetraparesis.
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13
Q

What are the investigations in a TIA?

A
  • Carotid artery imaging: Doppler ultrasound of the internal carotid arteries and MR/CT angiography to look for stenosis
  • Cardiac echo
  • ECG and 24 hour ECG
  • MRI brain
  • Bloods: FBC, ESR, U&E, glucose, lipids.
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14
Q

What artery is blocked in amaurosis fugax?

A

Most likely is an embolus in the internal carotid artery and then in the retinal/opthalmic arteries.

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15
Q

What are the differential diagnoses in a TIA?

A

It is impossible to differentiate from a stroke until there is a full recovery.
• Hypoglycaemia
• Mass lesions produce identical events e.g. subdural haematoma, cerebral abscess tumours
• Focal epilepsy: positive features e.g. limb jerking and loss of consciousness which are less common in TIA. Progression of symptoms over minutes
• Migraine aura: visual loss and dysphasia common in both. Headache and positive visual phenomena e.g. shimmering are typical of migraine aura but not TIA. The onset and evolution of symptoms is slower in migraine aura and limb weakness is unlikely (develops over minutes rather than seconds)
• Hyperventilation
• Retinal bleeds
• Cerebral amyloid angiopathy
• Postural weakness (Todd’s paralysis)
• Malignant hypertension (rare).

Not a TIA is syncope, dizziness, temporary loss of consciousness, temporary memory loss, gradual onset.

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16
Q

When does a low risk TIA patient need to be referred?

A

Refer for specialist assessment within 7 days of the onset of symptoms.

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17
Q

What is the management in a TIA?

A
  • Refer for specialist assessment within 24 hours/7 days of the onset of symptoms
  • Start aspirin immediately and them move to clopidogrel or continue current standard dose if already on an antiplatelet (unless on an anticoagulant)
  • Start an anticoagulant if cardiac source of emboli
  • Statin
  • ACE-i/ARB for blood pressure
  • No driving until seen by a specialist.

Modify risk factors e.g. stop smoking, less alcohol, exercise, diet, BP (aim for <145/85), hyperlipidaemia, diabetes mellitus.

Surgery: carotid endarterectomy to remove build-up of fatty deposits (plaque). If tolerated, preferred to angioplasty with stenting as less chance of stroke from procedure.

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18
Q

When does a low risk TIA patient need to be referred?

A

24 hours.

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19
Q

How long should someone not drive for after a TIA?

A

Should not drive for 1 month. If no residual defect after 1 month e.g. visual field defect, do not have to inform DVLA. If recurrent, a 3 month free period is needed.

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20
Q

What score is used to assess the risk of a stroke after a TIA?

A

ABCD2 to assess risk of stroke: max score is 7
• Age >=60 = 1 point
• Blood pressure at presentation >=140/90 = 1 point
• Clinical features:
• Unilateral weakness= 2 points
• Speech disturbance without weakness= 1 point
• Duration >=60 minutes= 2 points, 10-59 minutes= 1 point.
• Diabetes= 1 point.
High risk is ABCD2 >=4, AF, >1 TIA in one week, TIA whilst on anti-coagulation.
Low risk is none of the above, present >1 week after their last symptoms has resolved.

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21
Q

What is the prognosis of a TIA?

A

After 5 years, 30% have a stroke (1/3 in the first year). 1 in 12 go on to have a stroke within 1 week. 15% suffer from an MI.

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22
Q

What is a stroke?

A

A syndrome of rapidly developing onset neurological deficit caused by focal cerebral, spinal or retinal infarction or haemorrhage.

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23
Q

What are the types of stroke?

A
  • Ischaemic (85%)
  • Haemorrhagic (10%): intracerebral and subarachnoid
  • Other (5%): arterial dissection, venous sinus thrombosis, vasculitis.

50% are cerebral, 25% are brainstem and 25% are lacunar.

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24
Q

What are the causes of ischaemic stroke?

A

Atherosclerosis, thrombosis, embolus, shock:
• Thrombosis
• Large artery stenosis: acts as an embolic source
• Cardio-embolic: AF, MI, endocarditis, prosthetic valves, patent foramen ovale (allow passage of thrombosis from right atrium to left)/septal defects, valve disease
• Athereothromboembolism e.g. from carotid artery
• Shock: reduced blood flow through body
• Small-vessel disease: occlusive vasculopathy (lipohyalinosis) that leads to small infarcts called ‘lacunes’ and/or gradual accumulation of diffuse ischaemic change in deep white matter (consequence of hypertension)
• Hypoperfusion e.g. severe hypotension such as in cardiac arrest, may lead to border-zone infarction in the watershed areas between vascular territories (parieto-occipital area between MCA and PCA vulnerable)
• Vasculitis.

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25
Q

What are the causes of haemorrhage stroke?

A
  • Brain bleeds: trauma, aneurysm rupture causing subarachnoid haemorrhage, anticoagulation, thrombolysis, carotid artery dissection
  • Atherothromboembolism
  • Vasculitis.
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26
Q

What are the risk factors of stroke?

A

Increased blood pressure, smoking, diabetes mellitus, heart disease (vascular, ischaemic, AF), peripheral vascular disease, age, smoking, drinking alcohol, increased lipids, obesity, increased clotting (increased plasma fibrinogen and decreased antithrombin), combined pill, increased homocysteine, increased packed cell volume, carotid bruit, syphilis, past TIA, ethnicity (black or Asian).

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27
Q

What is the pathophysiology of an ischaemic stroke?

A

Usually atherosclerotic plaque or clot in large artery ruptures, travels downstream, and gets trapped in narrower artery of the brain. Ischaemia -> infarction -> death of neural tissue -> loss of functionality. Embolic strokes are common complications of AF and atherosclerosis of carotids.

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28
Q

What is the pathophysiology of haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Bleeding from a single vessel within the brain, high blood pressure being the main cause.

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29
Q

What are the symptoms for a stroke?

A

Anterior circulation infarcts (middle cerebral artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid, ophthalmic arteries):
• MCA infarction: contralateral hemiplegia (muscle weakness/paralysis) on one side of the body, facial weakness, contralateral sensory loss, dysphagia (speech problems only if stroke is in dominant hemisphere, Broca’s), aphasia (inability to understand is Wernicke’s or produce speech is Broca’s, in dominant hemisphere stroke), facial droop, eye deviation towards the affected eye
• ICA infarction: similar to MCA but collateral circulation may reduce the infarct size
• ACA infarction: less common than MCA, hemiparesis affecting the leg more than the arm (contralateral weakness and sensory loss of the lower limb) truncal ataxia, incontinence, drowsiness, logical thinking, personality, frontal lobe deficits e.g. apathy or apraxia.
• Cerebral hemisphere infarcts: most commonly occlusion of branch of MCA, with collateral circulation protecting the cortex, leading to infarction of the internal capsule (deep structures).
Posterior circulation infarcts:
• PCA infarction: contralateral hemianopia from unilateral lesions, cortical blindness from bilateral lesions (Anton’s syndrome), confusion or memory impairment because the PCA supplies the thalamus and posteromedial temporal lobe
• Posterior circulation (vertebrobasilar artery): more catastrophic due to wide region supplied. Disorders of balance and coordination
• Basilar artery thrombosis: high lesions cause midbrain infarction including coma and locked-in syndrome.
• Cerebellar infarcts
• Brainstem infarcts: includes basilar artery thrombosis. Also lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome) which is caused by occlusion of posterior inferior cerebellar artery. Presents with sudden vomiting and vertigo, Horner’s syndrome, ipsilateral facial numbness, dysarthria, limb ataxia, dysphagia and contralateral loss of pain and temperature
• Lacunar infarcts (basal ganglia, internal capsule, thalamus and pons): often symptomless.

Haemorrhage: headaches, altered mental status, seizures, nausea and vomiting.

Watershed/border zone infarctions: causes by severe cerebral hypoperfusion such as hypotension after cardiac arrest. Ischaemia in the border zones between areas supplied by the ACA, MCA and PCA. Affects the parieto-occipito cortex, hippocampi and motor pathways. Complex patterns of visual loss e.g. Balint’s syndrome, memory loss, intellectual impairment, motor deficits and a vegetative state in prolonged cerebral hypoperfusion.

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30
Q

Signs

A
  • Slurred speech
  • Arm/leg weakness
  • Facial drooping.
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31
Q

What is the treatment for a stroke?

A

Immediate (within 1 hour):
• CT scan
• Bloods: FBC (look for thrombocytopenia and polycythaemia), blood glucose (rule out hypoglycaemia), clotting studies if anticoagulated.
Further (within 24 hours):
• Bloods: FBC, ESR, glucose, lipids, clotting studies
• ECG and later 24 hour ECG: look for AF and cardioembolic stroke
• Carotid Doppler studies: in patients with anterior circulation stroke.
Others:
• CT or MR angiography for carotid artery stenosis
• MRI brain scan with dissection protocol
• Cardiac monitoring
• Vasculitis screen: increased ESR, ANCA, VDRL test for syphilis
• Antiphospholipid antibodies (antiphospholipid syndrome is prothrombotic)
• Thrombophilia screen
• Genetics for CADASIL and mitochondrial disorders
• Alpha-galactosidase for Fabry’s disease
• Drugs of abuse screen e.g. cocaine
• Chest X-ray to look for cardiomegaly (enlarged left atrium)
• Hypertension: look for retinopathy, nephropathy or cardiomegaly
• Look for hypoglycaemia, hyperglycaemia, dyslipidaemia, hyperhomocysteinaemia
• Check for hyperviscosity: e.g. polycythaemia, sickle-cell disease
• Check for thrombocytopenia and other bleeding disorders.

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32
Q

What is the management for a stroke?

A

Low risk:
• Refer for specialist assessment within 7 days of the onset of symptoms
• Start aspirin immediately and them move to clopidogrel or continue current standard dose if already on an antiplatelet (unless on an anticoagulant)
• Start an anticoagulant if cardiac source of emboli
• Statin
• ACE-i/ARB for blood pressure
• No driving until seen by a specialist.

High risk:
• Assessment within 24 hours
• As above.

Modify risk factors e.g. stop smoking, less alcohol, exercise, diet, BP (aim for <145/85), hyperlipidaemia, diabetes mellitus.

Surgery: carotid endarterectomy to remove build-up of fatty deposits (plaque). If tolerated, preferred to angioplasty with stenting as less chance of stroke from procedure.

  1. Immediate general medical measures: airway, oxygen by mask, monitor blood pressure
  2. Determine if thromboprophylaxis is appropriate: if so, immediate brain imaging
  3. Brain imaging: CT to exclude haemorrhage and will show other pathology and sometimes infarction (<1 hour). MRI is best for acute infarct
  4. If CT excludes haemorrhage, give immediate thrombolytic therapy (should be <4.5 hours after onset of symptoms), alteplase therapy. CI if stroke or head injury in last 3 months, history of intracranial haemorrhage, GI bleed in the last 21 days, major surgery in the last 14 days. IV alteplase is a tissue plasminogen activator. If CI, give aspirin. If CT confirms haemorrhage, give no drugs that could interfere with clotting.
  5. Admit to MDT stroke unit: assess swallowing, start thromboembolism prophylaxis.
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33
Q

What is a migraine?

A

A recurrent throbbing headache often preceded by an aura and associated with nausea, vomiting and visual changes.

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34
Q

What is the most common cause of episodic (recurrent) headache?

A

Migraine.

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35
Q

When does the incidence of migraines increase?

A

In females in reproductive years, suggesting hormones have an influence.

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36
Q

What is a migraine with aura?

A

May affect the patient’s eyesight with visual phenomena such as fortification spectra (zig-zag lines), shimmering or scotomas (black holes in visual field) but may also result in pins and needles, dysphagia and rarely weakness of limbs and motor function.

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37
Q

What is a variant migraine?

A

Unilateral motor or sensory symptoms resembling a stroke.

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38
Q

What are the triggers of migraine?

A
Remember CHOCOLATE:
•	C hocolate
•	H angovers
•	O rgasms
•	C heese
•	O ral contraceptives
•	L ie-ins
•	A lcohol
•	T umult (loud noise)
•	E xercise.
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39
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a migraine?

A

Changes in the arterial brainstem blood flow which causes unstable trigeminal nerve nuclei in the basal thalamus and causes release of vasoactive neuropeptides (CGRP and substance P). Leads to neurogenic inflammation, vasodilation and plasma protein extravasation.
In aura, the cortical spreading depression is a self propagating wave of neuronal and glial depolarisation that spreads across the cortex.

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40
Q

What are the 4 diagnostic symptoms of migraine without aura?

A
A.	5 attacks fulfilling B-D
B.	Attacks last 4-72 hours
C.	Two of the following:
Unilateral
Pulsing
Moderate/severe
Aggravated by routine physical exercise
D.	During headache at least one of:
Nausea and/or vomiting
Photophobia (light sensitive) and phonophobia (sound sensitive).
These are often premenstrual.
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41
Q

What are the 3 diagnostic criteria of migraine with aura?

A

A. At least 2 attacks fulfilling B and C
B. One or more reversible aura symptom:
Visual: zigzags, spots
Unilateral sensory: tingling numbness
Motor weakness: known as ‘hemiplegic migraine’ so rule out stroke and TIA
C. Two or more of the following 4:
One or more aura symptoms spread gradually over 5 minutes and/or two or more aura symptoms occurring in succession
Each aura symptom lasts 5-60 minutes
One or more aura symptom is unilateral
Aura accompanies/followed within 60 minutes by headache.

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42
Q

What is prodrome?

A

Prodrome occurs a while before the migraine and is a weird feeling of: yawning, cravings, mood/sleep changes.

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43
Q

What are the investigations of a migraine?

A

Mainly based on clinical diagnosis.
Neuroimaging.
Examine:
• Eyes for papilloedema and other eye issues
• Blood pressure
• Head and neck.
Exclude other causes (including mass lesions):
• Lab tests for CRP and ESR
Neuroimaging indications red flags:
• Worst/severe thunderclap headache: subarachnoid haemorrhage
• Change in pattern of migraine
• Abnormal neurological exam
• Onset over 50 years
• Epilepsy
• Posteriorly located headache.
Lumbar puncture indications:
• Worst headache of life, thunderclap: subarachnoid haemorrhage
• Severe rapid onset headache, progressive headaches, unresponsible headaches.

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44
Q

What are the differentials for migraine?

A
  • Tension headache (bilateral, tight band around head)
  • Cluster headache
  • Medication over-use headache
  • Meningitis (fever, photophobia, stiff neck, purpuric rash, coma)
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhage (‘worst headache ever’, often occipital. neck stiff, focal signs, decreased consciousness)
  • Tumour
  • Cervical spondylosis
  • TIAs may mimic migraine aura
  • Encephalitis (fever, odd behaviour, fits or reduced consciousness).
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45
Q

What is the management of a migraine?

A

Conservative: avoid triggers and ensure analgesic rebound headache s not a problem.

Acute attacks:
• Mild: NSAID/paracetamol +/- anti-emetic
• Severe: oral triptan e.g. sumatriptan or nasal in 12-17 year olds.

Non-pharmalogical: warm or cold packs to the head, or rebreathing into paper bag (increase PaCO2) may help abort attacks. Butterbur extracts or riboflaxin supplementation. Transcutaneous nerve stimulation may help.

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46
Q

What is the prophylaxis of a migraine?

A
  1. Propranolol (beta-blocker) or Topiramate (anti-convulsant)
  2. Acupuncture (10 sessions over 5-8 weeks)
  3. Amitriptyline (tricyclic anti-depressant)
  4. Botulinum toxin type A (only if not responded to at least 3 prior pharnalogical therapies and whose condition is appropriately managed for medication overdose).
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47
Q

When do migraines often improve?

A

Migraine often improves in pregnancy but if not they are associated with greater risk of pre-eclampsia and cardiovascular complications. First line is paracetamol. Triptans and NSAIDs can be used but discuss risks. Don’t use aspirin if breastfeeding . Anti-emetic: cyclizine or promethazine.

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48
Q

What increases the incidence of migraine?

A

Incidence of migraine usually with aura and ischaemic stroke is increased by use of combined oral contraceptive pill.

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49
Q

What should be used in perimenstrural migraine on the days a migraine is expected?

A

If uncontrolled with standard treatment and predictable, consider use of frovatriptan or zolmitriptan on the days migraine is expected.

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50
Q

What are the types of tension headaches?

A

Can be episodic (<15 days per month) or chronic (>15 days per month for at least 3 months).

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51
Q

What are the types of headache?

A
Primary (syndromes based on symptoms):
•	Migraine
•	Cluster
•	Tension.
Secondary (associated with something else):
•	Meningitis
•	Subarachnoid haemorrhage
•	Giant cell arteritis
•	Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
•	Medication overuse headache.
Other:
•	Trigeminal Neuralgia (facial pain).
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52
Q

What causes tension headaches?

A
Neurovascular irritation which refers to scalp muscles and soft tissues. Remember MC SCOLD:
•	Missed meals
•	Conflict
•	Stress
•	Clenched jaw
•	Overexertion
•	Lack of sleep
•	Depression.
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53
Q

What are the symptoms of a tension headache?

A

A. 10 or more attacks occurring less than 1 day per month (less than 12 days per year) and fulfilling B-D
B. Headache lasting 30 minutes to 7 days
C. Headache has two of the following:
Bilateral
Pressing/tightening (non-pulsatile) quality
Mild or moderate intensity/pain
Not aggravated by routine physical activity (e.g. walking or climbing stairs)
D. Both of the following:
No nausea or vomiting (anorexia may occur)
No more than one of photophobia and phonophobia
E. Not attributed to another disorder.

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54
Q

What is the management of a tension headache?

A
  • Reassurance and lifestyle advice
  • Stress relief by massage or acupuncture
  • Avoidance of cause
  • Medication e.g. paracetamol, NSAIDs (ibuprofen, diclofenac) or aspirin
  • Tricyclic anti-depressants e.g. amitriptyline
  • Avoid opioids
  • Limit analgesics to no more than 6 days per month to reduce risk of medication overuse headaches.
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55
Q

What is the most disabling of the primary headache disorders?

A

Cluster headaches.

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56
Q

What are the types of cluster headache?

A

Episodic: 2 or more cluster periods lasting 7 days to 1 year (usually 2-3 weeks) separated by pain free periods lasting one or more months.
Chronic: attack occurring for one or more years without remission or with remission lasting less than one month.

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57
Q

What are the triggers of cluster headaches?

A
Remember CHOCOLATE:
•	C hocolate
•	H angovers
•	O rgasms
•	C heese
•	O ral contraceptives
•	L ie-ins
•	A lcohol
•	T umult (loud noise)
•	E xercise.
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58
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for cluster headache?

A

A. At least 5 headache attacks fulfilling B-D
B. Severe or very severe unilateral orbital, supraorbital and/or temporal pain lasting 15-180 minutes if untreated and rises to crescendo
C. Headache is accompanied by ipsilateral cranial autonomic features and/or sense of restlessness or agitation
D. Attacks have a frequency from 1 every other day to 8 per day.

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59
Q

What are the symptoms of a cluster headache?

A

Rapid onset of excruciating pain around one eye that may become watery and bloodshot. Deemed to have a boring/hot poker characteristic.
Associated with ipsilateral eye lacrimation and redness, facial flushing, rhinorrhoea (blocked nose), miosis (excessive pupil constriction) and/or ptosis (drooping or falling of upper eyelid).
Usually occur in the middle of the night or morning hours. Occurs once or twice a day, usually at the same time.
Pain raises to a crescendo over a few minutes and lasts for 15-180 minutes (average 30-100).

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60
Q

What is the management for acute attacks of cluster headaches?

A

Acute attacks: SC sumatriptan, IM Zolmitriptan, 100% oxygen therapy (unless they have COPD).

61
Q

What is prophylaxis for cluster headaches?

A

First line: verapamil (calcium channel blocker), lithium, corticosteroids.

62
Q

What is trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Chronic, debilitating condition resulting in intense and extreme episodes of pain. Knife like pain.

63
Q

Who is trigeminal neuralgia most common in?

A
  • Peak incidence between 50-60
  • Female>male
  • Prevalence increases with age
  • May be due to genetic disposition.
64
Q

What causes trigeminal neuralgia?

A

• Vein or artery compressing the trigeminal nerve
• Local pathology pressing on trigeminal nerve (more common in younger people) e.g. aneurysms, meningeal inflammation, tumours (e.g. vestibular schwannoma)
• 5th nerve lesion:
Brain stem: tumour, MS, infarction
Cerebellopontine angle: acoustic neuroma, other tumour
Petrous bone: spreading middle ear infection
Cavernous sinus: internal carotid aneurysm, tumour, thrombosis of cavernous sinus.

65
Q

What is the pathophysiology of trigeminal neuralgia?

A

The trigeminal nerve (CNS) has both motor and sensory functions and enters the brain at the level of the Pons. It has three divisions: ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular. Compression of the trigeminal nerve results in demyelination and excitation resulting in erratic pain signalling.

66
Q

What are the symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia?

A

A. At least 3 attacks of unilateral facial pain fulfilling B and D
B. Occurring in one or more distributions of the trigeminal nerve, with no radiation beyond the trigeminal distribution
C. Pain has at least 3 of the following:
Reoccurring in paroxysmal attacks from 1 second to 2 minutes
Severe intensity
Electric shock like, shooting, stabbing or sharp
Precipitated by innocuous stimuli to the affected side of the face
D. No clinically evident neurological deficit.
Paroxysms of intense, stabbing pain, lasting seconds in the trigeminal nerve distribution.

67
Q

What is the investigation in trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Exclude secondary causes or other pathologies.

68
Q

What is the management for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

First line: carbamezapine (anti-convulsant)
Second line: Iamtrigine, phenytoin, gabapentin (analgesic targeted for neuropathic pain).
Surgical (may be directed at the peripheral nerve, trigeminal ganglion or nerve root):
• Microvascular decompression: relieves pressure on the nerve by separating blood vessels touching the nerve or wrapped around it
• Stereotactic radiotherapy: concentrated beam of radiotherapy to deliberately damage the trigeminal nerve where it enters the brainstem. Length of pain and time to treat are limiting factors.

69
Q

What is a raised intracranial pressure headache?

A

Intracranial pressure >15mmHg. Untreated raised ICP can lead to permanent sight loss, neurological deficit and death.

70
Q

What are the causes of raised intracranial pressure headaches?

A

Tumours.

71
Q

What is the pathophysiology of raised intracranial pressure headaches?

A

As volume of lesion increases, initially there isn’t a rise in ICP. This is because there is a compensatory reduction in CS. Will be able to see tight ventricles. This can only go so far and so the pressure begins to rise. There is an exponential rise in pressure:
• Initially there is a given increase in pressure for a given increase in volume
• As pressure increases, there is a greater increase in pressure for the same amount of volume.
As lesion begins to expand, it pushes on adjacent structures. Begin to get pressure gradients across areas of division across the skull which causes displacement of tissue (foramen magnum and tentorium cerebelli).
Sometimes, the outflow tract to ventricle is blocked and so there is paradoxical expansion of the ventricle.

72
Q

What is an indicator of raised ICP?

A

Ipsilateral pupillary dysfunction dilatation is indicator of raised ICP. Occulomotor nerve compression causes an eye that is deviated down and out. Also carries parasympathetic innervation to pupil which arises from Edinger Westphal nucleus ad those parasympathetic travel along the oculomotor nerve whereas sympathetic fibres come from sympathetic chain coming up from the vessels. This gives unbalanced sympathetic tone so lose parasympathetic tone and pupil dilation.
Compression of the PCA. The PCA supplies occipital lobe so may get secondary infarction of occipital lobe.

73
Q

What are the symptoms of a raised ICP headache?

A

Headache, nausea and vomiting.

74
Q

What are the signs of a raised ICP headache?

A
  • Worse on waking (CSF redistribution when lying flat increases pressure around brain)
  • Worse when coughing, sneezing, straining
  • Postural: worse when lying down
  • Papilloedema: may be present if acute
  • Pupillary changes
  • +/- focal signs.
75
Q

What are the investigations in raised ICP headache?

A

• Head CT
• Ophthalmology review.
Not a lumbar puncture as there is a risk of coning, at least until after imaging.

76
Q

What is the treatment for a raised ICP headache?

A

IV Mannitol.
Surgical: shunt, decompression.
Dexamethasone.

77
Q

How long does a medication overuse headache have to be for?

A

Headache present on 15 or more days per month.

78
Q

What causes a medication overuse headache?

A

Regular use for more than 3 months of one or more symptomatic treatment drugs:
• Ergotamine, triptans, opioids or combination analgesic (paracetamol + codeine/opioid) medications on 10 or more days per month or for more than 3 months
• Simple analgesics or any combination of ergotamine, triptans, analgesic opioids on 15 or more days per month or more than 3 months on a regular basis without overdose of any single class alone.

79
Q

What is the management for medication overuse headache?

A

Analgesia must be withdrawn.
Aspirin or naproxen for the rebound headache.
Limit over the counter analgesic drug use to no more than 6 days per month.

80
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

Inflammation of the brain parenchyma. Confusion due to direct inflammation of the brain. Consider whenever odd behaviour and decreased consciousness is accompanied with an infectious prodrome (high temperature, rash).

81
Q

Who is encephalitis more common in?

A

Infections more frequent in children and elderly.

82
Q

What are the causes of encephalitis?

A
Usually viral:
•	Herpes simplex (by far the most common)
•	Varicella zoster (chicken pox)
•	Measles
•	Mumps
•	Rubella
•	EBV
•	HIV
•	CMV
•	Coxsackie.
Other causes:
•	TB
•	Malaria
•	Japanese encephalitis virus
•	Tick-borne encephalitis
•	Rabies
•	West nile
•	Lyme disease
•	toxoplasmosis.
Non-infective:
•	Autoimmune
•	Paraneoplastic.
83
Q

Where does encephalitis mainly affect?

A

Affects mainly the frontal and temporal lobes resulting in decreased consciousness, confusion and focal signs.

84
Q

What are the symptoms of encephalitis?

A
Hours to days before presentation:
•	Preceding “flu-like” illness.
Then triad of:
•	Altered GCS: confusion, drowsiness and coma
•	Fever
•	Headache.
Also, less commonly:
•	Seizures
•	Memory loss
•	Hemiparesis
•	Dysphagia
•	+/- history of meningism (stiff neck, vomiting and headache) if it has progressed to encephalitis from meningitis.
Symptoms of raised ICP (vertigo, nausea, severe headache and photophobia).
85
Q

What are the investigations in encephalitis?

A

MRI head: to show swelling/inflammation +/- midline shifting due to raised ICP. Often bilateral but can be asymmetrical.
EEG: shows periodic sharp and slow waves.
Lumbar puncture (after imaging): raised lymphocytic CSF, take CSF for viral PCR
HIV test: acute phase viraemia can cause encephalitis.
Bloods: FBC, U&Es, LFTs, TFTs, B12, lactate.
Blood cultures and gram stain.
CT to check for space occupying lesions.

86
Q

What does ICP cause of an MRI?

A

Midline shift. Often bilateral but can be asymmetrical.

87
Q

What is the treatment for encephalitis?

A

Mostly supportive.
IV Aciclovir if suspected HSV or VZV.
If seizures, give Carbamazepine.
If meningitis is suspected, give IM benzyl penicillin.
Be careful with fluids as could cause a cerebral oedema.
Sedatives may be needed.

88
Q

What is shingles (herpes zoster)?

A

Shingles is a painful rash caused be the reactivation of a nerve infection caused by the varicella-zoster virus. Less infectious than the first infection.

89
Q

What causes herpes zoster shingles?

A

Initial infection of Herpes Zoster (varicella-zoster) causes chicken pox. Reactivation causes shingles.

90
Q

What are the risk factors for shingles?

A

Old age, immunocompromised, chicken pox in <18 months age, HIV, malignancy.

91
Q

What is the pathophysiology of shingles?

A

Viral infection affecting the peripheral nerves. First presents in childhood as chicken pox and then Varicella lies dormant in the dorsal root ganglion. When reactivated, it travels down the affected peripheral nerve via the sensory root in dermatomal distribution over 3-4 days and this causes perineural and intramural inflammation.

92
Q

What are the symptoms in shingles?

A
  • Pre-eruptive: no skin lesions but burning itching in one dermatome, usually a day or two before eruption
  • Dermatomal distribution of red, painful rash and pain (most commonly cervical, trigeminal, thoracis and lumbar dermatomes). Rash does not cross dermatomes
  • Malaise, myalgia, headache and fever
  • Itching
  • Fluid filled blisters
  • Stabbing/burning pain.
93
Q

What are the signs of shingles?

A

Rash that consists of papules and vesicles restricted to the same dermatome:
• Neuritic pain
• Crust formation and drying occurs over next week with resolution in 2-3 weeks
• Rash does not extend outside dermatome.

94
Q

What are the investigations in shingles?

A
Often a clinical diagnosis.
Other:
•	PCR test
•	CSF analysis
•	Bloods and cultures.
95
Q

What is the management for shingles?

A

Oral Aciclovir, valacyclovir, famiciclovir (antiviral therapy).
If immunosuppressed, treat with IV acyclovir.
Analgesia.
Antipyretics.

96
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges.

97
Q

What is the most common cause of encephalitis?

A

Herpes simplex.

98
Q

Who is meningitis more common in?

A

Inflammation of the meninges.

99
Q

Is meningitis a notifiable disease?

A

Yes.

100
Q

Is bacterial or viral meningitis more serious?

A

Bacterial.

101
Q

Is bacterial or viral meningitis more common?

A

Viral.

102
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of meningitis in adults?

A

Strep pneumoniae.

103
Q

What type of bacteria is strep pneumoniae?

A

Gram positive diplococci.

104
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of meningitis in neonates?

A

Strep. Agalactaie and E.coli.

105
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of meningitis in pregnancy and immunosuppression?

A

Listeria monocytogene.

106
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of meningitis in teenagers?

A

Neisseria meningitis.

107
Q

What is the rash associated with Neisseria meningitis?

A

Non-blanching purpuric rash, necrosis, high mortality.

108
Q

What are the causes of meningitis?

A
Bacteria (more serious)l:
•	Strep pneumoniae: most common in adults, gram positive diplococci
•	Neisseria meningitis: gram negative diplococci. 5-11% adult carriage, 25% in teenagers. If in blood culture think meningococcal septicaemia (non-blanching purpuric rash, necrosis, high mortality).
•	Strep. Agalactaie and E.coli: neonates
•	Listeria monocytogene: pregnant and older women, associated with immunosuppression
•	Group B strep: carried by up to 30% of pregnant women
•	Haemophilus influenzae B: children
•	Leptospira
•	Rickettsia
•	TB (presents with chronic)
•	Syphilis (presents with chronic)
Viral (more common):
•	Coxsackie virus
•	Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
•	Varicella Zoster virus (VZV)
•	Enterovirus
•	HIV
•	Mumps
•	Echovirus
•	Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
•	EBV
•	Polio (very rare).
Fungal:
•	Mainly in the immunosuppressed
•	Cryptococcal presents with chronic
Parasitic:
•	P.Falciparum.
Non-infective (occur with chronic presentation):
•	Paraneoplastic: cancer can cause inflammation which presents similarly
•	Drug side effects
•	Autoimmune e.g. vasculitis/SLE
109
Q

Is protein high or low in the causes of meningitis?

A

High.

110
Q

What is the staining for bacterial meningitis?

A

Organisms seen on gram film.

111
Q

What is the staining for viral meningitis?

A

No organisms seen.

112
Q

What is the staining for TB meningitis?

A

Organisms seen on Phenol auramine/Ziehl Neelson stain.

113
Q

What is the staining for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Organisms seen on India ink stain.

114
Q

What are the risk factors for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

HIV, immunocompromised.

115
Q

What are the risk factors for bacterial meningitis?

A

Students, travel and immunosuppressed.

116
Q

What is seen in microscopy of CSF in bacterial meningitis?

A

Polymorphs (neutrophils).

117
Q

What is seen in microscopy of CSF in viral, TB and cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Lymphocytes.

118
Q

What is the appearance of the CSF in bacterial meningitis?

A

Cloudy.

119
Q

What is the appearance of the CSF in viral meningitis?

A

Clear.

120
Q

What is the appearance of the CSF in TB meningitis?

A

Fibrin web.

121
Q

What is the appearance of the CSF in cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Fibrin web.

122
Q

What are the glucose levels like in the CSF of meningitis?

A

Bacterial: low.
Viral: normal.
TB: low.
Cryptococcal: low.

123
Q

What is the sign for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

High opening pressure.

124
Q

What is the pathophysiology of meningitis?

A

The brain and the CSF should be sterile and contain no bacteria. Bacteria can get in through different routes:
• Neurosurgical complications: post-op, infected shunts, trauma
• Extracranial infection: ear (otitis media), nasopharynx, sinuses (sinusitis)
• Via the blood stream: e.g. bacteraemic seeding.
Once the CSF is infected, the pathogen can multiply and replicate because there are no immune cells because the blood-brain barrier prevents movement from the blood. Eventually the white blood cells enter into the CSF, meninges and brain due to the blood vessels becoming leaky and this causes meningeal inflammation +/- brain swelling.

125
Q

What are the symptoms of meningitis?

A
  • Fever
  • Headache
  • Neck stiffness: “meningism”. May not be able to touch chin to neck.
  • Purpuric rash: only in bacterial. A non-blanching plupurent rash (petechiae) is meningococcal septicaemia
  • Photophobia and/or phonophobia
  • Papilloedema: swelling of the optic disc on fundoscopy. Usually bilateral
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Irritability
  • Progressive drowsiness.
126
Q

What is the rash in a meningococcal septicaemia?

A

A non-blanching plupurent rash (petechiae).

127
Q

What are the signs of meningitis?

A
  • Kernig’s sign: when the patient is lying with hip flexed at 90 degreed, knee cannot be fully extended without causing back pain
  • Brudinski’s sign: passive flexion of the neck causes flexion of both legs and thighs
  • Glass test: blanching or non-blanching pupuric rash.
128
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation in meningitis?

A
Lumbar puncture is diagnostic. It is done after GCS, blood cultures, broad spectrum antibiotics and steroids. Looks for:
•	Microscopy
•	Gram stain
•	Culture
•	Protein (raised)
•	Glucose (less than 2/3) blood
•	Viral PCR
•	Consider Acid Fast Bacilli (TB) and histology (for tumours).
129
Q

Why is the CSF cloudy in meningitis?

A

Pus.

130
Q

What are the CI to a lumbar puncture?

A
  • Abnormal clotting (platelets/coagulation)
  • Petechial/purpura rash: because suggests bloodborne virus so could introduce bacteria into CSF by doing so
  • Raised ICP: papilloedema, risk of coning
  • Shock.
131
Q

What is the management of meningitis?

A
  1. Assess GCS: how sick the patient is. The lower the score, the worse they are. Establishes if they can maintain their own airway so if <8, intubate. Assesses if there is any raised ICP.
  2. Blood cultures before antibiotics
  3. Broad spectrum antibiotics:
    First line: Cefotaxime or Ceftriaxone because they get through the blood-brain barrier and they are bacteriacidal.
    Special considerations:
    Penicillin allergy: 10% chance if they react to penicillin, they will react to cephalosporins. If reaction is usually just a rash, continue. If it is anaphylaxis, give chloramphenicol.
    Immunocompromised: risk of listeria, add in high dose amoxicillin
    Recent travel: risk of penicillin resistance.
    The patient can then be changed to a targeted antibiotic once the cultures are back e.g. for Neisseria give IV benzylpenicillin.
  4. Steroids: IV dexamethasone. Reduces the neurological sequelae and therefore reduces morbidity, particularly with strep. Pneuomiae/pneumococcas infection.

Prophylaxis for close contacts:
• Rifampicin (2 day course, also a TB drug)
• Ciplofloxacin (one off).

If viral cause, no specific treatment. Just use analgesia, antipyretics and hydration. Aciclovir for herpetic infection.

If viral cause, no specific treatment. Just use analgesia, antipyretics and hydration. Aciclovir for herpetic infection.

132
Q

What is the prophylaxis for close contact of meningitis?

A
  • Rifampicin (2 day course, also a TB drug)

* Ciplofloxacin (one off).

133
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

Chronic autoimmune, T-cell mediated inflammatory disorder of the CNS in which there are multiple plaques of demyelination within the brain and spinal cord, occurring sporadically over years. Repeated episodes if inflammation of nervous tissue in brain and spinal cord.

134
Q

When is multiple sclerosis most commonly diagnosed?

A

Women aged 20-40.

135
Q

What are the variations in the progression of multiple sclerosis?

A

Relapsing/remitting MS: most common. Clearly defined disease relapses with full recovery or partial recovery with residual deficits. Periods between disease relapses have no increase in disability between bouts.
Primary progressive: disease progression from onset with occasional plateaus and temporary minor improvements but no relapses or remissions. 10-15% of people at onset.
Secondary progressive: initial relapsing-remitting disease course followed by continuous progression with or without occasional relapses, minor remissions and plateaus. 50% of those with relapsing/remitting will develop this.
Progressive/relapsing: progressive disease from onset, with clear acute relapses with or without full recovery, with periods between relapsed characterised by continuing progression.

136
Q

What is the cause of multiple sclerosis?

A

Inflammatory process in brain and spinal cord mediated by CD4T cells and B cells. Exposure to EBV in early life predisposes development.

137
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is multiple sclerosis?

A

It is a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction (cell-mediated).

138
Q

What is the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis?

A

Myelin is produced by oligodendrocytes in the CNS. Autoimmune mediated demyelination at multiple CNS sites results in discrete plaques of demyelination which affects the white matter of the brain and specifically the oligodendrocytes.

It is thought to be T cell mediated so T cells activate B cells to produce auto-antibodies against myelin. Once T lymphocytes cross the blood brain barrier, they can cause a cascade of destruction to the neuronal cells in the brain. This results in demyelination and loss of myelin sheath along the CNS and therefore conduction is disrupted along axons. This slows/blocks transmission of signal to and from the brain. Although the myelin sheath does regenerate, the new myelin is less efficient and temperature dependant. When exposed to high heat, conduction through new myelin drastically decreases.

E.g. if loss of myeline around the optic nerve, vision loss. This will recover after a while but if stress occurs on optic nerve after it’s recovered e.g. hot shower, then blurred vision returns. This is known as Uhtoff’s phenomenon (worsening of neurological symptoms in MS when body gets overheated from hot weather, exercise, saunas and hot tubs).

Peripheral nerves are never effected.

Plaques of demyelination are perivenular (occur around a vein) and occur everywhere in the CNS but commonly at:
• Optic nerves (optic neuritis is often first presentation)
• Around ventricles of the brain
• Corpus callosum
• Brainstem and cerebellar connections
• Cervical spinal cord.

139
Q

What produces myelin?

A

Oligodendrocytes in the CNS.

140
Q

What is the classification of multiple sclerosis?

A
  • Pattern 1: macrophage mediated
  • Pattern 2: antibody mediated. Lots of inflammation, those patients respond to certain therapies such as plasma exchange.
  • Pattern 3: distal oligodendrogliopathy and apoptosis (ischaemic/toci, virus induced)
  • Pattern 4: primary oligodendoglia degeneration (metabolic defect).
141
Q

What are the symptoms of multiple sclerosis?

A
Depends on the region effected.
Due to the fact that it is cerebral white matter, Charcot’s neurological triad:
•	Dysarthria: due to plaques in brainstem. Difficult or unclear speech, can affect eating, talking, swallowing.
•	Intention tremor: due to plaques along motor pathways. Muscle weakness and spasms, tremors, ataxia, paralysis
•	Nystagmus: due to plaques in nerves of eye. Loss of vision, optic neuritis, painful eye movements, double vision.
Cerebral hemisphere:
•	Large variety of symptoms by also silent lesions
•	Depends on which hemisphere.
Spinal cord:
•	Lhermitte’s sign: electric shock runs down back and radiates to limbs
•	Bladder and sexual dysfunction
•	Weakness
•	Paraplegia
•	Spasticity
•	Tingling
•	Numbness.
Optic nerves:
•	Impaired vision
•	Eye pain.
Medulla and pons:
•	Dysarthria
•	Double vision
•	Vertigo
•	Nystagmus.
142
Q

What are the signs of multiple sclerosis?

A
For typical, remember LOSS NB:
L hermitte’s sign
O ptic neuritis: impaired vision and eye pain
S pasticity and other pyramidal signs
S ensory symptoms and signs
N ystagmus, double vision and vertigo
B ladder and sexual dysfunction.

Exacerbated by heat e.g. showers, hot weather, saunas (Uhtoff’s phenomenon). Improved by cool temperatures.

143
Q

What exacerbates the pain in multiple sclerosis?

A

Heat e.g. showers.

Improved by cool temperatures.

144
Q

What is the gold standard investigation in multiple sclerosis?

A

MRI with contrast: active lesions will take up the contrast and appear white in colour.

145
Q

What are the investigations in multiple sclerosis?

A

Gold standard: MRI with contrast: active lesions will take up the contrast and appear white in colour
• Two or more lesions disseminated in time and space: need to be sure that it affects two parts of nervous system e.g. brain and spinal cord, optic nerve and brain. More than one attack spaced out in time e.g. optic neuritis last year, now present with weakness in both legs.
• Exclusion of conditions giving a similar clinical picture
• Lumbar puncture with CSF electrophoresis: as inflammation is confined to the nervous system, inflammatory proteins are found in the CSF not serum. Electrophoresis will show oligoclonal IgG bands which means CNS inflammation
• Evoked potentials: e.g. visual evoked potential (VEP), tests how long it takes the impulse to travel. Delayed, visual, brainstem, auditory, somatosensory potentials. E.g. simulate optic nerve and measure time for impulse to go from eye to occipital cortex. As there is demyelination, conduction will be slower.
• Bloods: B12, FBC, U&Es, LFTs, TFTs, HIV serology, calcium, glucose.

146
Q

What is the management of multiple sclerosis?

A

No cure.
Acute attacks (in relapsing-remitting MS): IV methylprednisolone (short course of steroid).
Chronic:
• First line (frequent relapse): SC beta interferon (CI in pregnancy) and glatiramer acetate.
• Second line (disease modifying): IV alemtuzumab (CD52 monoclonal antibody that targets T cells) or IV natalizumab (acts against VLA-4 receptors that allow immune cells to cross the blood brain barrier and therefore reduces the number of cells that can enter the CNS and cause damage).
Symptoms management:
• Tremor: beta blocker
• Muscle spasticity: mild to moderate give oral medications e.g. diazepam, baclofen (GABA analogue that reduces Ca2+ influx). In focal disabling spasticity give peripheral nerve blockers e.g. phenol, alcohol, botulinum toxin.
General rehabilitation:
• Removal of trigger factors e.g. UTI, bed sores
• Physical treatments e.g. physio
• Neuropathic pain: gabapentin.
Orthotic devices:
• Wrist bands containing small weights
• Computer controlled mechanical damping devices.
Thalamic surgery:
• Sterotactic thalamotomy
• Thalamic electrostimulation.

147
Q

What is the criteria for diagnosis of multiple sclerosis?

A

McDonald criteria.

148
Q

Should the DVLA be informed in multiple sclerosis?

A

Yes.