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MCD Flashcards

1
Q

Name the three causes of B12 deficiency

A 
Pernicious anaemia (Lack of intrinsic factor)
GI disorders (Crohn's affecting B12 absorption in terminal ileum). 
Dietary deficiency
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2
Q

Name x2 tests for B12 deficiency diagnosis

A

Intrinsic factor and parietal cell antibodies

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3
Q

Name x2 examples of the parenteral route

A

Intravascular/ intramuscular.

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4
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for detecting the cause of microcytic anaemia

A

Iron deficiency
Thalassaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease (ACD).

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5
Q

What are the four mechanisms of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Ineffective iron utilisation
Reduced EPO (erythropoeitin)
Reduced EPO sensitivity
Reduced Red cell survival

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6
Q

Which is the most important next step in detecting the cause of microcytic anaemia in an individual?

A

Check Serum Ferritin;

Differentiates between iron deficiency as a cause and Anaemia of chronic disease.

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7
Q

Describe transferrin levels in anaemia of chronic disease Vs. Iron deficiency

A

ACD: low/ normal

Iron deficiency: High

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8
Q

Describe ferritin levels in anaemia of chronic disease Vs. Iron deficiency

A

ACD: High

Ion deficiency: normal

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9
Q

Is it transferrin or ferritin which is high in iron deficiency?

A

Serum transferrin

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10
Q

What is the cause of pre-hepatic Jaundice?

A

Haemolysis

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11
Q

Which marker will indicate haemolysis (pre-hepatic Jaundice)?

A

LDH.

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12
Q

How will you know if microcytic anaemia is due to thalassaemia?

A

Check HbA2.

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13
Q

Which pathways inhibit the CDKs?

A

CKI - Cyclin kinase inhibitors e.g. INK4 and PIP/KIP.

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14
Q

Give x3 examples of protooncogenes

A

Ras, HER2, C-Myc.

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15
Q

Give 2 tumour suppressor genes

A

P53 and pRb.

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16
Q

What structure inhibits P53 from taking action?

A

MDM2.

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17
Q

What is alkylation?

A

Adding a methyl group. MDMT works to reverse alkylation by removing methyl group.

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18
Q

What do DNA endonucleases do?

A

Break and open up the double DNA strand.

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19
Q

What do BER and NER stand for?

A

Base excision repair
Nucleotide excision repair

(Phosphodiester bond is only broken in NER).

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20
Q

Which are the 3 most common types of skin cancer?

A

Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma

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21
Q

What type of bacteria is Listeria?

A

Gram positive bacteria

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22
Q

Which filaments do actin form?

A

The microfilaments (not microtubules).

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23
Q

What are the two forms of actin?

A

G (globular) and F (filamentous)

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24
Q

Which is the form of energy once globular actin becomes filamentous at the positive end?

A

ATP - exchanged to ADP at negative end

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25
Name the complex required in nucleation from G to F actin
ARP2/3
26
Name the protein necessary for motility in Listeria bacteria
ActA
27
Which protein is responsible for removing proteins?
Cofilin (required for rapid removal to ultimately allow rapid addition of proteins in nucleation).
28
What does profilin do?
Enhances the rate of replacing ADP with ATP and encouraging polymerisation.
29
Name the 3 components of the cytoskeleton
Microfilament Microtubule Intermediate filaments
30
Name the required components for PCR
Forward and backward direction Primers dNTPs Taq polymerase (enzymes which withstands heat during denaturing).
31
What is the purpose of PCR?
To amplify DNA (by elongation adding dNTPs)
32
In a 4th cycle of PCR, how many chromosome copies will we make?
16 double stranded copies (32 chromosomes)
33
What do we use to separate PCR products and analyse the chromosomes?
Electrophoresis on agarose gel (agar gel!)
34
What is the temperature required for (a) denaturation (b) extension and (c) cooling
(a) 95 degrees celcius (b) 72 degrees (c) 10 degrees
35
What is the purpose of 'loading dye' in electrophoresis?
Assesses the speed of DNA as it moves from negative to positive electrode; DNA is negative.
36
Do smaller or bigger DNA fragments move faster in electrophoresis?
Smaller
37
Give x2 limitations of PCR
Non-specific primers may bind to similar DNA sequences. This means that prior info is needed to make the correct target primers. Can only use with KNOWN pathogens - Highly sensitive so any contamination alters results
38
How would we know that an individual is infected with mycobacterium Tub. in our PCR reaction?
More base pairs (300bp) in the PCR product
39
How can white blood cells be divided?
Into polymorphonuclear (granulocytes) and mononuclear cells.
40
Neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils are all classed as which white blood cell type?
Granulocytes
41
Which are the mononuclear cells?
Lymphocytes and monocytes
42
Describe the nucleocytoplasmic ratio in lymphocytes.
high
43
What is the characteristic shape of eosinophils?
Bilobed.
44
How will anaemia appear on a blood film?
Red blood cells far apart on film.
45
What is the term for many red blood cells?
Polycythaemia.
46
What is hypochromia?
Increased central pallor.
47
What is anisocytosis?
Variation in size of red blood cells.
48
What is anisochromasia?
Variation in haemoglobin concentration.
49
What may cause hyperchromia?
Spherocytosis
50
What are spherocytes?
Cells which lack central pallor.
51
When may elliptocytes be seen?
Anaemia
52
Where may you see teardrop poikilocytes?
Megaloblastic anaemia or myelofibrosis.
53
What are schistocytes?
Fragments of erythrocytes - small, v. irregualrly shaped cells
54
When may increased staining of a blood film be seen?
Increased Ig concentration, myeloma,
55
How can we reduce agglutination?
Warm blood film
56
What are acanthocytes?
Small, dark cells with irregularly placed spicules.
57
Which 'body' cell would you see in a hyposplenic patient with megaloblastic anaemia?
Howell-Jolly bodies
58
What is typical on a blood film for multiple myeloma?
Rouleaux formation
59
an Auer rod is characteristic for which disease on blood film?
AML - acute myeloid leukaemia.
60
Which cell could indicate whether a blood film belongs to a male or female?
The neutrophil; drumstick coming off lobe indicates inactivated X chromosome.
61
What are the really small cells on blood film?
Platelets
62
How would you describe the appearance of basophils?
Granules overlaying the nucleus
63
What is the name for change in size of red blood cells?
Anisocytosis
64
Name x3 types of anaemia.
Iron deficient anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, sickle cell anaemia.
65
What is megaloblastic anaemia?
B12 deficiency.
66
What is characteristic on the blood film of megaloblastic anaemia?
Hypersegmented neutrophils.
67
Which cells are normal in iron deficient anaemia?
WBCs and platelets
68
Which marker measures the intrinsic coagulation pathway?
APTT
69
Which marker measures the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
PT
70
What does APTT stand for?
Activated Partial Thromboplastin time
71
A defect in F8
Haemophilia A
72
Which are the two main components of the extrinsic pathway?
Tissue Factor and F7 (FVII)
73
Which marker measures the common coagulation pathway?
Thrombin time (TT).
74
Haemophilia affects which part of the coagulation pathway? Which is therefore the best marker?
The intrinsic pathway; affects F8/F9. Prolonged APTT.
75
What are the clinical symptoms in F12 deficiency?
No clinical symptoms.
76
With pale stool and dark urine, what is a potential diagnosis?
Gallstones
77
Which are the vitamin K dependent coagulant factors?
2, 7, 9, 10
78
Why would obstructive jaundice cause vitamin K deficiency?
Lack of bile acid production = cannot emulsify Vit K = Vit K not absorbed. (not that it isn't made, but isn't absorbed).
79
O- has what antigens?
No antigens = universal donor
80
AB+ is a....
universal recipient

Y2 - my own (7 decks)

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