neuro-things i forget Flashcards

1
Q

how long does a migraine last?

A

4-72h

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2
Q

tx of trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

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3
Q

Sx of temporal arteritis

A

temporal pulsating headache

scalp tenderness

jaw claudication

amaurosis fugax in one eye

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4
Q

What blood marker is raised in temporal arteritis

A

ESR

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5
Q

management of temporal arteritis

A

prednisolone

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6
Q

what presents alongside 50% of cases of GCA?

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

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7
Q

treatment following a TIA

A
  • 300mg aspirin
  • clopidogrel 75mg
  • simvastatin
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8
Q

features of temporal lobe focal epilepsy

A

deja-vu, auditory hallucinations, funny smells

anxiety

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9
Q

features of frontal lobe focal epilepsy

A

motor/ jacksonian march

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10
Q

features of parietal lobe epilepsy

A

sensory disturbance

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11
Q

features of occipital lobe epilepsy

A

visual phenomena

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12
Q

treatment of:

  • generalised seizures
  • partial seizures
A

generalised= sodium valporate/ lamotrigine

partial= carbamazepine

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13
Q

Tx of cataplexy

A

sodium oxybate

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14
Q

Tx of shingles

A

acyclovir

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15
Q

common complication of shingles and its Tx

A

post-herpatic neuralgia

carbemazepine

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16
Q

genetic inheritance of Huntingtons

A

AD

trinucelotide repeat on CR 4

anticipation

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17
Q

sx of huntingtons

A

Chorea (involuntary, abnormal movements)

Eye movement disorders

Speech difficulties (dysarthria)

Swallowing difficulties (dysphagia)

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18
Q

describe the tremor in parkinsons

A

asymmetrical

worse at rest

improves w/ movement

no change with alcohol

BENIGN ESSENTIAL TREMOR IS THE OPPOSITE TO ALL THESE

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19
Q

what is an acoustic neuroma/ vestibular schwannoma?

A

tumours of the Schwann cells surrounding the auditory nerve

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20
Q

features of an acoustic neuroma/ vestibular schwannoma

A

hearing loss

tinnitus

balance problems

facial nerve palsy

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21
Q

Tx of MS

A
  • relapse= methyprednisolone for 5 days

- disease modifying agents (reduce relapses etc)- Alemtuzumab, Natalizumab

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22
Q

how is a suspected diagnosis of GBS confirmed?

A

nerve conduction studies

stool sample for campylobacter jejuni

spirometry- monitor FVC for respiratory muscle involvement

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23
Q

what is Progressive Bulbar Palsy?

A

UMN AND LMN of CN IX- XII

24
Q

What criteria is used for the diagnosis of ALS?

A

El Escorial Criteria

25
Q

how can MND be differentiated from other pathologies?

A

ocolomotor muscles spared

no sensory symptoms

rectal and bladder sphincters spared

26
Q

UMN signs

A
weakness
brisk reflexes
hypertonia 
upgoing planters (positive babinksi)
clonus
27
Q

LMN signs

A
weakness 
absent reflexes 
decreases tone 
wasting 
fasciculations
28
Q

what does a hemiplegic gait indicate

A

UMN

29
Q

what does a broad-based/ ataxic gait indicate

A

cerebellar

30
Q

what does a high-stepping gait indicate

A

foot drop

LMN

31
Q

what does a waddling gait indicate

A

pelvic muscle weakness- myopathy

32
Q

what does an antalgic gait indicate

A

localised pain (limp)

33
Q

presentation of NF1

A
  • 6 + cafe au lait spots
  • FH
  • axillary freckles
  • bowing oflong bones
  • Lisch Nodules
  • neurfibroma’s
  • glioma of the optic nerve
34
Q

what is NF2 associated with?

A

associated with bilateral acoustic neuromas

35
Q

CSF findings- bacterial meningitis

A

polymorphs (neutrophils)

raised protein

low glucose

36
Q

CSF findings- TB meningitis

A

lymphocytes

raised protein

low/normal glucose

37
Q

CSF findings- viral meningitis

A

lymphocytes

normal protein and glucose

38
Q

Tx of meningitis

A

IV cefotaxime and dexamethasone

in community (GP)- Benzylpenicillin

39
Q

triad in Horners

A

miosis (pupillary constriction)

ptosis (upper eyelid droop)

anhydrosis (ipsilateral loss of sweating)

40
Q

what is bells palsy?

A

LMN lesion of the facial nerve

NO FOREHEAD SPARING

41
Q

how does Ramsay Hunt syndrome present and what causes it?

A

herpes zoster virus

LMN palsy of the facial nerve + RASH AROUND EAR CANAL

42
Q

how are bells palsy and ramsay hunt syndrome treated?

A

prednisolone

add aciclovir in ramsay hunt syndrome

43
Q

features of multi-system atrophy

A

Parkinsons + autonomic dysfunction (postural hypotension, constipation, sweating and sexual dysfunction) + cerebellar dysfunction (ataxia)

44
Q

side effects of dopamine therapy in parkinsons

A

dystonia

athetosis

chorea

45
Q

features of bulbar palsy

A
  • tongue fasciculations
  • dysphagia
  • loss of gag reflex
  • dysarthria
  • dysphonia
46
Q

Tx of myasthenic crisis

A

Iv Ig

47
Q

what is Lamber-eaton myasthenic syndrome associated with

A

small cell lung cancer

48
Q

presentation of Lamber-eaton myasthenic syndrome

A
  • slow onset
  • affects proximal muscles
  • diplopia, ptosis and dysphagia
  • also get autonomic dysfunction- blurred vision, impotence etc
49
Q

what is spinal stenosis

A

narrowing of part of the spinal canal resulting in compression of the spinal cord and nerve roots

50
Q

what can cause spinal stenosis

A
  • congenital
  • degeneration
  • herniated disc
  • spinal fractures
  • tumours
51
Q

presentation of spinal stenosis

A
  • gradual onset (compared to cauda equina)
  • intermittent neurogenic claudication- lower back/ buttock/ leg pain and weakness
  • Sx only occur when stood up and moving
  • SX IMPROVE ON BENDING FORWARD
52
Q

management of spinal stenosis

A
  • lifestyle- lose weight, exercise, physio
  • analgesia
  • decompression/ laminectomy
53
Q

nerve roots and causes of sciatica

A

L4-S3- divides into tibial and common peroneal nerves

causes- lumbrosacral nerve root compression due to a herniated disc or spinal stenosis

54
Q

bilateral sciatica- what is this a red flag for?

A

cauda equina

55
Q

what is anterior cord syndrome?

A
  • occurs due to flexion injury, or due to injury to the anterior spinal artery.
  • Patients have preserved function of their posterior column, and so proprioception and vibration are intact
  • the anterior portion of their cord is affected- they have bilateral loss of motor function, light touch, pain and temperature below the level of the lesion.