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APM > Neuroanatomy > Flashcards

Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Define Rostral

A

Towards the face

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2
Q

Define Caudal

A

Towards the back

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3
Q

What are the 2 parts of the cerebrum

A

Telencephalon (outer brain)

Diencephalon (inner brain)

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4
Q

What are the 3 parts of the brain stem

A

Mid brain, pons, medulla

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5
Q

What are the 3 vesicles that develop from the embryonic neural tube?

A

The Forebrain
The midbrain
The hindbrain

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6
Q

What is the name of the forebrain?

A

Prosencephalon

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7
Q

What is the name of the midbrain?

A

Mesencephalon

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8
Q

What is the name of the hindbrain?

A

Rhombencephalon

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9
Q

What does the forebrain split into?

A

The prosencephalon divides telencephalon and diencephalon

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10
Q

What does the hindbrain split into?

A

It splits into the metencephalon and myelencephalon

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11
Q

What does the mesencephalon develop into in the mature brain?

A

The midbrain

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12
Q

What does the metencephalon develop into in the mature brain?

A

The pons and the Cerebellum

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13
Q

What does the myelencephalon develop into in the mature brain?

A

Medulla oblongata

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14
Q

What is white matter?

A

substance composed from the axons of neurones (due to the myelin being composed of white fat)

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15
Q

What is grey matter?

A

Cell bodies of neurones

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16
Q

What is the longitudinal fissure and what is its other name?

A

divides the left and right hemispheres of the brain and is also called the superior sagittal fissure

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17
Q

What is the Corpus Callosum?

A

A ‘thick body’ which connects the two hemispheres

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18
Q

At what part of the Spine does the spinal cord stop? (extended by nerve functions)

A

The start of the lumbar section of the spine

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19
Q

what is the name for the nerves extending past the end point of the spinal cord down the spine?

A

Cauda Equina (horse’s tail)

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20
Q

What are the two structures extending from the pons which transmit efferent motor fibres

A

the cerebral peduncles

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21
Q

Name (and preferably label) the two bulbous structures on the medulla

A

the olives and pyramids

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22
Q

What is a colliculi?

A

Pairs of bumps on the posterior surface of the midbrain

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23
Q

Name the 4 sections of the diencephalon

A

Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Epithalamus and Subthalamus

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24
Q

What is the function of the Thalamus?

A

‘The receptionist of the brain’, it works to relay and distribute information to the rest of the CNS

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25
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Functions in the Autonomic and nueroendocrine systems

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26
Q

What is the function of the epithalamus?

A

Includes the pineal gland, which releases melatonin and so is needed in regulating sleep

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27
Q

What is the function of the Subthalamus?

A

Involved in motor control

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28
Q

Name the sensory primary projection areas.

A

General Sensory - Postcentral gyrus
Visual - around calcarine sulcus
Auditory - Heschl’s gyrus

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29
Q

Name the area of the primary motor cortex

A

Precentral gyrus

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30
Q

Go label the areas of the brain

A

:)

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31
Q

Which hemisphere is dominant in most people?

A

the Left (opposite to the hand you write with)

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32
Q

What is Broca’s aphasia?

A

damage to the area of the brain surrounding language. intelligence and understanding is fully intact, motor damaged so inability to speak fluently, can’t form full sentences.

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33
Q

What is Wernicke’s aphaisa?

A

damage to the posterior language centre. can speak fluently but gibberish, cannot understand and answer questions

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34
Q

How much of all our oxygen consumption does the brain use?

A

around 20%

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35
Q

Name the two pairs of arteries that supply blood to the brain

A

Vertebral arteries and internal carotid arteries

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36
Q

Describe the path of the vertebral arteries

A

branch off of the subclavian arteries and travel up the spinal column, pass through the foramen magnum and fuse to become the basilar artery.

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37
Q

Describe the location and function of the anterior spinal artery

A

Caused by the fusing of two arteries (coming off of the left and right ventral arteries) in the rough midline of the medulla, goes down to supply the anterior aspect of the spinal cord

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38
Q

Describe the location and function of the Posterior Spinal artery

A

Two arteries than run down from the ventral to supply the posterior surface of the spinal cord

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39
Q

Aside from anterior/posterior, what is another difference between the two spinal arteries?

A

There is one anterior and 2 posterior

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40
Q

What is the PICA?

A

Posterior Inferior Cerebellum Artery

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41
Q

What is the AICA?

A

The Anterior Inferior Cerebellum Artery, it branches off of the inferior portion of the basilar artery (the level where the pons meets medulla)

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42
Q

What are the pontine arteries?

A

The large amount of tiny arteries given off by the basilar artery to supply the pons

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43
Q

What is the SCA?

A

Superior Cerebellar artery, branches off of the basilar artery to supply superior aspect of cerebellum

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44
Q

What is the PCA?

A

Posterior Cerebral arteries, supplies the posterior cerebrum (NOT cerebellum), last of the arteries supplied by basilar and therefore vertebral

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45
Q

What is the MCA?

A

Middle Cerebral artery, goes laterally from internal carotid

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46
Q

What are the ACA?

A

Anterior Cerebral Arteries, branch from internal carotid

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47
Q

What are the names of the arteries that form the circle of willis?

A

The posterior and anterior communicating arteries

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48
Q

What is the advantage of the circle of Willis?

A

Creates a ‘collateral circulation’ where if something gets blocked, blood has a way of bypassing it

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49
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A

when the walls of a blood vessel get weak and so start to bulge out and start to accumulate blood and can burst and haemorrhage

50
Q

Where will all venous blood eventually drain into?

A

The internal jugular vein

51
Q

Name the three meinges

A

The Dura mater, Arachnoid mater and pia mater (in order outside inwards)

52
Q

Describe the dura mater

A

‘Hard mother’ it is fibrous, tough, role in protection of the brain

53
Q

Describe the Arachnoid mater

A

called arachnoid because it looks like a spiders web, it is thin, delicate and many blood vessels run under it

54
Q

Describe the pia mater

A

‘gentle mother’ microscopically thin, impossible to separate from the cortex of the brain

55
Q

What is the flax cerebri?

A

The infolding of the dura mater that creates the superior sagittal sinus and separates the hemispheres

56
Q

What is the tentori cerebi?

A

dura infoldings between the occipital lobes and cerebellum

57
Q

What is different in the spinal cord meninges?

A

The dura mater is no longer in contact with bone, instead there is an epidural space (filled with fat). [subarachnoid still contains CSF]

58
Q

Where is CSF produced?

A

in groups of specialised cells called the choroid plexus, located in the ventricles (exist in each ventricle)

59
Q

Where does newly formed CSF leave the ventricles?

A

At the fourth ventricle through the Median aperture (foramen of Magendie) and Lateral apertures (foramina of Luschka)

60
Q

How does the CSF transfer from the subarachnoid space into venous circulation

A

through arachnoid granulations/villi

61
Q

What are the two pathways that transmit the sensations of pain and temperature?

A

Spinothalamic and Trigeminothalamic

62
Q

Name a few modalities in the spinothalamic pathway and how they are carried

A

Pain, Temp, Simple touch and simple pressure, carried slowly by thin un/poorly myelinated nerve fibres

63
Q

Define dermatome.

A

A specific region of skin of the body innervated by the sensory fibres of a single segmental spinal nerve (spinal cord segment)

64
Q

How many neurones are there in the sensory pathway chain

A

3

65
Q

What does Pseudounipolar mean?

A

A type of neurone that has one axon that quickly splits into 2 branches, making it look like it has 2 axon projections when it has 1

66
Q

Describe the location of the spinothalamic pathway in the spinal cord

A

Mostly in the ventral white column, but it can reach around a little to be slightly in the lateral white column

67
Q

Where does the first synapse occur in the spinothalamic pathway?

A

in dorsal grey horn or may ascends 1-2 segments then synapse -so 2nd neurone (2’) is what ascends spinothalamic tract

68
Q

Where does the 2’ neurone cross over?

A

Ventral white commissure

69
Q

Describe the Somatotopic organization of ascending fibres (Spinothalamic pathway)

A

Sensation from the arm will be the most medial, the trunk will be in the middle of the tract and the legs laterally

70
Q

What happens to the spinothalamic tract after it reaches the medulla?

A

It changes names to become the spinal lemniscus

71
Q

Where is the second synapse in the spinothalamic pathway?

A

In the thalamus to transit info to the 3’ neurone

72
Q

Describe the location and subdivision of the trigeminal sensory nuclei

A

Runs through the length of the pons into the medulla. it has (superior to inferior) the Mesencephalic nucleus, the pontine nucleus and the spinal nucleus

73
Q

At what part of the trigeminal nucleus are pain and temperature transmitted?

A

the Caudal part of the spinal nucleus

74
Q

What anatomical part of the eye leads to a ‘blind spot’?

A

The optic disk

75
Q

Where is the area of the eye that gives the highest level of visual acuity?

A

The Macula (leuta)

76
Q

which layer of the eye is vascular?

A

The choroid

77
Q

What is the purpose of the ciliary muscle?

A

To control the shape of the lens

78
Q

True or False: the structures that make up the retina are not part of the Central Nervous System

A

False

79
Q

Describe the visual pathway from the eye to the thalamus

A

light -> photoreceptors -> bipolar cells -> ganglion cells -> down the optic nerve to the thalamus

80
Q

What area of the thalamus is involved in the visual pathway?

A

The Lateral geniculate nucleus

81
Q

Does the optic nerve has meninges?

A

Yes as it is a part of the diencephalon and the CNS

82
Q

What is papilloedema?

A

An increase in CDF pressure swells the subarachnoid space in the optic nerve causing a swelling of the optic disk. Causes blurred vision, headaches, vomiting

83
Q

What is Meyer’s loop?

A

The inferior trajectory of the optic radiation transmitting the upper visual field to the lower bank of the calcarine sulcus

84
Q

Where will the information for the macula get sent to?

A

The occipital pole (another layer of organization)

85
Q

What is the name for a localised patch of blindness?

A

Scotoma

86
Q

Define Anopia.

A

refers to the loss of one or more quadrants of the visual field (therefore hemianopia is loss of half of the visual field)

87
Q

Define homonymous

A

Visual field losses are similar for both sides

88
Q

What is the purpose of the middle ear?

A

To turn sound waves into mechanical waves

89
Q

What is the purpose of the inner ear?

A

To turn mechanical waves into electrical impulses

90
Q

What amount of the external ear is bony?

A

lateral 1/3 cartilage, medial 2/3 bony

91
Q

What is the correct name for the eardrum

A

The tympanic membrane

92
Q

How is the ear connected to the nasopharynx?

A

The middle ear is an air filled space connected by the Eustachian tube

93
Q

Why is the middle ear such a high risk space?

A

Connected to nasopharynx – prone to infection
Connected to mastoid air cells – infection may spread to middle cranial fossa
Internal jugular vein lies inferior – thrombosis risk
Internal carotid artery lies anterior – link to pulsatile tinnitus
Traversed by chorda tympani and facial canal – infection risk

94
Q

Which cranial nerve is involved in the cochlear?

A

The VIII, the vestibulocochlear nerve

95
Q

The information from the cochlear is transmitted bilaterally. What does this mean?

A

Each half of the brain is sent information for both ears

96
Q

Where does auditory information first synapse in the brain stem?

A

In the dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei in the medulla

97
Q

The more anterior in Heschl’s gyrus will detect ____ frequency sound

A

Lower, so the more posterior you go the higher the frequency

98
Q

Define anxiety

A

A feeling or worry or nervousness, typically about an imminent event or something with an uncertain outcome (also has physical symptons)

99
Q

between which vertebrae does the lateral grey horn with visceral fibres exist for the autonomic system?

A

(aside from the cranial nerves) T1-L2, S2-S4

100
Q

how long is the neurone chain for the efferent visceral autonomic fibres?

A
  1. It has a preganglionic neurone in the CNS, a PNS autonomic ganglion and then a postganglionic neurone
101
Q

which section of the autonomic nervous system has organised ganglia in a trunk close to the spinal column?

A

The sympathetic

102
Q

The parasympathetic autonomic division has ganglia ____ to the target organ

A

Near

103
Q

Which division of the autonomic system has a widespread effect and why?

A

The sympathetic because impulses can travel up and down the ganglion chain to interact with out organs

104
Q

What neurotransmitter is used in the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Acetylcholine

105
Q

Which is the main parasympathetic nerve of the viscera of the trunk?

A

The Vagus nerve

106
Q

What neurotransmitter is used in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

It uses acetylcholine in the preganglionic neurone interaction with the autonmic ganglion and noradrenaline in the target organ

107
Q

What is the purpose of the meisner corpuscle?

A

For detecting light touch

108
Q

What are nociceptors?

A

The simple free nerve endings in the peripheral that respond to tissue damage

109
Q

Give three examples of chemicals released at the site of tissue damage and their function.

A

Prostaglandins, bradykinin and histamine, used to sensitise the nociceptor (irritants) to increase stimulus to increase likelihood of a response

110
Q

What is a polymodial nociceptor?

A

A nociceptor that can respond to multiple types of stimuli and care more about the intensity of the stimulus rather than the type

111
Q

What are the differences between the C and Adelta fibres nociceptors?

A

C are small, unmyelinated and focus on sharp pain and warm, Adelta are myelinated and focus on burning pain and cold

112
Q

What is the purpose for ipsilateral mechanoreceptors in a pain response?

A

For a reflex arc

113
Q

Describe the components of first pain

A

with fast Adelta fibres, easily localised, sharp, short duration (the immediate response)

114
Q

Describe the components of second pain

A

with slower C fibres, burning/dull ache, slow onset, poorly localised, persistent

115
Q

True or false: the spinal cord is laminated

A

True

116
Q

What is the substania gelatinosa?

A

lamina I and II of the spinal cord where the afferent nociceptor fibres are

117
Q

Where is pain relayed to in the brain?

A

The thalamus and somatasensory cortex

118
Q

Describe the pain pathway from the head and neck

A

Afferent descend down the spinal trigeminal tract to the brain stem. Synapse in the pars caudalis. Axons ascend contralaterally in trigeminothalamic tract, projects to coretx.

119
Q

How does the trigeminothalamic tract axons project to the cortex?

A

Via the Ventral posteromedial nucleus

120
Q

True or false: the same type of pain is always the same regardless of context

A

False

121
Q

What can the brain do to reduce pain

A

Release endogenous opiate-like chemicals

122
Q

Give examples of conditions cannaboids are used to treat

A

Epilepsy, anxiety, cancer pain, MS

APM (4 decks)

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