Neurological Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

Define Epilepsy

A

Chronic neurological condition characterised by recurrent seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Seizure

A

Transient neurological change due to synchronous hyperexcited neuronal activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give 5 causes of unprovoked seizures

A
Genetic
Structural (eg congenital malformation)
Metabolic 
Immune
Infection (HIV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Epilepsy

A

Due to imbalance of excitatory and inhibitory signals in the brain

High frequency excitable Action Potentials lead to synchronous hyperexcitable activity and propagation to other neurones

Transformed long lasting structural/biochemical changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name three risk factors for Epilepsy

A

Cerebral infections
Family history
Prematurity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How can you classify seizure type?

A

Area of onset
Awareness
Clinical Features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the subtypes of ‘area of onset’ in epilepsy

A

Focal (networks of neurones in one hemisphere)
Generalised (affecting both hemispheres)
Focal to Bilateral (Secondary Generalised Seizure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the subtypes of ‘awareness’ in epilepsy

A

Fully aware
Impaired Awareness

Only relevant for Partial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the subtypes of ‘Clinical Features’ in epilepsy

A
Motor (Tonic, Clonic, Myoclonic, Atonic, Spasms)
Non Motor (any sensory/cognitive/emotional dysfunction or generalised absence)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name four epilepsy classifications

A

Focal
Generalised
Generalised and Focal
Unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name two Epilepsy Syndromes

A

West Syndrome

Lennox Gastout Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the four periods of different clinical features in Epilepsy?

A

Prodromal
Early Ictal (ie Aura - normally seen in general)
Ictal
Post Ictal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is Epilepsy diagnosed?

A

One of:

  • More than two unprovoked seizures occurring more than 24h apart
  • 1 unprovoked seizure with probability of further
  • Diagnosed epilepsy syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give three differentials for Epilepsy

A

Anoxic Seizures
Sleep Associated
Migraine Associated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is an EEG used in suspected Epilepsy?

A

To support diagnosis, assess recurrence risk and determine seizure type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is an MRI required in Epilepsy?

A

<2 years old
Refractory to AEDs
Focal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name four education/safety points in terms of Epilepsy

A

Avoid taking baths
Avoid operating heavy machinery
Always use contraception while on AEDs
Inform DVLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the DVLAs rules on driving after seizures?

A
First seizure - 6m
Epileptic Seizure - 12m
No LOC - ask DVLA
First Seizure + Lorry - 5y
Epileptic Seizure + Lorry - 10y
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is done at the ‘First Fit Clinic’

A

Formal Assessment and relevant EEG/MRI

If diagnosis is made and risk of another is felt to be high - AED started

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name three SE of Sodium Valproate

A

Teratogenic
DILI
Pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name two SE of Lamotrigine

A
Slightly teratogenic
Skin reactions (life threatening)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name two SE of Levetiracetam

A

CNS and Neuropsych disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name three SE of Phenytoin

A

Arrhythmia
Teratogenic
Gum Hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the AEDs of choice for Focal Seizures?

A

1) Lamotrigine

2) Sodium Valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the AEDs of choice for General Seizures?
Sodium Valproate or Lamotrigine
26
What are the AEDs of choice for Absence Seizures?
Ethosuxamide or Sodium Valproate
27
What are the AEDs of choice for Myoclonic Seizures?
Sodium Valproate
28
Define Migraine
A primary headache characterised by recurrent moderate to severe headaches and associated with nausea/vomiting/photophobia/phonophobia
29
Migraines can be episodic or chronic. How does a patient qualify for 'Chronic Migraines'?
Headaches >15d a month, at least 8 of which have migraine features
30
Describe the diagnostic criteria for Migraines without Aura
Atleast 5 fulfilling: - Headaches lasting 4-72 hours - Atleast 2 of - unilateral/pulsating/mod to severe/aggravated by physical activity - Not accounted for
31
Describe the diagnostic criteria for Migraines with Aura
Atleast two attacks fulfilling: - One or more reversible aura (scintillating scotoma most commonly) - Atleast 3 of - one>5 mins/two or more in succession/one unilateral/one positive/one followed by a headache within 60 mins
32
Migraines without Aura are commonly associated with the Menstrual Cycle. If first line Migraine management fails in these women, what can be used?
Frovatriptan
33
Name 5 Migraine Red Flags
``` Motor Weakness Double Vision Aura without headache Severe Sudden Onset Worse on Standing (CSF leak) ```
34
How is an Acute Migraine managed?
Simple Analgesia (eg rectal diclofenac) and Antiemetic (buccal prochlorperazine) Severe - Sumatriptans (5HT1 agonist) Come off COCP
35
How can Migraines be prevented?
Propanolol Topirimate Amitryptyline
36
How can inretractable Migraines be prevented? I.E more than 3 medications tried
Galcenezumab | Botox
37
Name three complications of Migraines
Status Migrainosus (>72h) Migrainal Infarction Ischaemic Stroke
38
How can Tension Headaches be classified?
Infrequent Episodic - 10 episodes occuring on <12d per year Frequent - 1 to 14d a month for >3m Chronic - >15d a month for >3m
39
How are chronic Tension Headaches managed?
Accupuncture Low dose Amitryptyline Lifestyle
40
Define Trigeminal Neuralgia
Episodes of acute severe facial pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve (commonly affecting maxillary and mandibular)
41
Trigeminal Neuralgia can be primary or secondary. Describe the Primary pathophysiology
Vascular compression at the nerve root entry zone leading to demyelination and abnormal electrical activity
42
Trigeminal Neuralgia can be primary or secondary. Describe the Secondary pathophysiology
Disease occuring due to another condition eg Vestibular Shwannoma, Meningioma, Cysts, MS
43
Describe the diagnostic criteria for Trigeminal Neuralgia
Pain lasting up to two minutes of severe electric shock like intensity Precipitated by innocuous stimuli within the region (eg cold) Not accounted for by alternate diagnosis
44
Describe the medical management options for Trigeminal Neuralgia
Carbemazepine (titrate up to remission and then back down to lowest possible maintenance) Second Line - Gabapentin, Lamotrigine
45
Describe the surgical management for Trigeminal Neuralgia
Microvascular Decompression | Gamma Knife Radiosurgery
46
Cluster Headaches can be chronic or episodic, what is the difference?
Episodic - in periods lasting between 7d and 1y with pain free episodes in between Chronic - Occurring for one year without/short lived remissions
47
What hormone do Cluster Headaches have a link to?
Melatonin
48
Describe the nature of Cluster Headaches
Rapid Onset over 10 minutes, often at night, excruciating around one eye lasting up to 90 mins Associated lacrimation and rhinorrhoea
49
Name three triggers for Cluster Headaches
Alcohol Histamine Disrupted Sleep
50
Describe the diagnostic criteria for Cluster Headaches
5 attacks qualifying: - Severe unilateral pain lasting 15-180 minutes untreated - Accompanied by lacrimation/congestion/rhinorrhoea - Attacks occurring from one every other day to 8 times a day
51
How can an Acute Cluster Headache be treated?
Sumatriptans and 100% O2 Could use Indometacin/Lidocaine
52
How can a Cluster Headache be prevented?
Stop Smoking, Stop Alcohol, Maintain good sleep hygiene Verapamil, Prednisolone, Lithium
53
Define Parkinson's
Chronic progressive neurodegenerative condition occurring secondary to loss of dopaminergic neurones in substantia nigra
54
Define Parkinsonism
Bradykinesia plus one of resting tremor/rigidity/postural instability
55
Name three roles of the Basal Ganglia
Inhibit muscle tone Initiation of movement Suppression of useless movement
56
Describe the direct Basal Ganglia pathway
Stimulatory pathway associated with D1 receptors | Activation leads to neural connections and movement initiation (via dopamine from substantia nigra)
57
Describe the indirect Basal Ganglia pathway
Inhibitory pathway associated with D2 receptors. Activation leads to inhibition of muscular tone, inhibition of movement initiation and inhibition of direct pathway
58
How does Bradykinesia of Parkinsons present?
``` Slowing of voluntary movements Reduced arm swing Reduced amplitude with repetitive movements Expressionless face Micrographia Shuffling Gait (festinant) Freezing at obstacles such as doors ```
59
How does Tremor of Parkinsons present?
Worse at rest Described as pill rolling 4-6Hz Can be induced by distraction
60
How does Rigidity of Parkinsons present?
Increased resistance to passive movement | Cogwheel rigidity due to superimposed tremor
61
Other than the classic triad, give three other clinical features of Parkinsons
autonomic dysfunction - postural hypotension, constipation, urinary frequency/urgency, dribbling of saliva sleep disturbance - REM sleep behaviour disorder reduced sense of smell neuropsychiatric complications - depression, dementia, psychosis
62
Name three exclusion criteria for Parkinsons
Cerebellar Abnormalities Restricted to lower limbs for >3y Suspected Frontotemporal Dementia
63
Parkinsonism is an umbrella term. Other than Idiopathic Parkinsons Disease, name three other causes
Parkinson Plus Syndromes Drug Induced (Antipsychotics, Antiemetics, Lithium) Other (Post Encephalitis, Trauma)
64
Parkinson Plus Syndromes affect a wider area of nervous system causing more complex disease and increased survival. Name four causes
Multiple System Atrophy Progressive Supranuclear Palsy DLB Corticobasal Degeneration
65
How does Multiple System Atrophy present?
Rapidly progressive disease characterised by profound autonomic dysfunction leading to severe postural hypotension and urogenital dysfunction
66
How does Progressive Supranuclear Palsy present?
``` Early postural instability vertical gaze palsy +/- falls rigidity of trunk>limbs symmetrical onset speech and swallowing problems little tremor ```
67
How does Corticobasal Degeneration present?
akinetic rigidity involving one limb cortical sensory loss apraxia Severe - Alien Limb Syndrome
68
Idiopathic Parkinsons Disease is largely a clinical diagnosis. Name three possible investigations
CT/MRI - if strong suspicion of underlying cause/failed response to treatment PET with Fluorodopa - can localise dopamine deficiency in Basal Ganglia DaTscan - differentiates Parkinsons from Essential Tremor
69
Parkinsons Disease requires early initiation of treatment. What are the three mainstay treatment options?
Levodopa Ropinorole (Dopamine Agonists) Rasigiline (MAO-B Inhibitors)
70
Describe the use of Levodopa in Parkinsons
- Effective, for mostly 5-6y - Can cross BBB and be converted to Dopamine by Dopa-Decarboxylase - Some peripheral conversion - Treats motor symptoms well but also causes dyskinesia/on off fluctuations
71
Describe the use of Ropinorole in Parkinsons
- Dopamine Agonist | - Less motor effects but can cause problems with impulse control and sedation
72
Eventually, all Parkinsons patients will require more than monotherapy. Name four adjuvant options
- COMT Inhibitors (Entacapone- given with Levodopa) - Antimuscarinics (Procyclidine) - Amantadine - Apomorphine (Dopamine Agonist for advanced disease)
73
Another treatment option for Parkinsons is Deep Brain Stimulation. Name two advantages and two disdvantages to this method
Advantages - Reduces rigidity and tremor Disadvantages - Haemorrhage and Confusion
74
Name two motor and two non motor complications of Parkinsons Disease
Motor - Freezing of Gait, Falls | Non Motor - Aspiration Pneumonia, Pressure Sores
75
Name four causes of Neuromuscular Weakness
Guillaine Barre Syndrome Myasthenia Gravis Motor Neurone Disease Muscular Dystrophy
76
Define Guillaine Barre Syndrome (GBS)
Acute inflammatory polyneuropathy characterised by progressive ascending neuropathy with weakness and reduced reflexes Often triggered by infections such as Campylobacter
77
Describe the pathophysiology of GBS
Immune mediated damage to peripheral nerves (proposed antigenic mimicry)
78
What are the four subtypes of GBS?
Acute Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (90%) Acute Motor Axonal Neuropathy Acute Motor Sensory Neuropathy Miller Fisher Syndrome
79
How does the AIDP subtype of GBS present?
Progressive symmetrical weakness (often ascending from distal muscles) Reduced/absent reflexes Reduced sensation
80
What is the destructive target in Acute Motor Axonal Neuropathy (GBS)?
The Axons
81
How does the Miller Fisher subtype of GBS present?
Ataxia Areflexia Opthalmoplegia
82
Name five investigations for suspected GBS
- Viral Screen - CXR (Rule out Sarcoidosis) - Electrophysiology (confirms diagnosis and differentiates axonal and demyelinating) - LP (increased protein and normal WCC) - AB for Miller Fisher
83
The management for GBS is normally supportive, if required, what management can be given?
FVC<20ml/kg - ITU and intubation IVIG/Plasma Exchange
84
What is Hughes Disability Score?
``` Severity scoring for GBS 0 - Healthy 4 - Bedridden 5 - Assisted Ventilation 6 - Death ```
85
Define Myasthenia Gravis
Antibody mediaed blockage of Neuromuscular Transmission due to ACh receptor AB
86
Describe the pathophysiology of Myasthenia Gravis
- Type II Hypersensitivity reaction - Cross links receptors causing destruction and activates --Membrane Attack Complexes to destroy membrane - Disease fluctuates as NMJ can repair itself and create more receptors easily
87
What are the three stages of Myasthenia Gravis?
1 - Fluctuating muscle weakness with most severe symptoms happening here 2 - Persistent but stable symptoms 3 - Remission
88
What is the relation of Myasthenia Gravis to the Thymus?
10-15% have a Thymoma Up to 85% have Thymic Hyperplasia There are myoid cells in the thymus which may start the target for autoimmunity
89
What are the two clinical subtypes of Myasthenia Gravis?
Ocular | Generalised
90
Name three antibodies associated with Myasthenia Gravis
AChR - Ab Anti MuSK Anti - LRP4
91
Name four ocular features of Myasthenia Gravis
Diplopia (improved on occluding one eye) Ptosis Weak eye movements Pupillary sparing
92
Name four features of Generalised Myasthenia Gravis
- Bulbar - Fatiguable chewing - Facial - Expressionless - Neck - Dropped head towards EOD - Proximal limb weakness more than distal
93
What is the Ice Pack Test for Myasthenia Gravis?
Improvement of ptosis after ice applied to closed eye for one minute Neuromuscular transmission is better at lower temperatures
94
Other than the Ice Pack Test, name four investigations for Myasthenia Gravis
- Tensilon Test (improvement after AChesterase inhibitors) - Serological Antibodies - Repetitive Nerve Stimulation (showing decline) - CT/MRI thymus
95
Name three options for treating Myasthenia Gravis
Pyridostigmine Prednisolone Azathioprine Could also do a Thymectomy
96
What is a Myasthenic Crisis?
Worsening of weakness requiring respiratory support Precipitants include warmth/surgery/stress/infection
97
How are Myasthenic Crises managed?
IVIG Plasma Exchange Steroids
98
Define Motor Neurone Disease
Umbrella term for progressive and ultimately fatal condition where motor neurones stop functioning
99
What are the four subtypes of Motor Neurone Disease?
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis Progressive Bulbar Palsy Progressive Muscular Atrophy Primary Lateral Sclerosis
100
How does the Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis subtype of MND present?
``` Mid to Late 50s Asymmetrical weakness (spreading sequentially) Wrist or Foot Drop Can have UMN or LMN signs Can have Bulbar involvement ```
101
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis is more of a clinical diagnosis. What investigations can be done?
EMG (sensory intact) Genetics MRI?CT Antibodies to exclude MG/Lambert Eaton
102
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis is incurable. Name four managements to ease symptoms and slow progression
Riluzole/Edavarone - slows progression and increases survival by a few months Baclofen - muscle cramps Opioids - Breathlessness Physiotherapy
103
Define Muscular Dystrophy
Umbrella term that causes gradual wasting and weakness of muscles
104
Describe Duchennes Muscular Dystrophy
- X linked inherited abnormal gene - If mother is a carrier, son has 50% chance of being affected - Boys present at 3-5y with pelvic muscular weakness - Life expectancy of 25-35y
105
How is Duchennes MD managed?
Steroids to slow progression and creatine supplements
106
Describe Beckers MD
Dystrophin gene is less severely affected than in Duchennes | Symptoms start around 8-12y and may require a wheelchair by 20-30y
107
Describe Myotonic Muscular Dystrophy
- Genetic disorder presenting in adulthood | - Progressive muscle weakness, prolonged contractions, cataracts, cardiac arrhythmia
108
Describe Facioscapulohumeral MD
In childhood, weakness around face progressing to shoulders and arms Sleep with eyes open, can't purse lips, can't blow out cheeks
109
Describe Oculopharyngeal MD
Bilateral Ptosis Restricted eye movements Swallowing problems
110
Describe Emery Dreifuss MD
- Contractures (usually at elbow and ankles) | - Progressive weakness and muscle wasting
111
Define Multiple Sclerosis
Chronic immune mediated inflammatory disease of the CNS - multiple plaques of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord disseminated in time and place (occurring at multiple sites with >30 days between attacks) Type 2 hypersensitivity
112
What causes Multiple Sclerosis?
Abnormal immune reaction to an unknown trigger in genetically predisposed individual More than 200 polymorphisms of genetic succeptibility Risks - EBV, Low sunlight, adolescent obesity, smoking
113
Describe the pathophysiology of Multiple Sclerosis
Oligodendrocytes are destroyed which leads to demyelination and axonal loss (due to poor healing) = poor transmission of signals passed down nerve B lymphocytes, macrophages and microglia create MS plaques (optic nerves, spinal cord, brainstem)
114
What are the classifications of Multiple Sclerosis?
- Relapsing/Remitting (getting residual damage each time) - Primary Progressive - Secondary Progressive (after 15y of Relapse/Remit) - Clinically Isolated (clinical episode but no evidence on neuroimaging)
115
What are the possible visual features of Multiple Sclerosis?
Optic Neuritis (visual loss, poor colour, pain, scotoma) Internuclear Opthalmoplegia (disconjugate lateral gaze - abducens moves fine, oculomotor doesn't) Abducens Palsy
116
What Motor Symptoms are classical of Multiple Sclerosis?
Weakness Ataxia UMN signs
117
What specific Motor Syndromes can you get within Multiple Sclerosis?
Transverse Myelitis - focal inflammation within the spine and sensorimotor symptoms below with bladder/bowel involvement Cerebellar Syndrome - DANISH
118
What sensory features can you get in Multiple Sclerosis?
Paraesthesia and Pain L'hermitte Phenomenon - Electric shock feeling triggered by neck flexion Uhthoff Phenomenon - Transient worsening of neuro symptoms with heat
119
What is the criteria for diagnosing MS based on MRI called?
McDonald Criteria
120
Define an MS attack
Episode of neurological symptoms lasting >24h with or without recovery (but with at least 30 days between attacks)
121
Name four differentials for Multiple Sclerosis
Transverse Myelitis Lyme Disease B12 Deficiency Diabetic Neuropathy
122
Name three supportive investigations for Multiple Sclerosis
CSF Oligoclonal Bands (not identified in serum) Visual Evoked Response (measures electrical activity over occipital cortex in response to light) AB Testing
123
How is an acute MS attack managed?
After ruling out any infection Oral/IV Methylprednisolone + PPI
124
Name two disease modifying therapies for MS
Interferon Beta | Glatiramir Acetate
125
What other general care managements do you need to consider in MS?
``` Bladder dysfunction (Oxybutinin) Depression Fatigue Neuropathic Pain Spasticity (Baclofen) ```
126
Define Benign Essential Tremor
Relatively common condition characterised by fine trmor affecting voluntary muscles, most noticable in hands but can affect other areas
127
Name four features of Benign Essential Tremor
Fine Tremor Symmetrical Improved by alcohol More prominent on voluntary (eg outstretched)
128
How is Benign Essential Tremor managed?
No definitive management | Propranolol or Primidone can be tried
129
What is Bell's Palsy?
Idiopathic facial nerve palsy
130
Name four symptoms of Bell's Palsy
Difficulty chewing Tingling Ear Pain Hyperacusis
131
Name four signs of Bell's Palsy
Loss of nasolabial folds Drooping corner of mouth Drooping eyebrow Asymmetric smile
132
How can Bell's Palsy be differentiated from a stroke?
A stroke affected UMN so is forehead sparing
133
What is the grading system for Bell's Palsy?
House Brackmann Grading System
134
When would you consider an alternative diagnosis to Bell's Palsy?
Overt pain Systemic Illness Hearing abnormalities
135
How is Bell's Palsy managed?
Prednisolone if within 72 hours Eye drops and tape for protection May take several months to recover
136
Name two complications of Bell's Palsy
Corneal Abrasion Aberrant Reinnervation (voluntary contraction of one muscle leads to involuntary contraction of another muscle)
137
Name five presenting features of Cervical Spondylosis
- Cervical pain worsened by movement - Cervical stiffness - Vague numbness/tingling/weakness of upper limbs - Radiculopathy - Retro orbital/Temporal pain
138
How can you demonstrate dural irritation in Cervical Spondylosis?
Lateral flexion and pressure on top of head
139
Name three read flags for Cervical Spondylosis
- Age of onset <20 ir >55 - Weakness/ Sensory loss in more than one Dermatome/Myotome - Constitutional symptoms
140
How would you manage Cervical Spondylosis initially?
First 3-4 weeks reassure patient that it is common and will resolve Stay active One firm pillow at night
141
After four weeks how should Cervical Spondylosis be managed?
Physiotherapy, Occupational health referral, Pain Clinic, Surgery
142
What is a Radiculopathy?
Sensory/Motor symptoms in response to nerve root damage by any cause
143
How does Posterior Sciatica present?
Pain along posterior thigh and posterolateral leg due to L5/S1 radiculopathy
144
How does Anterior Sciatica present?
Pain along anterior leg/thigh due to L3/L4 radiculopathy
145
Name the nerve roots for upper limb reflexes
Biceps - C5 Triceps - C7 Wrist - C8
146
Name the nerve roots for lower limb reflexes
Knee - L3/L4 | Achilles - S1/S2
147
What is Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Compression/Entrapment/Irritation of Median Nerve
148
Carpal tunnel syndrome is normally idiopathic, give three associations
Pregnancy Obesity Hypothyroid
149
How does Carpal Tunnel Syndrome present?
Tingling/numbness/pain in median nerve distribution Often worse at night (patient may hang arm out of bed to revive) Weakness if hand grip Severe- Thenar wasting
150
What are the two clinical tests for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Tinnel's | Phalen's
151
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is normally a clinical diagnosis . What investigations could be done?
Electroneurography | Ultrasound
152
How is Carpal Tunnel Syndrome managed?
Splint at night and NSAIDs Corticoteroid injections, Accupuncture Surgical cutting the transverse carpal ligament
153
Name three causes of Ulnar Nerve Palsy
Dislocation/Fracture of elbow Ulnar artery aneurysm Synovial inflammation
154
How does Ulnar Nerve palsy at the elbow present?
Wasting along medial forearm Weakness in hand muscles and finger flexion Sensory Loss Ulnar Claw
155
How does Ulnar Nerve palsy at the wrist present?
Cutaneous often spared
156
How can Ulnar Nerve Palsy be investigated?
USS Cubital tunnel EMG CXR (pancoast)
157
Describe the conservative management for Ulnar Nerve Palsy
Anterior elbow splinting Ergonomic correction NSAIDs If not then surgery
158
Diabetic Neuropathy is the most common cause of Peripheral Neuropathy. Give three risk factors
Smoker >40 Periods of poor glycaemic control
159
Patients with Diabetic Neuropathy may not notice themselves. What are the five different types?
``` Peripheral Sensorimotor Acute Diffuse Painful Autonomic Mononeuropathy Diabetic Amyotrophy ```
160
How does Peripheral Sensorimotor Diabetic Neuropathy present?
Sensory nerves affected more (glove and stocking) Loss of ankle jerks and later knee Hands only in long standing
161
How does Acute Diffuse Painful Diabetic Neuropathy present?
Abrupt onset but can resolve completely Burning foot pain (worse at night) Associated with poor glycaemic control
162
How does Autonomic Diabetic Neuropathy present?
Cardiac abnormalities Exercise intolerance Reduced respiratory drive Reduced baroreceptor sensitivity
163
How does Mononeuropathic Diabetic Neuropathy present?
E.G Carpal Tunnel
164
How does Diabetic Amyotrophy present?
Pain and paraesthesia in upper legs with weakness and wasting of muscle
165
How is Diabetic Neuropathy investigated?
Diabetic Control Measuring BP Nerve conduction studies Electromyography
166
How is Diabetic Neuropathy managed?
Regular surveillance and foot care Good diabetic control bed foot cradles Neuropathic pain relief if required
167
What are the two types of ADLs?
Personal - Washing/Dressing/Toileting/Continence Domestic - Cooking/Cleaning/Shopping
168
Define Alzheimer's
Progressive neurodegenerative disorder that causes reduced mental performance and impairment in social and occupational function
169
What causes Alzheimer's?
A combination of factors Older Age, Genetics (Sporadic/APP/Presenilin), CVS Disease
170
What are the two main pathological features associated with Alzheimer's Disease?
Senile Plaques (Beta Amyloid deposits extracellularly, they are seen in normal ageing) Neurofibrillary Tangles (Hyperphosphorylated Tau Proteins in regions involved in memory, promoting cell death)
171
Name two cognitive and two non cognitive symptoms of Alzheimer's disease
Cognitive - Poor Memory, Language Non Cognitive - Agitation, Emotional Lability
172
Name four cognitive assessments
- Mini - Cog (three item word memory and clock drawing) - AMT (ten item tool) - MMSE (eleven item tool) - MoCA (several domains including executive function, attention, language, memory and visuospatial)
173
How is Alzheimer's Disease diagnosed?
``` Functional Inability (and decline from previous) Cognitive (impairment in >2 domains) Differentials excluded (via neuroimaging etc) ```
174
Name three non pharmacological managements of Alzheimer's Disease
Advanced Care Planning Inform DVLA Encourage groups and activities
175
What are the pharmacological options for Alzheimer's management?
Mild to Mod - AChesterase inhibitors (Donepazil) Mod to Severe - NMDA Antagonists (Memantine)
176
Frontotemporal dementia has prominent disturbances in social behaviour, language and personality. What are the subtypes?
Behavioural Variant - Progressive personality and behavioural change Primary Progressive Aphasia (Non Fluent or Semantic)
177
Describe the pathophysiology of Frontotemporal Dementia
Phosphorylated Tau Proteins/Pick Bodies Some familial cases with AD Inheritance Atrophy of frontal and temporal lobes
178
Frontotemporal Dementia can present in many different ways. How does the Behavioural Variant present?
Disinhibition, Loss of empathy, Apathy
179
Frontotemporal Dementia can present in many different ways. How does the Primary Progressive Aphasia present?
Effortful/Halting Speech Speech Apraxia Difficulty finding words
180
Frontotemporal Dementia can present in many different ways. How do the Motor Syndromes present?
- MND - Corticobasal Syndrome (Dystonia, Asymmetrical Akinesia, Alien Limb) - Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (difficulty looking up)
181
What would the MRI of Frontotemporal Dementia show?
Frontal and temporal lobe atrophy
182
How would you manage Frontotemporal Dementia?
Financial advice, SALT input, Supervision SSRIs (decrease impulsivity)/Atypical Antipsychotics
183
State the five subtypes of Vascular Dementia
- Subcortical - Stroke Related (Large Cortical) - Single/Multiple Infarct - Mixed (with Alzheimers) - Autosomal Dominant
184
How does Vascular Dementia present?
Stepwise cognitive decline | Can have focal neurological symptoms
185
How is Vascular Dementia managed?
Donepazil/Memantine | Control CVS factors
186
What is Horner's Syndrome?
Classic triad of Miosis/Ptosis and anhidrosis/enopthalmos due to a lesion along oculosympathetic pathway
187
What is the Oculosympathetic Pathway?
First Order - Hypothalamus to Spinal Cord Second Order - Preganglionic (spinal cord to sympathetic chain) Third Order - Post Ganglionic (within adventitia of IC, travelling to dilator pupillae and muller's muscle)
188
What are the causes of Horner's Syndrome if first order neurones are affected? (4S's)
Stroke multiple Sclerosis SOL Syringomyelia Anhidrosis on one half of body
189
What are the causes of Horner's Syndrome if second order neurones are affected? (4T's)
Tumour Trauma Thyroidectomy Top Rib
190
What are the causes of Horner's Syndrome if third order neurones are affected? (3C's)
Carotid Aneurysms Carotid Artery Dissection (no other sx) Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis No Anhidrosis
191
How can Horner's Syndrome be investigated?
CT Angiography (exclude dissection) MRI (if brainstem features) CXR (Pancoast)
192
How can Horner's Syndrome be confirmed?
Cocaine Eye Drops - blocks NA reuptake, only unaffected eye constricts Apraclonidine - Alpha agonist causing affected pupil to dilate and normal pupil to constrict Hydroxyamphetamine - all dilate except post ganglionics
193
Name two cerebellopontine angle lesions
Acoustic Neuroma | Meningioma
194
What are Acoustic Neuromas?
Tumours of the vestibulocochlear nerve arising from schwann cells Typically benign and slow growing but causes pressure on surrounding tissues
195
Name two risk factors for Acoustic Neuromas
Neurofibromatoses | High dose ionising radiation
196
What initial symptoms can Acoustic Neuromas present with?
Unilateral/Asymmetric hearing loss/tinnitus Impaired facial sensation Balance problems without explanation
197
As an Acoustic Neuroma grows, what further symptoms can it cause?
Facial Pain/Numbness Earache Ataxia Hydrocephalus
198
What investigations are required for Acoustic Neuromas?
Audiology | MRI
199
If the Acoustic Neuroma is small, you can just manage with serial scans. What other management options are there?
Microsurgery (can cause CSF leak or stroke) | Radiotherapy (sterotactic, fractionated, proton beam)
200
What are Meningiomas?
Slow growing benign tumours arising from Dura Mate Normally well circumscribed
201
How are Meningiomas graded?
I - Generally Benign II - Higher rate of recurrence post surgery III - Anaplastic
202
How do Meningiomas present?
``` Seizures Raised ICP Changes in personality Nerve palsies Can be spinal - Brown Sequard ```
203
How do Meningiomas appear on MRI?
Well defines Central Cystic Degeneration Oedema of nearby white matter
204
What are the management options for Meningiomas?
Endovascular Embolisation (Coil or Glue) Surgical Removal Stereotactic Radiotherapy
205
What is Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord?
Degeneration of the posterior and lateral columns as a result of B12/Vitamin E/Copper deficiency
206
Name three underlying causes of Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord
Dietary Deficiency Lack of IF Low Gastric pH
207
What would be the underlying investigative abnormality in Subacute Degeneration of the Spinal Cord?
B12 and folate deficiency leading to megaloblastic anaemia
208
How does Subacute Degeneration of the Spinal Cord present?
Weakness of leg/arms/trunk Progressive tingling and numbness Posterior Column - reduced vibration and proprioception Lateral Column - UMN signs, Ataxia
209
How is Subacute Degeneration of the Spinal Cord managed?
Replace B12 If folate also deficient, treat B12 first
210
What is Cavernous Sinus Syndrome?
Any pathology involving Cavernous Sinus which may present as a combination of unilateral opthalmoplegia, autonomic dysfunction, or sensory loss
211
Give four causes of Cavernous Sinus Syndrome
Meningioma Sarcoidosis Basal Skull Fracture Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis
212
How does Cavernous Sinus Syndrome present?
Can compress any nerves leading to isolated palsies or post ganglionic Horners May get Proptosis and Chemosis secondary to pressure
213
How is Cavernous Sinus Syndrome investigated?
Bloods MRI CT
214
How is Cavernous Sinus Syndrome managed?
Tumour - Surgery or Radio Traumatic - Orbital Decompression Inflammatory - Steroids Vascular - Embolisation/Clipping
215
What is Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
Spectrum of diseases resulting from Thiamine deficiency (usually related to alcohol abuse although can be secondary to Bariatric Surgery/Hyperemesis Gravidarum etc)
216
Describe the pathophysiology of Wernicke's Encephalopathy
Inadequate nutritional thiamine/decreased absorption from GI tract/impaired thiamine utilisation Thiamine is a cofactor required by three enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis so causes metabolic disruption
217
What is the classic triad of Wernicke's Encephalopathy? Name two other symptoms
Ataxia, Opthalmoplegia, Confusion Unexplained hypotension/hypothermia Hallucinations
218
What is required to diagnose Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
At least 2 of: Dietary Deficiency Oculomotor Abnormalities Cerebellar Dysfunction Altered Mental State/Impairment
219
How is Wernicke's Encephalopathy managed?
Thiamine + Pabrinex Alcoholics should have prophylactic thiamine as long as they are malnourished/have decompensated liver disease May have to use Mental Health Act
220
One of the complications of Wernicke's Encephalopathy is Korsakoff Syndrome. Name three features of this
Confabulation Anterograde and Retrograde Amnesia Psychosis
221
What is an Argyll Robertson Pupil?
Small irregular pupils that have little/no constriction to light but do accommodate Classically caused by neurosyphilis
222
Describe the pathophysiology behind an Argyll Robertson Pupil
Damage to dorsal aspect of EWN disrupts inhibitory neurones causing constant constriction
223
What is Creutzfeld-Jakob Disease?
Best known Human Prion Disease | Accumulation of small infectious pathogens, containing protein but lacking nucleic acids
224
Name the four main variants of CJD
- Sporadic (85% of cases) - Hereditary (Familial clusters with dominant inheritance) - Iatrogenic (Neurosurgery, tissue grafts) - New Variant (linked to eating BSE infected cattle products)
225
CJD presents very non specifically and can't be reliably diagnosed until death. Give some presentations
- Myoclonus - Progressive Ataxia/Choreiform - Visual Disturbance - Rapidly progressing cognitive and functional impairment
226
How is CJD investigated?
- Brain Biopsy (can use tonsil biopsy if new variant) - CSF markers - EEG (Periodic wave complexes in sporadic) - MRI (increased intensity in certain brain regions depending on subtype)
227
Define Syringomyelia
Fluid filled tubular cyst in central spinal cord that can elongate/enlarge and expand into grey/white matter, compressing tracts
228
Define Syringobulbia
Where Syringomyelia has extended into brainstem | Can cause nerve palsies
229
Describe the aetiology of Syringomyelia
Blockage of CSF (normally secondary to Chiari malformation) SOL, Arachnoiditis, Post Traumatic
230
How does Syringomyelia present in terms of sensory features?
Spinothalamic lost in a shawl like distribution Extends into Dorsal Column Dysaesthesia - Pain when skin is touched
231
How does Syringomyelia present in terms of motor features?
As t extends and damages LMN of anterior horn Muscle wasting and weakness beginning in hand Reduced tendon reflexes Claw hand
232
How does Syringomyelia present in terms of autonomic features?
Can affect bowel/bladder/sexual organs | Horners
233
How can Syringomyelia be investigated?
MRI - shows soft tissue causes | CT - shows bony causes
234
How can Syringomyelia be managed?
Physio and rehab Taught to avoid damage which may occur in the absence of pain Surgery - Shunt/Laminectomy/Syringotomy
235
What is Hypoxic Ischaemic Encephalopathy?
Entire brain is derived of adequate oxygen supply but loss is not total. Normally associated with neonates but can occur in adults (eg post cardiac arrest)
236
How does HIE present?
Cyanosis as blood is redirected | Fainting/Coma/Seizures/Brain Death
237
What would be seen on CT of HIE?
Diffuse oedema | Reduced cortical grey matter
238
What Syndrome can Pituitary Tumours be associated with?
MEN1
239
Name four types of Pituitary Tumour
Non functioning adenoma Prolactinoma GH secreting ACTH secreting
240
Describe the local effects of a Pituitary Tumour
Headache (retro-orbital or bitemporal, worse on waking) Visual Field Defects Facial Pain If extending into hypothalamus - Diabetes Insipidus etc
241
How can the cause of Bitemporal Hemianopia be distinguished?
If initially lower quadrants affected - Craniopharyngoma If upper - Pituitary Adenoma
242
What is the order of hormones affected in Hypopituitarism
LH, GH, TSH, ACTH, FSH
243
The management for Pituitary Adenomas is often Trans-sphenoidal surgery. Name four complications
SIADH DI Addisons CSF leak
244
How can you manage Pituitary Adenomas medically?
Acromegaly - Octreotide | Prolactinoma - Bromacriptine
245
When would you use Radiotherapy for Pituitary Adenoma?
Incomplete resection
246
Name three causes of Olfactory Nerve Damage
Trauma Frontal Lobe Tumour Meningitis
247
Name three causes of Oculomotor Nerve Damage
DM GCA PCA
248
Name two causes of Trochlear Nerve Damage
Rare -Orbital trauma, Diabetes
249
Name three causes of Abducens Nerve Damage
MS Pontine CVA Raised ICP
250
Name two causes of Facial Nerve Damage
Upper - Stroke | Lower - Bells
251
Name three causes of Vestibulocochlear Nerve Damage
Loud Noises Pagets Acoustic Neuroma
252
Name three causes of Glossopharyngeal Nerve Damage
Trauma GBS Polio
253
Name two causes of Vagus and Accessory Nerve Damage
Trauma | Brainstem pathology
254
Name three causes of Hypoglossal Nerve Damage
Polio Syringomyelia TB
255
What AED is tolerated really well?
Levetiracetam (Keppra)
256
Name three stroke mimics
Migraines Todd’s Paresis (post seizure) Bells Palsy
257
Name three Chameleons (atypical strokes)
Bilateral thalami stroke Bilateral occipital stroke Limb shaking TIA
258
What can affect the seizure threshold?
Medications Drugs Sleep Flashing Lights
259
What is the pregnancy prevention programme for epilepsy?
At least 1 form of contraception (ideally 2) Should be started Atleast one month before starting the medication
260
MCA infarcts make up 2/3 of Ischaemic strokes. How would ACA strokes present differently?
Contralateral Lower limb > upper limb Disorder of executive function
261
What is characteristic on an epileptic EEG?
Spike and wave discharge Hz is how many spikes and waves in a second
262
What are the four recognised stages of Parkinson’s
Early Maintenance Advanced Palliative
263
What is Restless Leg Syndrome?
Urge to move legs (aka this is) associated with par aesthetics (crawling,throbbing), and night time movements (often noticed by partner)
264
Give 5 associations of Restless Leg Syndrome
``` Family History Uraemia Iron Deficiency Anaemia (check ferritin) Pregnancy Diabetes Mellitus ```
265
How is Restless Leg Syndrome managed?
Simple exercises such as walking and stretching | Dopamine agonists such as Ropinorole first line
266
Name two scoring systems for Parkinson’s
Heohn Yahr | UPDRS
267
Describe the Heohn Yahr Scale for Parkinson’s Disease
I - Unilateral Disease II - Bilateral Disease with intact posture III - Mod Bilateral disease with postural instability IV - Severe Bilateral Disease but can still walk independently V - Wheelchair only or bed bound
268
Describe the UPDRS
Measured on 4 categories (Non Motor Symptoms of ADL, Motor Symptoms of ADL, Motor Assessment, Motor Complications), rated out of 5
269
Head injuries caused by high energy impacts can be divided into 2 groups, how?
blunt - falls, RTIs, sports injury, assault | penetrating - bullet and knife wounds
270
what are the 3 i's of head injury?
impulsivity irritability instability
271
what are some changes often reported by patients relatives following head injuries?
lose of executive function, loss of problem solving, memory and learning difficulties, difficulties with speech and language, more impulsive, irritable and unstable
272
describe the pathophysiology of a head injury
coup injury occurs at the site of impact ipsilateral to the direction of the initial blow and happens as a result of the cranial vault being pushed backwards onto the brain. Then get a contrecoup injury where due to density differences between CSF and brain, the brain is left behind as skull acceletrates pushing it backwards in the skull hitting the occipital bone - secondary impact
273
how does indirect damage occur in a head injury
diffuse axonal injury - high shear forces generated in rapid acceleration and deceleration cause damage to the myelinated white matter disrupting axonal transport = microglial activation and scarring. can also cause disconnected white matter tracts = neurobehavioral changes = traumatic brain injury