Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What would cause uncontrollable jerking movements post-stroke?

A

Glutamate excitability.

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2
Q

Why could horizontal but not vertical eye movement be maintained in an individual?

A

They derive from different nerves with different blood supples:
Horizontal = Abducens nerve
Vertical = Oculomotor nerve

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3
Q

Which is the largest bone in the skull?

A

The mandible.

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4
Q

How many bones are in the skull?

A

22 bones

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5
Q

Name the cranial bones

A

Frontal, parietal (2), occipital, temporal (2), sphenoid, ethmoid.

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6
Q

Name x3 of the facial bones

A

Maxilla (2), nasal (2), lacrima (2), mandible.

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7
Q

Which facial bones are the cheekbones?

A

Zygoma

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8
Q

What is the function of the conchae bones in the nose?

A

Increase surface area as air is breathed in and humidified.

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9
Q

What is the name for the ‘soft spot’ on the top of a baby’s head?

A

Fontanelle (close up between 18-24 months of age).

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10
Q

What sits inside the posterior cranial fossae?

A

The cerebellum.

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11
Q

Through which structure does the Olfactory nerve pass?

A

The foramina of the cribriform plate.

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12
Q

Which two arteries supply the brain?

A

The carotid and vertebral arteries.

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13
Q

Name the largest foramen in the skull.

A

Foramen magnum

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14
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12 PAIRS.

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15
Q

Which is the nerve related to balance and hearing?

A

Vestibulococchlear nerve.

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16
Q

Which is the thickest layer of the meninges?

A

The Dura Mater

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17
Q

What are fossae? What are the types?

A

Where parts of the brain sits.
Anterior cranial fossae
Middle cranial fossae
Posterior cranial fossae

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18
Q

What joint is responsible for someone’s jaw clicking?

A

The Temperomandibular joint

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19
Q

What is a condyle?

A

A joint

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20
Q

What are the two layers of the Dura Mater?

A

The meningeal layer (closest to the brain)

The Periosteal layer (closest to the skull)

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21
Q

Scalp lacerations pose a threat to which vein?

A

The emissary vein.

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22
Q

What type of intracranial haemorrhage is associated with damage to the Middle meningeal artery?

A

Epidural haemorrahge/ haematoma. Epidural commonly occurs with BLUNT trauma.

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23
Q

What is the clinical significance of the tentorial notch?

A

Part of the temporal lobe can be pushed through this notch if there is raised intracranial pressure.

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24
Q

What is the alpha motor neurone?

A

A LMN which upon stimulation causes voluntary muscular contraction.

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25
What are the three types of motor unit?
I, IIA and IIB. IIB is the fastest but fatiguable. IIA is fast but fatigue resistant.
26
Where are LMNs found?
In the ventral root of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.
27
What are mEPPs?
Mini end plate potentials = single vesicles releasing ACh = slower release of ACh at rest.
28
What is BPPV?
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo - commonest cause of vertigo.
29
What is the tone for slurred speech?
Dysarthria
30
'Function of sphincters are normal' relates to what?
A person's gastrointestinal sphincters i.e. urination.
31
Tongue bilaterally wasting. UMN or LMN?
LMN; wasting.
32
Do fasciculations relate to UMN or LMN?
LMN lesion.
33
Extended plantar muscles. UMN or LMN?
UMN lesion.
34
Anything 'brisk' - UMN or LMN?
UMN.
35
Absent abdominal reflexes - UMN or LMN?
UMN.
36
What is characteristic of motor neuron disease?
A combination of UMN and LMN lesions.
37
What is the clinical term for 'pins and needles?'
Paraesthesia.
38
Does stiffness relate to UMN or LMN?
UMN; hyperspasticity.
39
Is clonus indicative of UMN or LMN lesions?
UMN; involuntary contraction associated with spasticity.
40
Which segment(s) supplies the biceps and supinator reflexes?
C5/C6.
41
Which segment supplies the triceps reflex?
C7
42
Which segment supplies the finger jerks?
C8/T1
43
What is the babinski reflex?
An exaggerated extensor reflex - UMN lesion.
44
What is the difference between spasticity and rigidity?
``` Spasticity = more resistance than force. Rigidity = same amount of resistance as force. ```
45
What are slow movements called?
Bradykinesia
46
What are the triad of symptoms in Parkinson's disease?
Tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity. Expressionless face. Trait ignition failure = cannot get going. Want to move leg but cannot!
47
What is ptosis?
Drooping of the eyelid
48
What triad of symptoms would you see in Horner's syndrome?
Drooping of eyelid Pupil constriction Lack of facial sweating
49
Name 3 causes of ptosis
Horner's syndrome Oculomotor palsy Myasthenia
50
Which cranial nerves arise from the midbrain?
1-4
51
Which cranial nerves arise from the pons?
5-8
52
Which cranial nerves arise from the medulla?
9-12
53
Slurred speech could relate to damage in which of the cranial nerves?
Hypoglossal/Facial
54
Which cranial nerve keeps the eyelid open?
The oculomotor nerve
55
Nystagmus is characteristic of a problem in which part of the brain?
The cerebellum
56
Which are the two sensory pathways?
The Dorsal Column pathway and the spinothalamic tract
57
How many stages of sleep are there?
5; 4 NREM, 5th = REM.
58
How long is one sleep cycle?
90 minutes
59
Which part of the brain promotes wakefulness?
The lateral hypothalamus
60
Which part of the brain promotes sleep?
Ventrolateral preoptic nucleus (anterior hypothalamus)
61
Which part of the brain synchronises sleep?
The SCN - Suprachiasmatic nucleus
62
Does melatonin induce sleep or wakefulness?
Sleep
63
Do dreams occur in NREM or REM sleep?
Both but more in REM sleep.
64
What is hypersomnia?
Excessive sleepiness
65
Define narcolepsy
Falling asleep repeatedly and disruption of night sleep.
66
Define cataplexy
Sudden brief loss of muscle tone - triggered by strong emotions e.g. laughter.
67
Is sleep walking rem or nrem?
NREM.
68
What is a vegetative state?
eyes open but no wakefulness.
69
There is a single brain area for consciousness. T/F?
False
70
What are wakefulness levels in locked in syndrome?
Normal.
71
Which is the fastest rhythm on the EEG?
beta rhythm. slowest = delta. 'droswy' = alpha
72
What are the three aspects of the glasgow coma scale?
eyes, verbal response, motor response (3-15)
73
Is the corpus callosum a white or grey matter tract?
White matter tract
74
'Neglect' is what and in which brain lobe could a lesion cause it?
Disrupted spatial recognition - i.e. only see half of a clock. Parietal lobe affected.
75
In which lobe is the hippocampus?
The temporal lobe
76
Opioids will increase dopamine release from which structure?
The nucleus accumbens
77
Which is the joint in the vertebrae which allows rotation?
The atlanto-axial joint (between C1 and C2)
78
Which joint in the vertebrae allows flexion/extension?
The atlanto-occipital joint
79
Give x2 structural characteristics of the lumbar vertebrae.
Large kidney-shaped vertebral body and short spinous processes.
80
Give x2 structural characteristics of the thoracic vertebrae.
Heart shaped vertebral body and long spinous processes.
81
Give x2 characteristics of the structure of the cervical vertebrae.
Small rectangular vertebral body and small BIFID spinous proccesses
82
Be able to label the atypical vertebrae. Which is the atypical vertebrae?
C1 (atlas), C2 (axis) and C7
83
What is atypical about C1?
Lacks a vertebral body or spinous process
84
What is atypical about C2?
Has an 'odontoid process (peg)'.
85
What is atypical about C7?
Does not have a bifid spinous process and has THE LONGEST spinous process.
86
How many strap muscles are there and name them
4 PAIRS of muscles: omohyoid, sternohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid.
87
At which vertebral level are the thyroid and cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage = C4 | Cricoid cartilage = C6
88
At which vertebral level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal and external carotid artery
C4
89
What does 'omo' mean in latin?
Shoulder
90
The brachial plexus is formed from which rami?
C5, C6, C7, C8, T1
91
Define deglutition
Swallowing
92
What is the hard palate?
The anterior 2/3 of the roof of the mouth.
93
What does it mean to be a serous salivary gland? Which are the two serous salivary glands?
Secretes proteins and enzymes in saliva | Parotid and submandibular (which is also mucous).
94
What is the gate control theory?
Non-noxious stimulation inhibiting pain transmission from peripheries to the brain. Via spinal cord/ dorsal root ganglion (central inhibition pathway or peripheral inhibition) look at post notes if cannot remember.
95
Which are the key somatosensory areas?
SI - Primary somatosensory cortex SI - Secondary somatosensory cortex Posterior parietal cortex [All post central gyrus]