Neurobiology Flashcards

1
Q

The Hoffmann reflex (H-reflex) results from direct electrical activation of which of the following types of sensory fibers?

A. II with non-spindle endings
B. III
C. IV
D. α
E. 1a

A

1a

The Hoffmann reflex, or H-reflex, was described by stimulating type Ia afferent sensory fibers at various intensities. At low intensity, the type Ia fibers result in a monosynaptic reflex arc with the efferent α motor, which results in activation of a motor unit recorded as an H-reflex. At higher intensities, there is direct activation of the α motor neuron terminus and motor unit (M-wave) which precedes the H-reflex wave that arises from orthodromic propagation. At even higher stimulus intensities, an antidromic wave through the motor neuron results in cancellation of the orthodromic H-reflex wave; and accordingly, only a large M-wave is detected. Non-contractile muscle spindle fibers are innervated by Ia sensory afferents conveying information of stretch and velocity, which excite efferent α motor neurons in the ventral horn. Type III and IV classes are slower conducting fibers that convey information of pain, temperature and chemical stimuli. Type II fibers with non- spindle endings are sensitive to deep pressure.

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2
Q

Excitotoxicity from prolonged activation of the NMDA receptor is caused by which of the following ions entering into the neuron?

A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Magnesium
D. Glycine
E. Potassium

A

Calcium

Excitotoxicity is a process that can lead to neuronal death due to excessive accumulation of the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate, which then activates NMDA receptors. This overactivation leads to a pathological increase of intracellular calcium, which then activates multiple downstream effectors to cause apoptosis of the neuron. Although glycine can also activate NMDA receptors similar to glutamate, it does not actually enter the cell through these channels. Sodium, potassium, and magnesium are not primarily involved in NMDA excitatory signaling.

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3
Q

Which of the following conditions is caused by damaged or missing proteins at the neuromuscular junction?

A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
D. Nemaline myopathy
E. Polymyositis

A

Myasthenia gravis

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder characterized by antibodies directed against nicotinic cholinergic receptors, impairing transmission across the neuromuscular junction and resulting in early fatigability. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition that results in loss of expression of dystrophin, a protein that links the sarcolemma to the outermost myofilaments. Loss of dystrophin results in myofiber necrosis and easy muscle fatigability. Polymyositis is an inflammatory condition characterized by infiltration of muscle fibers by T cells with subsequent necrosis. Nemaline myopathies are characterized by rod-shaped structures noted on electron microscopy along the Z-disks of the sarcomere. The affects the orderly structure of the sarcomere, impairing efficient contraction. Hereditary spastic paraplegia results in progressive difficulty with ambulation and spasticity related to various inheritance patterns of mutations that converge on axonal viability of corticospinal tracts and fasciculus gracilis fibers.

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4
Q

Which of the following channels opens in response to GABAB receptor activation?

A. Potassium
B. Magnesium
C. Water
D. Chloride
E. Calcium

A

Potassium

GABAB receptors are metabotropic receptors that get activated by GABA to stimulate the opening of potassium channels in order to decrease the neuronal membrane potential. This hyperpolarizes the neuron and makes it less likely to fire an action potential, which in turn reduces the amount of neurotransmitter released by the neuron. Therefore, GABAB receptors are known as inhibitory receptors. On the other hand, GABAB receptors inactivate voltage-gated calcium channels to further reduce chances of action potential. GABAA receptors are ligand-gated chloride channels which also lead to hyperpolarization when activated. Magnesium channels and water pores are not greatly affected by GABAB receptor activation.

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5
Q

Which of the following proteins can be used as a marker of primitive neuroepithelial cells?

A. Nestin
B. Vimentin
C. S100
D. Glial fibrillary acidic protein
E. Tau

A

Nestin

Nestin, which is short for neuroepithelial stem cell protein, is a structural intermediate filament protein present in neuroepithelial stem cells in both the embryo and the adult brain. Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP) is a marker for tumors of glial origin (ie. astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma). Tau is a protein that serves to support the stability of microtubules within neuronal axons, and it is found in excess in certain neurodegenerative diseases, such as Alzheimer’s disease. Vimentin is an intermediate filament important for supporting the cytosol of several different tissue types and useful as a tumor marker for several CNS tumors (i.e. astrocytoma, gliosarcoma, ependymoma). S100 is a protein present in cells derived from neural crest cells, and present as a tumor marker
for serval CNS tumors (ie. astrocytoma, schwannoma, choroid plexus tumors).

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6
Q

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin?

A. Blockage of presynaptic voltage gated calcium channels
B. Degradation of acetylcholine
C. Blocking acetylcholine receptors
D. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
E. Inhibition of presynaptic release of acetylcholine

A

Inhibition of presynaptic release of acetylcholine

Botulism impairs vesicular release of acetylcholine into the neuromuscular junction. The toxin binds to the terminal and is endocytosed. A portion of this toxin becomes cytosolic and cleaves SNARE proteins that are responsible for docking of acetylcholine containing vesicles along the intracellular cell membrane. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is characterized by antibodies against voltage gated calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane, resulting in decreased release of acetylcholine. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by antibodies against acetylcholine receptors, and diagnosis and treatment may include the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as edrophonium or neostigmine.

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7
Q

Which of the following innervates the intrafusal fibers of the muscle spindle?

A. Aδ
B. α
C. C
D. B
E. Aγ

A

Intrafusal muscle fibers are a component of the muscle spindle that are innervated by Aγ afferents that transmit information on stretch. Aδ afferents are slower conducting peripheral nerves from free endings of excessive stretch, temperature, pain (fast) and light touch. Type C sensory afferents are the slowest conducting peripheral nerves and convey temperature and pain (slow). Type B fibers are preganglionic sympathetic efferents in the ventral root. α motor neurons are efferent fibers that stimulate extrafusal skeletal fibers to result in contraction.

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8
Q

While undergoing a posterior cervical fusion, a patient becomes tachycardic, with an increase in end-tidal CO2 and a rapid increase in temperature. The first-line therapy for this condition has which of the following mechanisms of action?

A. Inhibition of presynaptic release of acetylcholine
B. Inhibition of calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. Blocking acetylcholine receptors
D. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
E. Blockage of presynaptic voltage gated calcium channels

A

Inhibition of calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Dantrolene is a treatment for malignant hyperthermia as it decouples muscle fiber excitation and contraction. Dantrolene inhibits calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum by antagonizing ryanodine receptors. As a result, troponin C continues to inhibit myosin binding to actin. Botulism impairs vesicular release of acetylcholine into the neuromuscular junction. The toxin binds to the terminal and is endocytosed. A portion of this toxin becomes cytosolic and cleaves SNARE proteins that are responsible for docking of acetylcholine containing vesicles along the intracellular cell membrane. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is characterized by antibodies against voltage gated calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane, resulting in decreased release of acetylcholine. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by antibodies against acetylcholine receptors, and diagnosis and treatment may include the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as edrophonium or neostigmine.

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9
Q

Which of the following is considered the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the human brain and spinal cord?

A. GABA
B. Dopamine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Serotonin
E. Histamine

A

GABA

GABA is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous systems. Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system and has excitatory effects causing dilation of blood vessels, contraction of smooth muscle, and promoting secretions. Dopamine plays an important role in regulating movement, most importantly within the substantia nigra, with dysfunction causing Parkinson’s disease. Unlike GABA, dopamine is an excitatory neurotransmitter. Additionally, epinephrine and histamine are not inhibitory neurotransmitters and regulate body homeostasis/flight-or-flight and inflammatory responses, respectively.

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10
Q

The organelle principally responsible for modification of synthesized membrane and secretory proteins is the:

A. Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Lysosomes
D. Nucleolus
E. Golgi complex

A

Golgi complex

The golgi complex (golgi apparatus) is an important intracellular organelle responsible modification and packaging of proteins within the cell. The nucleus is the location where DNA is converted to mRNA, which in turn is used to produce proteins in the ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum where they are also packaged in vesicles. The golgi complex then takes up the proteins from the ribosomes, where they are modified and repackaged.

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11
Q

Dietary amino acids are critical for the synthesis of which of the following neurotransmitters?

A. Serotonin and Histamine
B. Serotonin and gamma-aminobutyric acid
C. Dopamine and gamma-aminobutyric acid
D. Gamma-aminobutyric acid and histamine
E. Dopamine and serotonin

A

**Serotonin and Histamine
**

Dietary amino acids are critical for the synthesis of neurotransmitters that require essential amino acids as the substrate of their synthesis. Essential amino acids cannot be produced by the body and, thus, must be obtained from dietary sources. Of the neurotransmitters listed, both serotonin and histamine require essential amino acids as the substrate of their synthesis. Serotonin can only be produced from tryptophan, and histamine can only be produced from histidine. The synthesis of dopamine can begin with the essential amino acid phenylalanine. However, the first step in the dopamine synthesis is conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine by phenylalanine hydroxylase. Thus, dopamine can also be synthesized from tyrosine, a non-essential amino acid. Finally, gamma-aminobutyric acid is synthesized from glutamate, a non-essential amino acid.

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12
Q

The spatial and temporal restriction of excitation in the central nervous system is most commonly regulated by interneurons releasing which of the following neurotransmitters?

A. Epinephrine
B. GABA
C. Acetylcholine
D. Histamine
E. Dopamine

A

GABA

GABAergic interneurons play a vital role in creating a diverse network of neural connections and increasing the computational power of simple networks within the brain. GABA release inhibits excitatory neurons, allowing for downregulation of downstream effects. Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system and has excitatory effects on dilation of blood vessels, contraction of smooth muscle, and to promote secretions. Dopamine plays an important role in regulating movement, most importantly within the substantia nigra, with dysfunction causing Parkinson’s disease. Unlike GABA, dopamine is an excitatory neurotransmitter. Additionally, epinephrine and histamine are not inhibitory neurotransmitters and regulate body homeostasis/flight-or-flight and inflammatory responses, respectively.

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13
Q

The electrical activity of two neurons is being recorded. Whenever Neuron One has action potentials, Neuron Two is less likely to have action potentials. This results from Neuron One releasing a neurotransmitter on Neuron Two that opens which of the following postsynaptic structures?

A. Sodium/Potassium pumps
B. Metabotropic receptors
C. Magnesium channels
D. Chloride channels
E. Potassium channels

A

Chloride channels

Since the firing of Neuron One reduces the probability of Neuron Two having an action potential, this Neuron One is an inhibitory neuron. In the central nervous system, one can broadly separate excitatory and inhibitory neurons into those releasing glutamate and GABA, respectively. Therefore, it is likely that the firing of Neuron One is triggering a release of GABA to the postsynaptic terminal of Neuron Two. Due to the rapid inhibition of Neuron Two, it is more likely that the released GABA is reaching GABAA receptors rather than GABAB since the latter produces its inhibitory signals in a slower and more prolonged fashion. Therefore, activation of GABAA receptors on Neuron Two is likely causing an opening of chloride channels, and thus hyperpolarizing the membrane potential to reduce action potential firing. The other choices (potassium channels, magnesium channels, sodium/potassium pumps, metabotropic receptors) are not primarily involved with the inhibitory firing from GABAA receptor activation.

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14
Q

Which of the following regions of the brain contains primarily GABAergic neurons?

A. Raphe nucleus
B. Globus pallidus
C. Locus coeruleus
D. Cortex
E. Subthalamic nucleus

A

Globus pallidus

Understanding the circuitry of the basal ganglia is necessary for understanding how the CNS modulates movement and for understanding movement disorders, such as Parkinson’s disease. GABA is neurotransmitter used by many of the nuclei within the basal ganglia, it is also the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS. The globus pallidus is group of two nuclei (GPexterna (GPe) & GPinterna (GPi)) that project GABAergic neurons to the subthalamic nucleus (STN) and thalamus, respectively. The subthalamic nucleus contains primarily glutaminergic (excitatory) neurons. The locus raphe nucleus (serotonergic) and locus coeruleus (noradrenergic) are not part of the basal ganglia.

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15
Q

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for the rate-limiting step of dopamine synthesis?

A. Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Tyrosine hydroxylase
D. Monoamine oxidase
E. Catechol-O-methyl transferase

A

Tyrosine hydroxylase

Dopamine synthesis occurs via a three step metabolic pathway involving three distinct enzymes. In the primary pathway, the initial substrate, L-phenylalanine, is converted to L-tyrosine by phenylalanine hydroxylase. Next, L-tyrosine conversion to L-DOPA is catalyzed by tyrosine hydroxylase, the rate-limiting step in the synthesis of dopamine. Finally, L-DOPA conversion to the active end product dopamine is catalyzed by aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase. The primary pathways responsible for dopamine degradation to homovanillic acid involve enzymatic reactions by monoamine oxidase-A, monoamine oxidase-B, catechol-O-methyl transferase and aldehyde dehydrogenase.

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16
Q

An action potential occurs when a nerve membrane becomes relatively more permeable to which of the following?

A. Sodium
B. GABA
C. Calcium
D. Water molecules
E. Potassium

A

Sodium

Depolarization of a neuron occurs when an adequate stimulus causes the membrane potential to increase from resting membrane potential (-70mV) to the potential that will sufficiently activate voltage-gated sodium channels (approximately -55mV). Once this occurs, sodium channels convert from the closed to the open state and the cell depolarizes. Voltage-gated potassium channels have the opposite effect in that they are only activated once the membrane potential nears +30mV, and the potassium ions exit the cell which drives the membrane potential back down towards resting membrane potential. Influx of calcium ions is often the effect rather than the cause of an action potential, as it occurs once an action potential reaches the terminal to allow for release of neurotransmitter. Water molecules and GABA do not play a role in the initiation of an action potential.

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17
Q

Which of the following substances provides the energy for fast axonal transport?

A. Cytoplasmic ATP
B. Mitochondrial ATP
C. Cytoplasmic NAD
D. Vesicular NAD
E. Vesicular ATP

A

Vesicular ATP

Due to the significant length of neuronal axons and the need for rapid transport, neurons cannot rely on diffusion for the transport of cellular organelles and vesicles. Instead, neurons utilize a system of microtubules and proteins for axonal transportation. Microtubules serve as cytoskeletal tracks that run along the length of the axon and are composed of the protein tubulin. Motor proteins, known as kinesin and dynein, then serve to transport different types of cargo along the microtubular network.
The axonal transport proteins require ATP for energy. The majority of cellular ATP is produced via glycolysis within the mitochondria. However, the mitochondria are not evenly distributed along the length of neuronal axons, therefore are an unreliable source of ATP for axonal transport proteins, which require a constant supply of ATP. Instead, glycolysis occurs on the vesicular membrane, utilizing GADPH, which is abundant throughout the cytosol, and resulting in local production of ATP.

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18
Q

Which of the following voltage-gated ion channels is most likely to cause the rising phase of the neuronal action potential?

A. Potassium
B. Chloride
C. Sodium
D. Calcium
E. Magnesium

A

Sodium

In order for a neuron to transmit an action potential, excitatory neurotransmitters bind to the cell body resulting in the opening of ligand-gated ion channels, such as sodium, if there is a net change in positively charged ions entering the cell body the membrane potential becomes more positive (depolarization). Once this change reaches a threshold potential, voltage-gated sodium channels open, resulting in a rapid influx of sodium ions and further depolarization, which is known as the rising phase (step 2 in the action potential figure). While other ion channels (ligand and voltage-gated) are involved in this process, it is the opening of the voltage-gated sodium channels that has the greatest effect on depolarization necessary for propagation of the action potential. Once a certain membrane potential is reached, the voltage-gated sodium channels become inactivated and voltage-gated potassium channels open, allowing the positively charged potassium ions to flow out of the cell body (repolarization; step 3 in the action potential figure).
Several antiepileptic medications, including phenytoin, carbamazepine, valproate, and lamotrigine act by binding preferentially to depolarized voltage-gated sodium channels. This results in a voltage-dependent inhibition of the sodium channels and prevents the spread of seizure activity.

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19
Q

EEG potentials in a normal person arise from which of the following?

A. The action potential of a single neuron in the region of the electrode
B. The difference in electrical potential between two electrodes
C. The summation of excitatory or inhibitory post-synaptic potentials for a network of synchronous neurons in the region of the electrode
D. The excitatory or inhibitory post-synaptic potential of a single neuron in the region of the electrode
E. The summation of action potentials for a network of synchronous neurons in the region of the electrode

A

**The summation of excitatory or inhibitory post-synaptic potentials for a network of synchronous neurons in the region of the electrode
**

The electric potential of a single neuron is too small to be directly monitored. Instead, the electrode records the summation of synchronous activity of network of neurons in the region of the electrode. It does not represent action potentials, which are too short to be recorded, but instead is the summation of excitatory or inhibitory post-synaptic potentials.

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20
Q

Which of the following classes of afferent fibers is responsible for the strong, brisk reflex elicited by tapping on a muscle or tendon?

A. Ia
B. II with non-spindle endings
C. IV
D. α
E. III

A

Ia

Non-contractile muscle spindle fibers are innervated by Ia sensory afferents conveying information of stretch and velocity, which excite efferent α motor neurons in the ventral horn. Type III and IV classes are slower conducting fibers that convey information of pain, temperature and chemical stimuli. Type II fibers with non-spindle endings are sensitive to deep pressure.

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21
Q

Which of the following results in the voltage dependence of the NMDA receptor?

A. Ca2+ blockade
B. Na2+ efflux
C. Ca2+ efflux
D. K+ influx
E. Mg2+ blockade

A

Mg2+ blockade

NMDA Receptors (NMDAR) are both voltage-gated and ligand-gated. Opening of ion channels requires both depolarization of the post-synaptic membrane and attachment of neurotransmitters glutamine and glycine. Magnesium ions rapidly and reversibly block open NMDA channels in a highly voltage-dependent manner. Magnesium ions block the opening of NMDAR when the membrane is not depolarized. Once glutamate allows for depolarization via binding with AMPA receptors, ion channels allow influx of Na+ and K+, depolarizing the cell. Then, glutamate and glycine can bind to NMDAR and allow for calcium ion permeability, which then allows for conformational changes that allow for more responsiveness to glutamate and an increase in AMPA receptors. Therefore, action potentials can propagate.

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22
Q

GABA-mediated inhibitory postsynaptic potentials act at inotropic receptor-gated channels for which of the following ions?

A. Na+
B. Mg2+
C. Cl-
D. Zn2+
E. K+

A

Cl-

GABA receptors are Cl- ionophore pentamer complexes. GABA receptors respond to benzodiazepines, barbiturates, picrotoxin, and some anesthetic steroids. The GABA binding site allows for opening of the Cl- channel. Flow of negatively charged ions inhibits the post-synaptic cells and prevents further depolarizations because the Cl- ion flow makes the cells more negatively charged than the neuronal firing threshold.

The other ions listed have roles in resting membrane potential and stabilization of cell membranes but do not contribute to inhibitory postsynaptic potentials in GABA receptors.

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23
Q

In the signaling mechanisms underlying long-term potentiation, calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase II and protein kinase C are activated by the process of calcium entering the cell through which of the following receptors?

A. NMDA receptor
B. Glycine receptors
C. Kainate receptor
D. GABAB receptor
E. AMPA receptor

A

NMDA receptor

The induction of long-term potentiation (LTP) begins when a post-synaptic neuron is depolarized. This depolarization causes dislodging of the magnesium ions that were blocking the NMDA receptor and therefore allows many calcium ions to flow into the cell to activate the downstream effectors of LTP. AMPA and kainate receptors are also involved in LTP on the post-synaptic neuron but involve the inflow of sodium and the outflow of potassium. Interestingly, activation of NMDA receptors leads to the actual insertion of AMPA receptors into the postsynaptic membrane. While glycine has been shown to induce LTP through activation of synaptic NMDA receptors, calcium ions still flow through the NMDA receptors rather than glycine receptors. GABAB receptors do not play a major role in LTP.

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24
Q

Which of the following proteins acts as the motor for retrograde axonal transport toward the cell body?

A. Dynein
B. Tubulin
C. Myosin
D. Actin
E. Kinesin

A

Dynein

Due to the significant length of neuronal axons and the need for rapid transport, neurons cannot rely on diffusion for the transport of cellular organelles and vesicles. Instead, neurons utilize a system of microtubules and proteins for axonal transportation. Microtubules serve as cytoskeletal tracks that run along the length of the axon and are composed of the protein tubulin. Motor proteins, known as kinesin and dynein, then serve to transport different types of cargo along the microtubular network. Kinesin is responsible for anterograde transport, whereas dynein is responsible for retrograde transport. This is clinically important, as dysfunction of dynein has been noted as important in the development of several neurodevelopmental and neurodegenerative conditions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Alzheimer’s disease, and Huntington’s disease.

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25
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for ion channel gating?

A. Removal of the sodium-potassium pump
B. Direct permeability of the cell membrane
C. Conformational changes of receptor subunits
D. Increase in number of ion receptors
E. Destruction of the extracellular binding domains

A

Conformational changes of receptor subunits

All ion channels that have been extensively studied have two or more stable conformational states. Gating refers to the transition of a channel between different states. In general, ion-gated channels are comprised of multiple subunits that will coordinate twisting and bending to allow for conformational change and opening of the channel. Downstream effects vary according to the type of channel and can allow free flow of ions through the channel. Regulatory mechanisms are in place to control the amount of time a gate is active. This is done via ligand binding, phosphorylation/dephosphorylation, changes in membrane voltage, and/or stretch/pressure.

26
Q

Which of the following is the primary method of removal of the principal sympathetic neurotransmitter at the synaptic junction?

A. Catechism-O-methyl transferase (COMT)
B. Acetylcholine transporter
C. Vesicular monoamine transporter
D. Norepinephrine transporter
E. Epinephrine transporter

A

Norepinephrine transporter

Norepinephrine is a catecholamine neurotransmitter synthesized from tyrosine (figure 1) and serves as the primary neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system. In the axon terminal, dopamine located in the cytosol is transported into the synaptic vesicle via vesicular monoamine transporter (VAMT) it is then converted to norepinephrine via dopamine-beta-hydroxalase (figure 1). The arrival of an action potential results in an influx of calcium in the cytosol which then causes the synaptic vesicle to bind to the presynaptic membrane via SNARE proteins and norepinephrine is released into the synaptic cleft via exocytosis. After binding to the post-synaptic receptors, the remaining norepinephrine is primarily removed via the norepinephrine transporter (NET) back into the cytosol of the pre-synaptic neuron. A smaller proportion of the norepinephrine is either transported across the post-synaptic membrane and other mechanisms. The NET is of notable pharmacological significance as it is the site of action of medications such as cocaine and tricyclic antidepressants. Epinephrine transporter is incorrect, because epinephrine is not the primary sympathetic neurotransmitter. COMT is incorrect, as it does not remove norepinephrine from the synaptic cleft, however, it is responsible for breakdown of norepinephrine in the post-synaptic neuron.

27
Q

Which of the following actions is responsible for the relative refractory period of a neuronal action potential?

A. Inactivation of sodium channels during depolarization
B. Hyperpolarization of the membrane potential below resting membrane potential
C. Opening of chloride channels during repolarization
D. Binding of calcium to allosteric receptors at peak of depolarization.
E. Closing of voltage-gated potassium channels after depolarization

A

**Hyperpolarization of the membrane potential below resting membrane potential
**

During an action potential, the absolute refractory period is caused by inactivation of sodium channels shortly after they were opened to allow for depolarization. Once these voltage-gated sodium channels are closed and voltage-gated potassium channels open, potassium rushes out of the cell to then lead to repolarization. However, rather than repolarizing exactly back to resting membrane potential, the voltage-gated potassium channels close slightly after this point, which allows for hyperpolarization (i.e. transient period of membrane potential being lower than resting membrane potential). This is important because this more negative value then requires a larger stimulus to lead to a depolarization than what was required for the previous depolarization – named the relative refractory period. The closing of voltage-gated potassium channels is what allows for membrane potential to eventually increase back to resting membrane potential. Chloride and calcium ions are not the primary drivers of action potentials

28
Q

Dopamine is produced by enzymatic action on which of the following substrates in the basal ganglia?

A. Glutamine
B. Tyrosine
C. Histidine
D. Tryptophan
E. Glycine

A

Tyrosine

Dopamine is produced by enzymatic action on tyrosine. In the cytosol, tyrosine is converted to levodopa (L-DOPA) by tyrosine hydroxylase (TH). TH is the rate-limiting enzyme. Cofactors are tetrahydrobiopterin, oxygen, and iron. L-DOPA is then converted to dopamine by aromatic l-amino acid decarboxylase (DOPA decarboxylase). Pyridoxal phosphate is a cofactor.
Tryptophan, glutamine, histidine, and glycine are amino acids but are not involved in dopamine synthesis.

29
Q

Which of the following ions has the highest permeability at the membrane resting potential?

A. K+
B. Ca2+
C. Cl-
D. Na+
E. Mg2+

A

K+

The difference in the concentration of an ion across a semipermeable membrane drives ion movement. There is a high relative permeability of neuronal cell membranes to potassium. Because there is high K permeability, the resting membrane potential is most close to the potassium equilibrium potential. The Nernst equation demonstrates the concept of equilibrium potential well: Em = RT/zF * log ([ion outside the cell]/[ion inside of the cell]). The concentration gradient is maintained by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump (3 Na+ out, 2 K+ ions in). Additionally, K+ channels are open at rest, and K+ ions leak out, contributing to negative charge of the inner surface of the membrane.

The other choices are involved either in maintenance of equilibrium potential, action potential, or synaptic transmission; however, the resting membrane is less permeable to these ions than potassium.

30
Q

At a neuronal synapse that uses GABA as its transmitter, GABA receptors are most likely to open channels that are selectively permeable to which of the following ions?

A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Magnesium
D. Zinc
E. Chloride

A

Chloride

GABAA receptors make up the majority of inhibitory receptors in the central nervous system. When GABA binds to these receptors, they open and become selectively permeable to chloride ions (also bicarbonate ions to a lesser extent). This will often lead to an influx of chloride ions into the cell to lower the membrane potential, thus hyperpolarizing it leading to an inhibitory effect on neurotransmission. Although zinc is a known negative allosteric modulator of GABAA receptors, it does not enter the cell through this mechanism. Sodium, magnesium, and calcium are not primarily involved with GABA receptors. GABAB receptors involve the opening of potassium channels.

31
Q

Which of the following ions causes a hyperpolarization block of the NMDA-glutamate channel?

A. Ca 2+
B. Mg 2+
C. Zn 2+
D. K +
E. Na +

A

Mg 2+

Synaptic transmission of NMDA receptors (NMDAR) occurs via pre-synaptic glutamate binding to post-synaptic AMPA Receptors, NMDAR, and kainate receptors. NMDARs are a class of ionotropic glutamate receptors, and these receptors have pronounced voltage dependence. At resting membrane potentials, Mg2+ ions enter the NMDAR pore and bind tightly to prevent further ion permeation. Mg2+ levels are significantly higher in the extracellular milieu compared with the intracellular concentrations, which creates a net inward driving force at negative membrane potentials. These receptors therefore only allow cation passage when the Mg 2+ block is removed by depolarization of the postsynaptic cell. Effective activation and ion permeation of the NMDAR with strong depolarization and synaptic glutamate leads to high permeability of calcium ions and transduction of input, therefore strengthening synapses.
Dendrite conductance and resting potential are mediated by Na and K channels. Zinc ions bind to the NR2A NTD, which is allosterically coupled to the glutamate-binding domain.

32
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of calcium ions at the synapse?

A. Calcium efflux initiates binding of SNARE proteins between the synaptic vesicle and the pre-synaptic membrane
B. Calcium influx initiates binding of SNARE proteins between the synaptic vesicle and the pre-synaptic membrane
C. Calcium influx promotes unidirectional membrane depolarization along the axon
D. Calcium efflux promotes unidirectional membrane depolarization along the axon
E. Calcium influx results in membrane repolarization in response to the voltage change from opening of sodium channels

A

Calcium influx initiates binding of SNARE proteins between the synaptic vesicle and the pre-synaptic membrane

Action potential propagation occurs secondary to unidirectional membrane depolarization via voltage-gated sodium channels. As the signal nears the terminal end of the axon, this depolarization results in the opening of voltage-gated Ca++ channels and subsequent Ca++ influx.

The intracellular calcium initiates the binding of SNARE (soluble NSF attachment protein receptors) proteins on the synaptic vesicle (synaptobrevin) and the presynaptic membrane (syntaxin and SNAP-25). The SNARE proteins then allow for exocytosis of and release of neurotransmitters from the synaptic vesicle into the synaptic cleft.

33
Q

Cyclic adenosine monophosphate is catabolized by which of the following enzymes?

A. Receptor tyrosine kinase
B. Adenosine kinase
C. cAMP-dependent protein kinase
D. Cyclic nucleotide-dependent protein kinase
E. Phosphodiasterase

A

**Phosphodiasterase
**

Cyclin adenosine 3’,5’ monophosphate (cAMP) is an important intracellular second messenger that is important for regulating cellular processes, such as cell proliferation, the cell cycle, cellular metabolism, and ion channels. cAMP is synthesized from adenosine triphosphate (ATP) by the

enzyme adenylate cyclase (AC). cAMP is catabolized by the enzyme phosphodiesterase (PDE). PDE is is an important pharmacologic target, such medications, known as PDE inhibitors are used to treat several conditions, including COPD, pulmonary arterial hypertension, psoriasis, and erectile dysfunction.

34
Q

Which of the following is the mechanism of muscle paralysis caused by d-tubocurarine?

A. Partial agonist at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
B. Competitive antagonist at muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
C. Agonist at muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
D. Noncompetitive antagonist at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
E. Competitive antagonist at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

A

Competitive antagonist at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

Tubocurarine is a naturally occurring curare alkaloid with muscle relaxant properties. It competes with acetylcholine (Ach) for nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles. This inhibits ability of ACh to bind and depolarize the post-synaptic membrane, therefore leading to muscle relaxation and/or paralysis.
Tubocurarine does not act as an agonist or partial agonist at nicotinic receptors. Muscarinic ACh receptors are metabotropic receptors responsible for control of sweat glands and some smooth muscle parasympathetic activity, and tubocurarine does not have an impact at these receptors.

35
Q

Which of the following is the most prevalent excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS?

A. Glycine
B. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Serotonin
D. Dopamine
E. Glutamate

A

Glutamate

Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS. GABA and glycine are major inhibitory neurotransmitters. GABA accounts for about 40% of the inhibitory signaling in the brain. Glycine is the primary inhibitory signal in the spine. Dopamine and serotonin are two other neurotransmitters in the brain, but they are not the dominant excitatory transmitter. Dopamine plays an essential role in learning, motor control, reward, and emotion. Serotonin is involved in gastrointestinal processes and neuropsychological processes.

36
Q

Which of the following neuropeptides is thought to function as a pain transmitter?

A. Histamine
B. Serotonin
C. Substance P
D. Glycine
E. Glutamate

A

Substance P

The answer to this question can be determined through an understanding of the primary pain pathway (Substance P activating neurokinin-1 receptors) and through an understand of neuropeptides versus neurotransmitters.
Neurotransmitters are found only in the axon terminals of presynaptic neuron, they tend to be fast acting, and produce short term responses. Neuropeptides are found all over the neuron, tend to be slow acting, and produce prolonged action. Additionally, small molecule neurotransmitters are individual amino acids whereas neuropeptides are composed of 2 to 36 amino acids.
Substance P is a member of the tachykinin peptide family that preferentially activates neurokinin-1 receptors. The numerous members of the tachykinin peptide family are involved in a multitude of neuronal signaling pathways, mediating sensations and emotional responses. Substance P (SP) transmits nociceptive signals via primary afferent fibers to spinal and brainstem second-order neurons. Compounds that inhibit SP’s action are being investigated as potential drugs to relieve pain.
Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain. Glycine and GABA are inhibitory neurotransmitters in the brain. Serotonin and histamine are other neurotransmitters in the brain.

37
Q

Cells in the zona compacta of the substantia nigra project to the

A. Globus pallidus interna
B. Thalamus
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Globus pallidus externa
E. Putamen

A

Putamen

Cells in the zona compacta of the substantia nigra (SNc) project to the putamen.
The SNc projection is excitatory to the direct pathway. In the direct pathway, the putamen inhibits the inhibitory output of the globus pallidus interna (GPi) leading to increased excitatory output of the ventrolateral (VL) thalamus to the cerebral cortex. Excitation of the direct pathway by the SNc leads to facilitation of movement.
The SNc projection is inhibitory to the indirect pathway. In the indirect pathway, the putamen inhibits the inhibitory output of the globus pallidus externa leading to increased excitatory output of the subthalamic nucleus (STN). The STN excites the GPi to inhibit the VL thalamus and, therefore, provide less excitation of the cerebral cortex. Excitation of the indirect pathway leads to inhibition of movement. Inhibition of the indirect pathway by the SNc leads to facilitation of movement.
The above is well illustrated in Figure 1 of
Bergman H, Wichmann T, DeLong MR. Reversal of experimental parkinsonism by lesions of the subthalamic nucleus. Science. 1990;249(4975):1436-8. https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/2402638/

38
Q

Which of the following is the site of action of a local anesthetic?

A. Periaqueductal grey matter
B. GABAA receptors
C. 5-HT receptors
D. Voltage-gated sodium channels
E. Mechanoreceptors

A

Voltage-gated sodium channels

To understand the mechanism of action for local anesthetics, one must first consider that the sensation of pain requires the depolarization of afferent nerve fibers. These fibers become depolarized once sodium ions influx through the voltage-gated sodium channels. Therefore, to block the pain sensation, local anesthetics cross the cell membrane and bind to the voltage-gated sodium channels to block further sodium influx and prevent propagation of action potential through the neuron. This process is concentration-dependent, so greater concentrations provide longer pain inhibition, and greater concentrations can further lead to the blockage of potassium channels which further potentiates the impulse inhibition of local anesthetics. While the periaqueductal grey matter of the midbrain is involved in the modulation of pain, local anesthetics do not interface with the supraspinal afferents to this area. Local anesthetics also do not play a primary role in modulating GABA receptors, 5-HT (serotonin) receptors, or mechanoreceptors.

39
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters is inactivated at the neural synapse by enzymatic hydrolysis?

A. Serotonin
B. Nitric oxide
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine
E. Gamma-aminobutyric acid

A

Acetylcholine

Neurotransmitters are inactivated by degradation, reuptake, and diffusion. Acetylcholine is inactivated at the synapse via degradation by acetylcholinesterase through enzymatic hydrolysis. Reuptake is a mechanism of inactivation through recycling that applies to dopamine, serotonin, and gamma-aminobutyric acid. Diffusion is a mechanism of inactivation that applies to all neurotransmitters to some degree, but for gaseous neurotransmitters, such as nitric oxide, diffusion and nonspecific reaction with substrate is the only mechanism of inactivation.

40
Q

At the presynaptic membrane, which of the following ion movements is most critical for release of neurotransmitters?

A. Cl-
B. Ca2+
C. Na+
D. K+
E. Mg2+

A

Ca2+

Presynaptic neurotransmitter release is primarily modulated by calcium ions. After an action potential is achieved, an influx of Ca2+ ions via voltage-gated Ca channels activates vesicular exocytosis via binding to SNARE protein complexes (Soluble N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor activating protein receptor) at presynaptic releasing sites.
Sodium and potassium channels are crucial for the resting membrane potential, action potential, and hyperpolarization; however, they do not directly play a role in vesicular neurotransmitter release.

41
Q

Which of the following structures is required for synaptic vesicles to release neurotransmitters?

A. SNARE proteins
B. Ligand-gated sodium channels
C. Myosin
D. Dynein
E. Kinesin

A

SNARE proteins

Depolarization of the presynaptic neuro via an action potential results in the influx of calcium ions via voltage-gated calcium channels. The calcium initiates the binding of SNARE (soluble NSF attachment protein receptors) proteins on the synaptic vesicle (synaptobrevin) and the presynaptic membrane (syntaxin and SNAP-25). The SNARE proteins then allow for exocytosis of and release of neurotransmitters from the synaptic vesicle into the synaptic cleft. Notably, botulinum neurotoxins inhibit the SNARE proteins at the neuromuscular junction resulting in paralysis.

42
Q

Which of the following is the substrate for the enzymatic synthesis of nitric oxide?

A. Tyrosine
B. Lysine
C. Arginine
D. Citruline
E. Glutamine

A

Arginine

Nitric oxide (NO) is an important signaling molecule in several biochemical processes, including blood pressure regulation, and synaptic plasticity in the CNS. NO is synthesized from the amino acid arginine via the enzyme nitric oxide synthase (NOS) and requires several cofactors, including NADPH, FAD, and BH4. Citruline is a byproduct of NO synthesis. NO is an especially important signaling molecule in smooth muscle, resulting in relaxation and subsequent vasodilation.

43
Q

Which of the following structures provide the spinal cord with muscle length information by type Ia axons?

A. Non-contractile muscle spindle fibers
B. Merkel disc receptors
C. Pacinian corpuscles
D. Contractile intrafusal muscle spindle fibers
E. Golgi tendon organs

A

Non-contractile muscle spindle fibers

Non-contractile muscle spindle fibers are innervated by Ia sensory afferents conveying information of stretch and velocity. Intrafusal muscle fibers are contractile elements of the muscle spindle that are innervated by type II Aγ afferents that transmit information on stretch. Golgi tendon organs are innervated by type Ib fibers, with greater increases in firing frequency with muscle contraction. Pacininian corpuscles transmit vibration information and Merkel discs are slow adapting receptors conveying information by type II Aβ fibers.

44
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of glycine as a neurotransmitter?

A. Post-synaptic activating signal and antagonist for glutamate on NMDA receptors
B. Post-synaptic inhibitory signal and coagonist for glutamate on NMDA receptors
C. Post-synaptic activating signal and coagonist for glutamate on NMDA receptors
D. Pre-synaptic activating signal and coagonist for glutamate on NMDA receptors
E. Pre-synaptic inhibitory signal and antagonist for glutamate on NMDA receptors

A

Post-synaptic inhibitory signal and coagonist for glutamate on NMDA receptors

The correct answer choice is post-synaptic inhibition and coagonist for glutamate on NMDA receptors. Along with GABA, glycine is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brainstem and spinal cord. Glycine induces chloride ion influx into the postsynaptic terminal, suppressing action potentials. However, in the forebrain, glycine can function as a coagonist for glutamate on NMDA receptors, which leads to the influx of calcium ion into the postsynaptic terminal, inducing an activating signal. Glycine does not work in the pre-synaptic space and is not an antagonist for the NMDA receptor.

45
Q

Which of the following transmitters is released at the neuromuscular junction?

A. acetylcholine
B. glutamate
C. dopamine
D. norepinephrine
E. serotonin

A

acetylcholine

Acetycholine is released through exocytosis when an action potential reaches the terminal bouton of a motor neuron. Acetylcholine then binds nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in the postsynaptic muscle fiber resulting in depolarization of the muscle cell. Dopamine is synthesized by neurons in the substantia nigra and arcuate nucleus. Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS. Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter of postganglionic sympathetic neurons. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter in the raphe nuclei of the brainstem.

46
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters is inactivated solely by enzymatic degradation?

A. Histamine
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Dopamine
E. GABA

A

Acetylcholine

Acetylcholine is removed from the synapse solely by degradation by acetylcholinesterase. Contrarily, GABA, dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin are all inactivated from the synapse primarily through reuptake via transport proteins.

47
Q

Intrafusal muscle fibers that comprise muscle spindles are innervated by which of the following types of motor neurons?

A. Aδ
B. B
C. C
D. α
E. γ

A

γ

γ motor neurons provide efferent innervation to the intrafusal muscle fibers to modulate the length of the polar regions to affect the responsivity of the muscle spindle to stretch. Intrafusal muscle fibers are a component of the muscle spindle that are innervated by Aγ afferents that transmit information on stretch. Aδ afferents are slower conducting peripheral nerves from free endings of excessive stretch, temperature, pain (fast) and light touch. Type C sensory afferents are the slowest conducting peripheral nerves and convey temperature and pain (slow). Type B fibers are preganglionic sympathetic efferents in the ventral root. α motor neurons are efferent fibers that stimulate extrafusal skeletal fibers to result in contraction.

48
Q

The absolute refractory period limits which of the following?

A. Opening of voltage-gated potassium channels
B. Switch of voltage-gated sodium channels from the closed state to the inactive state
C. Activation of ligand-gated potassium channels
D. Depolarization
E. Repolarization

A

Depolarization

Depolarization of a neuron occurs when an adequate stimulus causes the membrane potential to increase from resting membrane potential (-70mV) to the potential that will sufficiently activate voltage-gated sodium channels (approximately -55mV). Once this occurs, sodium channels convert from the closed to the open state and the cell depolarizes (reaches +30mV). Once a sodium channel opens, it is then converted into the inactive state in which no further stimulus can cause it to open – i.e. the absolute refractory period. This is the brief time period where no depolarization can occur until enough sodium channels convert back from the inactive state to the closed state until another stimulus causes them to once again open. The reason that the neuron can only depolarize to approximately 30mV is this is the threshold where voltage-gated potassium channels are opened to drive the membrane potential back to an overall negative value. Therefore voltage-gated potassium channels can be opened during the absolute refractory period. Ligand- gated potassium do not play a large role in the neuronal actional potential.

49
Q

Local anesthetics prevent pain perception by primarily acting at which of the following neuronal sites?

A. Ligand-gated sodium channels
B. Voltage-gated sodium channels
C. Voltage-gated calcium channels
D. Ligand-gated potassium channels
E. Ligand-gated calcium channels

A

Voltage-gated sodium channels

In order for a neuron to transmit an action potential, excitatory neurotransmitters bind to the cell body resulting in the opening of ligand-gated ion channels, such as sodium, if there is a net change in positively charged ions entering the cell body the membrane potential becomes more positive (depolarization). Once this change reaches a threshold potential, voltage-gated sodium channels open, resulting in a rapid influx of sodium ions and further depolarization (step 2 in the action potential figure). While other ion channels (ligand and voltage-gated) are involved in this process, it is the opening of the voltage-gated sodium channels that has the greatest effect on depolarization necessary for propagation of the action potential. Once a certain membrane potential is reached, the voltage-gated sodium channels become inactivated and voltage-gated potassium channels open, allowing the positively charged potassium ions to flow out of the cell body (repolarization; step 3 in the action potential figure).

Local anesthetics act by binding to and reversibly inhibiting the voltage-gated sodium channels, thus preventing depolarization and the propagation of action potentials. While local anesthetics do inhibit other voltage-gated channels (potassium and calcium), these are not the primary site of action as their affinity for these channels is significantly lower than for the voltage-gated sodium channels.
Action potential schematic showing 1) resting membrane potential 2) depolarization 3) repolarization and 4) hyperpolarization and return to baseline

49
Q

Which of the following nuclei has cholinergic output and neocortical visual perception function?

A. Nucleus Ceruleus
B. Nucleus Accumbens
C. Nucleus Basalis
D. Lateral geniculate nucleus
E. Raphe Nucleus

A

Nucleus Basalis

The nucleus basalis is the primary nucleus secreting acetylcholine to various areas of the cerebral cortex, including the lateral geniculate nucleus where it plays a role in neocortical visual perception. The lateral geniculate nucleus has acetylcholine receptors that are also influential in this pathway, but does not have cholinergic output. The nucelus ceruleus is a brainstem nucleus involved in the reticular activating system and regulates wakefulness and response to stress/panic. The Raphe nucleus is another brainstem nucleus that is the primary center for serotonin release in the brain, with a multitude of regulatory functions including mood and sleep-wake cycle. The nucleus accumbens is part of the dopaminergic pathway of the basal ganglia and does not secrete serotonin.

50
Q

Which of the following is the excitatory neurotransmitter of the projecting fibers from the cortex to the striatum?

A. Calcium
B. Glutamate
C. Norepinephrine
D. Dopamine
E. Acetylcholine

A

Glutamate

Glutamate is the correct neurotransmitter for the excitatory signal from the cortex to the striatum. The striatum has numerous inputs and outputs. From the cortex, glutamatergic excitatory signals activate the striatum. In contrast, the substantia nigra can affect the striatum through either an excitatory or inhibitory dopaminergic pathway. The striatum can then either inhibit the globus pallidus externa via the GABAergic indirect pathway or inhibit the globus pallidus interna via the GABAergic direct pathway.

51
Q

Which of the following ions is responsible for blocking the ion pore at the NMDA glutamate receptor at resting membrane potential?

A. Potassium
B. Magnesium
C. Sodium
D. Chloride
E. Bicarbonate

A

Magnesium

NMDA receptors (NMDA-R) are a type of glutamate-gated ion channel. Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS and plays a critical role in several processes including neuroplasticity, learning, and memory. The NMDA-R is unique in several ways, including its need for a co-agonist (glycine) as well as the role of Magnesium (Mg++) blockade. The extracellular concentration of Mg++ is higher in the extracellular space, which drives Mg++ into the NMDA channel, blocking the passage of any other ions. When the cell is depolarized, the Mg++ ion is displaced from the channel, which allows for Ca++ & Na+ influx and K+ efflux from the cell. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic and common recreational drug that acts by inhibiting the NMDA receptor.

52
Q

Demyelination causes which of the following effects on voltage-dependent channels and axonal conduction velocity?

A. Inhibition of voltage-dependent channels and decreased conduction velocity
B. Inhibition of voltage-dependent channels and increased conduction velocity
C. Diminished activation of voltage-dependent channels and no effect on conduction velocity
D. Diminished activation of voltage-dependent channels and decreased conduction velocity
E. Diminished activation of voltage-dependent channels and increased conduction velocity

A

**Diminished activation of voltage-dependent channels and decreased conduction velocity
**

Action potential propagation is dependent on sequential opening and closing of voltage-gated sodium channels along the length of the axon. In an unmyelinated nerve, these channels are spaced evenly along the length of the axon. In myelinated nerves, conduction is also dependent on the sequential opening and closing of voltage-gated channels; however, they are not evenly distributed. The sodium channels are clustered in the areas between myelin in the nodes of Ranvier and relatively sparse within the myelinated segments. Conduction is possible between the segments, because the myelin increases the axon’s membrane resistance and decreases the membrane capacitance, which prevents the flow of the positive ions out of the axon. This allows the signal to reach and activate the next cluster of voltage-gated sodium channels and perpetuate the action potential.
When an axon undergoes demyelination, it is unable to simply act as an unmyelinated nerve, because the distribution of voltage-gate channels remains unchanged. Without myelin, the axonal membrane resistance decreases, and the capacitance increases. This results in a loss of positive ions across the membrane in-between the clusters of voltage-gated channels and requires greater change in ion concentration to stimulate the voltage-gated sodium channels. The combination of these changes results decreases the activation of the voltage-gated channels. In a pure demyelinating process, conduction still occurs, and therefore the amplitude remains relatively unchanged, however the velocity is slowed.

53
Q

Which of the following produces a non-depolarizing inhibition of nicotinic cholinergic receptors?

A. Rocuronium
B. Atropine
C. Epibatidine
D. Scopolamine
E. Succinylchoine

A

Rocuronium

The nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (nACH-R) is located primarily at the neuromuscular junction and the pre-synaptic autonomic nervous system. nACH-R antagonists are frequently used in anesthesia as paralytic agents. The non-depolarizing nACH-R antagonists (i.g. rocuronium, vecuronium, cistatracurium) competitively bind the alpha subunit of the nACH-R at the neuromuscular junction and prevent transmission of an action potential, and thus neural end-plate potentials do not develop. In contrast, depolarizing nACH-R antagonists (e.g. succinylcholine) bind to the receptor and generate an end plate potential. Depolarizing nACH-R antagonists induce paralysis as persistent depolarization makes the muscle fiber resistant to further stimulation by ACH, and because they are resistant metabolism by acetylcholinesterase. This depolarization results in noticeable muscle fasciculations.
Epibatidine is a nACH-R agonist, not an antagonist.
Atropine and scopolamine are muscarinic, not nicotinic, ACH-R antagonists.

54
Q

Which of the following amino acids exerts the main inhibitory effect on neurons of the spinal cord?

A. NMDA
B. Aspartate
C. GABA
D. Glycine
E. Glutamate

A

Glycine

GABA and glycine are the main inhibitory neurotransmitters for the CNS. GABA is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter for the brain and glycine is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter for the spinal cord. Glutamate and aspartate both have excitatory effects in the CNS. NMDA is an agonist for glutamate receptors.

55
Q

Which of the following drugs blocks the uptake of dopamine into synaptic vesicles?

A. Amytriptyline
B. Pramipexole
C. Risperidone
D. Entacapone
E. Tetrabenazine

A

Tetrabenazine

Among the catecholamine neurotransmitters, dopamine is unique in that it is completely synthesized in the cytosol of the neuron and requires uptake into synaptic vesicles. In contrast, norepinephrine and epinephrine are synthesized within the synaptic vesicles. In order for dopamine to be released as a neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft, it must first be transported from the cytosol into the synaptic vesicle, and this process is performed by vesicular monoamine transporters (VMAT). Tetrabenazine is a VMAT2 inhibitor used for the treatment of Huntington disease. By inhibiting VMAT2, tetrabenazine depletes storage of dopamine for use as a neurotransmitter.
Risperidone is an antipsychotic medication also used for the treatment of Huntington disease; however, it works as dopamine and serotonin receptor antagonist.
Entacapone is a COMT inhibitor, which decrease the breakdown of dopamine from the synaptic cleft and is used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease.
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that increases the synaptic concentration of serotonin and norepinephrine by inhibiting their re-uptake.
Pramipexole is a dopamine receptor (D2) agonist used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease.

56
Q

Narcolepsy is associated with a deficiency of which of the following neurotransmitters?

A. Beta-endorphin
B. Oxytocin
C. Neuropeptide Y
D. Hypocretin
E. Substance P

A

Hypocretin

Hypocretins are neuropeptide neurotransmitters produced by neurons in the hypothalamus. These neurons have projections to multiple brain areas and are critical in the maintenance of the awake state. Further, deficiency of hypocretins has been demonstrated to be a mechanism underlying narcolepsy. Neuropeptide Y, substance P, oxytocin, and beta-endorphin are other neuropeptides that do no play a central role in pathobiology of narcolepsy.

57
Q

Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants?

A. Inhibits reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
B. Selective MAO-B inhibitor
C. Nonselective inhibition of monoamine oxidase
D. Increases effects of norepinephrine and dopamine
E. Alpha-2 receptor agonist and 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist

A

Inhibits reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine

The method of action for tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) is reuptake inhibition of both serotonin and norepinephrine, increasing the concentration of these neurotransmitters within the synaptic cleft. Selective serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) also inhibit reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, but more selectively than TCA as TCA also have alpha, histaminergic, and muscarinic actions. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively inhibit serotonin only. Bupropion works by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine. Monoamine uptake inhibitors such as phenelzine inhibit the monoamine oxidase enzyme responsible for breaking down serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine, and tyramine in the synaptic cleft, thus increasing their concentration and downstream effects. Finally, selective MOA-B inhibitors such as selegiline only inhibit the enzyme that breaks down dopamine and is used to treat Parkinson’s as opposed to mood disorders.

58
Q

Which of the following proteins initiates contraction of smooth muscle?

A. calmodulin
B. actin
C. myosin
D. myosin light chain kinase
E. troponin C

A

calmodulin

Excitation of smooth muscle results in an increase in cytosolic calcium, which binds calmodulin. Calcium binding results in exposure of hydrophobic domains that recognize myosin light chain kinase, which then phosphorylates myosin-II light chains, triggering contraction through a pulling motion between myosin-II light chains and actin. Striated skeletal muscle, on the other hand, is initiated by increased cytosolic calcium binding troponin-C, which exposes the actin binding site on myosin. The intrinsic ATPase activity in myosin then allows for contraction of the actin filaments.

59
Q

Which of the following is the primary neurotransmitter secreted by postganglionic parasympathetic neurons?

A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Serotonin
E. Acetylcholine

A

Acetylcholine

The correct answer is acetylcholine as the parasympathetic postganglionic neuron. In the autonomic nervous system, acetylcholine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine are the main neurotransmitters. At the preganglionic synapse, both the sympathetic and parasympathetic axons secrete acetylcholine. However, the sympathetic postganglionic synapse uses epinephrine and

norepinephrine, while the parasympathetic postganglionic synapse uses acetylcholine. Dopamine and serotonin do not play a role in the autonomic nervous system.

60
Q

The arrival of an action potential at the presynaptic terminal triggers neurotransmitter release through an opening of which of the following voltage-gated ion channels?

A. Magnesium
B. Chloride
C. Calcium
D. Potassium
E. Sodium

A

Calcium

Action potential propagation occurs secondary to unidirectional membrane depolarization via voltage-gated sodium channels. As the signal nears the terminal end of the axon, this depolarization results in the opening of voltage-gated Ca++ channels. The subsequent influx of Ca++ in the presynaptic neurons triggers synaptic vesicles to fuse with the pre-synaptic membrane and release their neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.

61
Q

Which of the following is the main function of ATP-gated potassium channels?

A. Coupling cellular metabolism and electrochemical activity within the cell
B. Depolarization of the neuronal cell membrane after conduction of an action potential
C. Repolarization of the neuronal cell membrane after conduction of an action potential
D. Limiting membrane potential changes in response to rising intracellular calcium
E. Pulmonary arteriole vasoconstriction in response to hypoxia

A

Coupling cellular metabolism and electrochemical activity within the cell

There are four major classes of potassium ion channels: calcium-activated, inward rectifying, tandem pore domain, and voltage-gated. ATP-gated (ATP-sensitive) potassium channels are a subtype of inward rectifying potassium channels that couple a cell’s metabolic state (e.g. ATP/ADP ratio) to the electrical activity of its cell membrane. Under normal physiologic conditions, the concentration of potassium is higher inside the cell than in the extracellular space. Additionally, there is a relative abundance of ATP (e.g. low ADP/ATP ratio) due to oxidative phosphorylation. In this state, ATP-gated potassium channels are closed. During ischemia, the intracellular ATP is depleted and the ADP/ATP ratio rises resulting in the opening of ATP-gate potassium channels.

Since the intracellular concentration of potassium is higher, the efflux of potassium resulting in hyperpolarization of the cells. Within the nervous system it is believed that this process is neuroprotective.
Depolarization of the neuronal cell membrane after conduction of an action potential is incorrect, as this is the function of voltage-gated sodium channels.
Repolarization of the neuronal cell membrane after conduction of an action potential is incorrect as this is the function of voltage-gated potassium channels.
Limiting membrane potential changes in response to rising intracellular calcium is incorrect as this is the function of calcium-activated potassium channels.
Pulmonary arteriole vasoconstriction in response to hypoxia is incorrect as this is the function of oxygen-sensitive potassium channels.