Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q

define the sagittal view of the brain

A
  • brain sliced down between your eyes
  • front to back is rostral to caudal
  • top to bottom is dorsal and ventral
  • will only contain one hemisphere
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define the horizontal view of the brain

A
  • brain sliced through the middle at ear level horizontally
  • contains both hemispheres
  • middle is midline and medial
    each side is referred to as a lateral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

define the coronal view of the brain

A
  • brain sliced at ear level vertically
  • contains both hemispheres
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

define neuraxis

A

the main axis of the central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the difference between ipsilateral and contralateral

A

ipsilateral is when the structures are on the same side of the midline and contralateral are on opposite sides of the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the different sections of the spinal cord?

A

cervical: C1 - C7
thoracic: T1 - T12
lumbar: L1 - L5
Sacral: S1 - S5
coccygeal: Co1 - Co3
- each vertebra is in contact with a spinal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

define ventral and dorsal

A

ventral = front
dorsal = back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how do nerve connections work in the spinal cord?

A

dorsal route: contains afferent sensory neurons (skin), to the NCS, dorsal root ganglian contains cell bodies outside of the spinal cord
ventral route: contains effernt motor neurons (away from CNs to muscles), has cell bodies located in the gray matter of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are all the cranial nerves?

A
  • olfactory: small
  • optic: vision
  • hypoglossal: tongue movements
  • accessory: neck muscles
  • vagus: internal organs
  • oculomotor: eye movement, pupil control
  • trochlear: eye movement
  • abducens: eye movements
  • trigeminal: facial sensation and jaw muscles
  • facial: taste, facial muscles
  • auditory: hearing, balance
  • glossopharyngeal: taste, throat, larynx muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

define sympathetic division

A
  • division of PNS, off of autonomic
  • thoracolumbar
  • fight or slight
  • short preganglionic connection to release acetylcholine
  • long postganglionic connection to release norepinephrine (adrenaline)
  • change the body in ways such as increase heart rate, decrease activity of stomach, trigger orgasm, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define parasympathetic division

A
  • division of PNS, off of autonomic
  • cranial-sacral system
  • rest and digest
  • long preganglionic cell to release acetylcholine
  • short postganglionic cell to release acetylcholine
  • opposite behaviours of sympathetic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how does the body know if its gonna get a sympathetic or para response?

A

the NT that are released from the neurons are associated with the proper division and can only bind to specific receptors that will create the proper signal for the body to act on. each system activates the same muscles and organs, just opposing behaviours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define enteric system

A
  • connection between the digestive system and your brain
  • ENS controls the actions of muscles around the intestine
  • partially controls the immune response in gut
  • controls the secretion of substances from the cells that line the gut wall
  • driven by the vagus nerve
  • gut-brain axis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the main meninges?

A

main 3:
- dua matter
- arachnoid membrane
- pia mater
others:
- subarachnoid space (CSF flows through here)
- arachnoid trabeculae (webl like connections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

define meningitis

A
  • infection of the meninges (main 3 layers of the brain)
  • can spread to all the brain tissue
  • causes swelling and put internal pressure on the brain (can cause deficits depending on where the pressure is resting)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

define encephalitis

A
  • infection of the brain
  • causes swelling and destroys cells
  • more likely to get it if your blood-brain barriers is already comprimised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does blood get to the cortex?

A
  • internal carotid and basilar artery combine to form the circle of Willis complex
  • blood goes between the posterior, anterior, and middle parts of the brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how do good and bad blood get exchanged?

A
  • blood flows into the brain via an artery
  • enter a capilary bed where oxygen exchange occurs
  • deoxygenated blood then leaves the brain via veins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

define the dural venous sinuses

A
  • essentially just a big version of veins
  • how the blood leaves the brain
  • veins will drain into the sinuses to then go to the jugular vein
    contains: superior sagittal sinus, superficial cerbral vein, great cerebral vein of galen, straight sinus, transverse sinus, sigmoid sinus, internal jugular vien
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does the ventricular system consist of?

A
  • ventricles contain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
  • central, frontal, temporal, and occipital parts of the lateral ventricle
  • cerebral aqueduct
  • third and fourth ventricle that connects everything together
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the movements of CSF?

A
  • flows from the 3rd to the 4th ventricle via arachnoid granulations
  • flows into the cisterna manga and then into the subarachnoid space (a meninge)
  • flows into the central canal to extend down to the spinal cord
  • excreted into the dural inus system via arachnoid villi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the tissue that makes CSF?

A

choroid plexus create CSF and then releases it into the ventricles
- cuboidal choroid epithelium (glial cell) surrrond the spinal cord
- fluid cannot leave due to tight junctions of the cells, this creates the blood-brain barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the functions of the CSF?

A
  • provide cushioning and support
  • remove waste from the brain
  • supports NT by controlling the amount that is retained and is spread
  • secretes immune-related molecules
  • secrete growth factors that helps neurogenesis
24
Q

define hydrocephalus

A
  • enlargement of the ventricle caused by a buildup of CSF
  • Brain tissue becomes compressed against the skull triggering symptoms such as cognitive deficits
  • can be drained but best to do it when young so they have the change to recover and move part the defecits
25
Q

what are the 3 main parts of the brainstem?

A
  1. forebrain: includes telencephalon (cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, limbic structures) and diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus)
  2. midbrain: includes mesencephalon ( tectum, tegmentum)
  3. hindbrain: includes metencephalon (cerebellum, pons) and myelencephalon (medulla oblongata)
26
Q

what are the parts of the medulla oblongata?

A

cranial nerves: glossopharyngeal, vagus, hyposglossal and accessory
- vestibular nuclei: vestibular fucntion such as balance
- area postrema: porous blood-brain barriers, toxin detection
- reticular formation: arousal, motor movements
- raphe nuclei: arousal of cortex, sleep-wake cycle
- rostral ventrolateral medulla: respiration and cardiovascular system
- inferior olive: motor movements
- cochlear nuclear: processing of auditory info

27
Q

what are the parts of the pons?

A

nerves: abducens, trieminal, vestibulochoclear, facial
- locus coeruleus: increase arousal, pupil dilation
- reticular formation: arousal and motor movement
- cochlear nucleus: auditory info
- vestibular nuclei: vestibular functions
- superior olive: processing auditory info (localization)
- raphe nuclei: arousal of cortex, sleep-wake cycle

28
Q

what are the parts of the cerebellum?

A

anterior, posterior, and flocculonodular lobe (fine motor movement and control)

29
Q

what are the cognitive functions of the cerebellum?

A

attention, executive control, memory, language, visual perception

30
Q

define agenesis of the cerebellum

A

when the entire cerebellum is missing. can see improvement in cognitive deficits as the other parts of the brain go on to take over its role (plasticity)

31
Q

define tectum

A
  • part of the midbrain, subdivision mesencephalon
  • connected with the oculomotor and trochlear nerve
  • superior colliculus: visual
  • inferior callicolus: audiotory
32
Q

define tegmentum

A
  • part of the midbrain, subdivision mesencephalon
  • raphe nuclei: arousal of cortex, sleep-wake cycle
  • reticular formation: arousal, motor movements
33
Q

define cerebral aquduct

A
  • ventricle that a part of the midbrain
  • substantial nigra: controlled movement, reward processing
  • ventral tegmental area (VTA): reward, motivation behaviour
  • red nucleus: motor movements
  • periaqueductal gray (PAG): pain and emotion
34
Q

define thalamus

A
  • part of the forebrain, subsection diencephalon
  • has many nuclei that create it
    –> ventral lateral nucleus (motor), lateral geniculate (visual), medial geniculate )(auditory)
  • serve as a sensory really centre of the brain
35
Q

define hypothalamus

A
  • part of the forebrain, subsection diencephalon
  • hypothalamic nuclei: homeostatic functions
  • hormones are created here, the sent to the pituitary gland where it is flwoed into the blood stream and around the body
  • pituitary gland: contains many blood vessels, anterior and posterior sections, connects to the bloodstream
  • pineal gland: hormonal response (descartes theory)
36
Q

define cerebral cortex

A
  • part of the forebrain, subsection telecehalon
37
Q

define basal ganglia

A
  • part of the forebrain, subsection telencephalon
  • caudate nucleus and putamen, often called dorsal striatum (supported by substantia nigra from the midbrain)
  • globus pallidus (supported by VTA from the midbrain)
  • motor movement processes
  • nucleus accumbens
  • non-motor functions: habit learning, visual discrimination learning, response switching, reward processing, motivation
38
Q

define the limbic system

A
  • part of the forebrain, subsection telencephalon
  • under cortex and surrounds brain steam
  • emotion and regulatory processes
  • amygdala: emotion processing
  • fornix: connect hippocampus and mammilary bodies
  • hippocampus: memory processing
  • mammillary bodies: memory
39
Q

what diseases can occur when you damage the basal ganglia?

A
  • huntingtons: decrease in dopamine, spastic movements
  • parkinsons: shakly body movements, freezing motions in face and body
  • turrets: uncontrolled movements, ticks

due to disruption in basal ganglia and decrease in dopamine

40
Q

define the limbic lobe

A

anterior cingulate cortex: emotion and pain realted, cognitive control and error detection, anticipation of reward

posterior cingulate cortex: monitoring of eye movement, spatial orientation, memory

parahippocampal gyrus: memory

41
Q

define corpus callosum

A
  • interhemispheric transfer of info
  • causes split brain when this is damaged/disconnected
42
Q

define the cholinergic system

A
  • neuron release Ach from baal forebrian to the cortex and limbic system
  • also release from pons and midbrain into amyglada, thalamus, brainsteam and cerebellum,
  • laterodoral tegmental nucleus and pedunculopontine nucleus
43
Q

define the dopaminergic system

A
  • mesocortical system includes dopaminergic neurons that project from VTA into cortex
  • mesolimbic system includes dopaminergic neurons that project from VTA to limic structures
  • nigrotratial system includes neurosn that release dopamine from the substantial nigra and into the basal ganlia
44
Q

define the noradrenergic system

A
  • includes nuerons that release norepinephrine from the locus coeruleus that project into various regions
45
Q

define serotonergic system

A
  • neruons that release serotonin from the raphe nuclie of the brainsteam and project into most parts of the brain
46
Q

What are the main parts of the cerebral cortex?

A

grey matter; cell bodies and dendrites
fissure: deep grooves
gyrus: bump or protrusion
sulcus: groove or indentation
bank of the sulcus: side of the groove
fundus: bottom of groove
white matter: myelinated axons

47
Q

what are the layers of the cortex called?

A

cortical layer/laminae
- cortical columns: layers that are parallel to the surface of the cortex, have different fucntion

48
Q

what are the 5 main connecting aprts of the cortex?

A

central suluc, lateral fissue, longitudinal fissue, parieto-occipital sulcus and cingulate sulcus

49
Q

who is wilder penfield?

A
  • he stimulated the cortex during a brain surgery; triggered sensations, images and memories
  • sensory and motor homunculus
50
Q

define cortical topography

A

practise of mapping out the functions of different brain areas

51
Q

what are the 4 primary cortices?

A

motor (area 4), auditory ( 41 adn 42), somatosensory (1,2 and 3), and visual (area 17) numbers are from brodmann’s map

52
Q

what are the functions of the frontal lobe?

A
  • excutive function, control and emotion
    damged leads to:
  • disorganized behaviour, disinhibition, impaired abstract thinking, perservation, personality changes, emotional lability
    (phineas gage)
53
Q

what are the functions of the parietal lobe?

A
  • contains somatosensory cortex
  • integrates sensory inforatmion and internal states with external info or goals
  • numerical cognition
    -damage leads to:
  • left side cause apraxia: inability to coordinate fine motor movements
  • right side cause neglect: left hemi neglect
54
Q

what are the functions fo the temporal lobe?

A

superior lobe: primary and secondary auditoru cortex, language comprehension (wernickes)
inferior lobe: visual object recognition, agnosia (objects) and prosopagnosia (faces)
medial lobe: emotion processing, Kluver-bucy syndrome, memory

55
Q

what are the parts of the occipital lobe?

A

cuneus: lower visual field
lingual gyrus: upper visual field
calcarine sulcus