Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CORE Neuro > Neuro spine CORE - Sheet1 > Flashcards

Neuro spine CORE - Sheet1 Flashcards

1
Q

one of the main arteries that supplies that anterior spinal artery

A

Artery of Adamkiewicz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where does the Artery of Adamkiewicz arise in 75% of people

A

comes off the left side of the aorta between T8 and T1 - supplies the lower 2/3 of the cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

posterior spinal artery usually arises from one of these two

A

vertebral arteries or posterior inferior cerebellar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

conus medullaris usually terminates at

A

around L1 (below L2-3 is abnormal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Torg-Pavlov ratio for congential stenosis

A

vertebral body width to cervical canal diameter <0.85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

definition: focal herniation

A

herniated disc comprising less than 90 degrees of disc circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

definition: broadbased herniation

A

herniated disc comprising 90-180 degrees of disc circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

definition: protrusion

A

distance between the edge of the disc herniation is < the distance between the edges of the base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

definition: extrusion

A

edges of the disc are greater than the distance of the base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Scheuermann’s

A

> 3 levels of Schmorl’s nodes in the spine of a teenager resulting in kyphotic deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

limbus vertebra

A

fracture mimic - herniated disc material between the non-fused apophysis and adjacent vertbral body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Modic 1 signal

A

“edema” - T1 dark, T2 bright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Modic 2 signal

A

“fat” - T1 bright, T2 bright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Modic 3 signal

A

“scar” - T1 dark, T2 dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how long to stop coumadin before LP

A

4-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how long to stop plavix before LP

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how long to hold LMW heparin before LP

A

12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how long to hold heparin before LP

A

2-4 hours - document normal PTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how long to hold NSAIDs/Aspirin before LP

A

no need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

early sign of failed back surgery syndrome

A

epidural abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

late signs (3) of failed back surgery syndrome

A
  1. epidural fibrosis/scar (enhances) 2. recurrent disc herniation 3. arachnoiditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how long is nerve root enhancement normal after back surgery?

A

6 weeks - after that it’s arachnoiditis (infectious or inflammatory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

conjoined nerve roots?

A

s/p spine surgery - 2 adjacent nerve roots share an enlarged common sleeve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

definition/mechanism: Jefferson

A

burst fracture of C1/axial loading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

definition/mechanism: Hangman

A

bilateral pedicle/pars fx of C2 - hyperextension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

definition/mechanism: Teardrop

A

anterior/inferior teardrop shaped fx fragment - can be flexion or extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

definition/mechanism: Clay-Shoveler’s

A

avulsion of spinous process at C7 or T1 - hyperflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

definition/mechanism: Chance

A

horizonal fracture through the thoracolumbar spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

odontoid fracture: type 1

A

upper part of odontoid - maybe stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

odontoid fracture: type 2

A

fracture at base of odontoid - unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

odontoid fracture: type 3

A

fracture through dens into the body of C2 - unstable, but better prognosis for healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

os odontoideum is associated with what funny named syndrome?

A

Morquio’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

clinical scenario for hangman’s fracture

A

“direct blow to face” - chin hits dashboard in MVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

clinical scenario for flexion teardrop

A

“ran into wall”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

clinical history for extension teardrop

A

“hit from behind”

36
Q

anterior cord function

A

motor, pain, temperature

37
Q

dorsal cord function

A

proprioception and vibration

38
Q

cord syndrome associated with flexion teardrop

A

anterior cord syndome - loss of motor, pain + temp (immediate paralysis)

39
Q

mechanism of bilateral facet dislocation

A

severe hyperflexion - disruption of posterior ligament complex

40
Q

syndromes associated with atlantoaxial instability

A

Down + juvenile RA

41
Q

most important factor for outcome in spinal cord trauma

A

prescence of hemorrhage (low T2)

42
Q

brown sequard

A

one half motor/other half sensory - seen in rotation or penetrating trauma

43
Q

central cord syndrome

A

upper extremity deficit worse than lower

44
Q

who gets central cord syndrome

A

old lady with spondylosis or younger person with bad extension injury

45
Q

what is a terminal ventricle?

A

development variant - stupid looking cyst at the end of your cord

46
Q

spina bifida aperta

A

open neural defect with tissue exposed through a defect in bone and skin

47
Q

spina bifida occulta

A

closed neural defect - covered with skin

48
Q

lipomyelomeningocele is 100% associated with

A

tethered cord (myelomeningocele may or may not)

49
Q

terminal myelocystocele

A

herniation of the terminal syrinx into a posterior meningocele via a posterior spinal defect

50
Q

fibrolipoma of the filum terminale

A

linear T1 bright structure in the filum terminale - incidental

51
Q

diastematomyelia

A

sagital split in the cord

52
Q

most common spinal vascular disorder

A

Type 1 (85%) - dural AVF

53
Q

Spinal AVM/F: type 1

A

dural AVF with a single coiled vessel

54
Q

Spinal AVM/F: type 2

A

intramedullary nidus - from ant or post spinal artery

55
Q

Spinal AVM/F: type 3

A

juvenile, very rare/complex/terrible

56
Q

Spinal AVM/F: type 4

A

intradural perimedullary - occur near conus

57
Q

Foix alajouanine syndrome

A

myelopathy associated with dural AVF - “45 yo with LE weakness and sensory deficits”

58
Q

2 ways of showing Pagets in the spine

A
  1. enlarged “ivory” verebrae (ddx mets) 2. picture frame vertebrae (sclerotic border)
59
Q

if H-shaped vertebrae aren’t from sickle cell

A

Gauchers

60
Q

most common bacterial discitis/osteo

A

Staph A

61
Q

“calcified psoas abscess”

A

TB

62
Q

“Gibbus deformity”

A

TB - desctructive focal kyphosis

63
Q

TB tends to ….. the disc space

A

spare

64
Q

what unusual infection favorst the lower L-spine and SI joints

A

brucellosis

65
Q

MS lesions are usually

A

short segment, in the C-spine (white matter)

66
Q

transverse myelitis lesions are usually

A

long segment, involving both sides of cord, expanded/swollen cord

67
Q

ADEM lesions are usually

A

seen after viral illness in a kid, CN enhancement

68
Q

NMO/Devics lesions are usually

A

long segment, involving full transverse diameter of the cord, involve optic nerves (duh)

69
Q

Subacute combined degeneration

A

bilateral symmetrically increased T2 signal in the dorsal columns - “inverted V”

70
Q

deficiency in subacute combined degeneration

A

B12

71
Q

HIV vacuolar myelopathy

A

spinal cord atrophy, high T2 posterior columns

72
Q

“owl eye appearance” of anterior spinal cord

A

anterior spinal artery ischemia - usually long segment/restricts diffusion

73
Q

“empty thecal sac sign”

A

arachnoiditis - nerves roots adhere peripherally, giving appearance of empty sac

74
Q

what causes Guillain Barre

A

campylobacter (or s/p surgery, lymphoma, SLE)

75
Q

enhancing “onion bulb” nerve roots

A

CIDP - chronic form of guillain barre

76
Q

3 intramedullary tumors

A
  1. astrocytoma 2. ependymoma 3. hemangioblastoma
77
Q

4 extramedullary/intradural tumors

A
  1. schwannoma 2. meningioma 3. neurofibroma 3. drop mets
78
Q

4 extradural “tumors”

A
  1. disc disease (most common) 2. bone tumors 3. mets 4. lymphoma
79
Q

astrocytoma vs. ependymoma: location

A

astrocytoma - c-cord, eccentric; ependymoma - lower cord, central, hemorrhagic

80
Q

most common intramedullary mass in adults

A

ependymoma

81
Q

ependymoma in the conus

A

myxopapillary form

82
Q

most common extramedullary/intradural tumor

A

schwannoma

83
Q

2 syndromes with multiple schwannomas

A

NF-2 and Carney complex

84
Q

most common primary tumor to drop mets

A

medulloblastoma

85
Q

most common systemic tumor to drop mets

A

breast ca (followed by lung and melanoma)

86
Q

“lytic expansile lesion in the sacrum with no rim of sclerosis”

A

giant cell tumor

CORE Neuro (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions