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Phase 2 > Neuro Recap > Flashcards

Neuro Recap Flashcards

1
Q

What do oligodendrocytes myelinated?

A

Brain

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2
Q

What do Schwann cells myelinate?

A

PNS

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3
Q

Define nuclei

A

Collection of nerve cell bodies within the CNS

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4
Q

Define ganglia

A

Collection of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS and some in the CNS (In a capsule)

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5
Q

What sort of information is carried on afferent fibres?

A

Sensory fibres towards CNS

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6
Q

What sort of information is carried on efferent fibres?

A

Motor fibres away from the CNS

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7
Q

What is the function of the frontal lobe?

A

Voluntary movement on opposite side of the body
Dominant frontal lobe controls speech and writing
Intellectual functioning, thought processes, reasoning and memory

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8
Q

What is the function of the parietal lobe?

A

receives and interprets sensations including pain, touch, pressure and proprioception

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9
Q

What is the function of the temporal lobe?

A

understanding spoken word (Wernicke’s)

Memory and emotion

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10
Q

What is the function of the occipital lobe

A

Understanding visual images and meaning of written words

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11
Q

What are the components of the basal ganglia?

A

Caudate nucleus
Putamen
Globus Pallidus

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12
Q

What are the components of the striatum

A

Caudate nucleus and putamen

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13
Q

What are the components of the lentiform nucleus

A

Globus pallidus and the putamen

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14
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Co-ordinates movement and balance

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15
Q

Describe the function of the hippocampus

A

Episodic memory
Construction of mental images
Short term memory
spatial memory and navigation

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16
Q

How many axons can oligodendrocytes myelinate?

A

Multiple

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17
Q

How many axons can Schwann cells myelinate

A

Single

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18
Q

What is the function of ependymal cells?

A

Line ventricles of the brain and regulate the production and flow of CSF

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19
Q

Which cells make up the BBB?

A

Endothelial cells, pericytes and astrocytes

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20
Q

What are the features of the blood brain barrier

A

Endothelial tight junctions
Astrocyte end feet
Pericytes
Continuous basement membrane

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21
Q

What is the name given to areas of the brain that lack a BBB?

A

Circumentricular organs ie. posterior pituitary

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22
Q

Where does the CSF circulate

A

Subarachnoid space

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23
Q

What is the volume of the CSF?

A

120mls

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24
Q

What is found in the CSF?

A

Protein, urea, glucose and salts

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25
Q

Where is the CSF produced?

A

By ependymal cells in the choroid plexus

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26
Q

How is CSF reabsorbed?

A

Via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus

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27
Q

Describe what happens in hydrocephalus?

A

Abnormal accumulation of CSF in the brain which leads to a build up of pressure often due to a blocked cerebral aqueduct

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28
Q

Describe the passage of CSF

A

Produced by the ependymal cells of the choroid plexus then from the lateral ventricles it travels to the 3rd ventricle via the intraventricular forum and then from the 3rd to the 4th ventricle by the cerebral aqueduct. From the 4th it communicates with subarachnoid space via the foramen of magendie and the foramen of Luschka

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29
Q

What are the 5 processes of synaptic transmission

A
  1. Manufacture (intracellular biochemical processes)
  2. Storage - vesicles
  3. Release - AP
  4. Interact with post synaptic receptors
  5. Inactivation
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30
Q

What are the two main acetylcholine receptors

A

muscarinic

Nicotinic

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31
Q

What enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft

A

Acetylcholinesterase into choline and acetate

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32
Q

What functional area of the brain surrounds the primary auditory cortex?

A

Wernicke’s area

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33
Q

What is the function of Wernicke’s area

A

processing of language

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34
Q

Inferior colliculus and medial geniculate body are important for what sense

A

Hearing

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35
Q

The superior colliculus and lateral geniculate body are important for what sense?

A

Vision

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36
Q

Which part of the eye is involved in the accommodation reflex?

A

Cilliary muscle

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37
Q

What does the iris do?

A

Controls the size of the pupil which lets light into the eye

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38
Q

What does the dilator papillae muscle do?

A

Dilates the pupil (Sympathetic)

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39
Q

What does the spinchter papillae do?

A

Constricts the pupil (Parasympathetic)

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40
Q

What are the two muscles attached to the tarsal plate?

A

Levatator palpibra superioris

Obicularis oculi

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41
Q

Which fibres cross at the optic chiasm

A

Nasal portion of the retina, carrying the temporary visual field

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42
Q

Where in the thalamus do optic tracts join too?

A

Lateral geniculate nucleus

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43
Q

Outline the order of the visual pathway from eye to visual cortex

A 
Eye
Optic nerve 
Optic chiasm 
Optic tract 
lateral geniculate body 
Optic radiation 
Visual cortex
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44
Q

What is the name of the optic radiation that passes through the parietal lobe?

A

Baums loop

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45
Q

What is the name given to optic radiation that passes through the temporal lobe?

A

Meyer’s Loop

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46
Q

What information do the superior retinal fibres of the optic radiation carry

A

inferior portions of the retina

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47
Q

What information do the inferior retinal fibres of the optic radiation carry?

A

Superior portions of the retina

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48
Q

Which lobe of the brain do the superior retinal fibres pass through?

A

temporal lobe

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49
Q

Which lobe of the brain do the inferior retinal fibres of the optic radiation pass through?

A

Parietal lobe

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50
Q

What is the effect of a lesion on the right optic nerve

A

Right anopia

Right monocular blindness

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51
Q

What is the effect of a lesion on the left optic nerve?

A

Left anopia

Left monocular blindness

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52
Q

What is the effect of a lesion at the optic chiasm?

A

Loss of temporal visual fields = Bitemporal hemianopia

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53
Q

What is the effect of a lesion on the right optic tract?

A

Loss of temporal field of left eye and nasal field of right eye
= Right homonymous hemianopia

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54
Q

What is the effect of a lesion on left Meyer’s Loop?

A

Carries information from inferior retina on superior visual field so causes of loss of vision in superior nasal field of left eye and superior temporal field of right eye

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55
Q

What is the effect of a lesion to left Baum’s Loop?

A

Carries information from superior retina on inferior visual field resulting in loss of vision in inferior temporal field of right eye and inferior nasal field of left eye

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56
Q

What is the name given to internal rotation of the eye? (Towards the midline)

A

Intorsion

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57
Q

What is the name given to external rotation of the eye?(Away from the midline)

A

Extorsion

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58
Q

What are the 6 ocular eye muscles

A 
Superior rectus 
Inferior rectus 
Lateral rectus 
Medial rectus 
Superior oblique 
Inferior Oblique
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59
Q

Which muscles of the eye are supplied by oculomotor nerve?

A

Superior rectus
Medial Rectus
Inferior rectus
Inferior oblique

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60
Q

Which muscles of the eye are supplied by abducens nerve?

A

Lateral rectus

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61
Q

Which muscle of the eye is supplied by the trochlear nerve?

A

Superior Oblique

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62
Q

What does the somatic nervous system innervate?

A

Skeletal muscle

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63
Q

Do neurones of the somatic nervous system synapse before the skeletal muscle?

A

No

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64
Q

What is the only neurotransmitter involved in the somatic nervous system?

A

Acetylcholine

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65
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system innervate?

A

Smooth and cardiac muscle, glands, neurones in the GIT

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66
Q

Where is the first synapse of an autonomic nerve

A

First nerve synapses outside the CNS in a cell cluster called autonomic ganglion

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67
Q

Whats the name of autonomic nerve between the CNS and the ganglia?

A

Preganglionic fibres

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68
Q

Whats the name of the autonomic nerve between the ganglion and the effector cells?

A

Postganglionic fibres

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69
Q

What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

70
Q

Where do the sympathetic nerves leave the spinal cord?

A

Between T1 and L2

71
Q

Where do the ganglia of the sympathetic neurones lie?

A

Close to the spinal cord = sympathetic chain

72
Q

What neurotransmitter is used by the preganglionic sympathetic fibres?

A

Acetylcholine acts at nicotinic receptors

73
Q

What neurotransmitter is is used at the effect cell synapse in sympathetic fibres?

A

Noradrenaline acts at adrenergic receptors

74
Q

What are the effects of the sympathetic nervous system?

A 
Increased HR
Increased force of contraction 
Vasoconstriction 
bronchodilation 
Reduced gastric secretion 
Male ejaculation 
Reduced gastric motility 
Sphincter contraction
75
Q

Where do parasympathetic nerves leave the spinal cord?

A

Brainstem and sacral regions of spinal cord

76
Q

Which cranial nerves are parasympathetic

A

3, 7, 9 and 10 (1973)

77
Q

Where do the ganglia of parasympathetic nerves lie?

A

Close to the organs that the postganglionic fibres innervate

78
Q

What is the neurotransmitter used by preganglionic parasympathetic fibres

A

Acetylcholine at nicotinic receptors

79
Q

What is the neurotransmitter used by postganglionic parasympathetic fibres

A

Acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors

80
Q

What are the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A 
Decreased heart rate
Decreased force of contraction 
Vasodilation 
Bronchoconstrition 
Increased gastric motility 
Increased gastric secretion 
Male erection 
Sphincter relaxation
81
Q

Define CNS

A

Consists of the brain and the spinal cord

82
Q

Define PNS

A

Nerves and ganglia outside the brain and the spinal cord

83
Q

How many vertebra are their

A 
33 in total 
7 cervical 
12 thoracic 
5 lumbar 
5 sacral 
4 coccyx
84
Q

How many spinal nerves are there

A

31 pairs of spinal nerves
- Cervical = 8 nerves (One vertebra higher than the corresponding vertebra except C8 which is one below)
- 12 thoracic nerves (one to two vertebra below corresponding vertebra)
- 5 lumbar nerves (3-4 vertebra below)
- 5 sacral (5 vertebra below)
1 coccyx nerve

85
Q

Define dermatome

A

Area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve (Sensory)

86
Q

Define Myotome

A

A volume of muscle supplied by a single spinal nerve

87
Q

What are the two divisions of the descending motor pathways

A

Pyramidal and Extrapyramidal

88
Q

Describe the corticospinal pathway

A

Controls voluntary muscles

  • Starts in the Cortex and runs through the internal capsule and the crura cerebri
  • 85% decussate in the medulla through the anterior white commissure to the lateral side
  • 15% stay on the same side (Anterior)
89
Q

Describe the extrapyramidal pathways

A

Originate in the brainstem an carry motor fibres to the spinal cord - responsible for the involuntary autonomic control of all musculature

90
Q

What are the extrapyramidal pathways

A

Rubrospinal
- Facilitates flexors and inhibits extensors
- originate in red nucleus
- Decussates in midbrain and is contralateral
Tectospinal
- Head turning in response to visual stimuli
- Originates from tectum - superior colliculus
- Decussates in midbrain
Vestibulospinal
- Muscle tone, balance and posture
- originate from the vestibular uncles
- Non decussating

91
Q

What are the ascending sensory tracts

A

Dorsal/medial lemniscus pathway
Spinothalamic pathway
Spinocerebellar pathway

92
Q

Dorsal medial lemniscus column consists of what and carries what sensations

A

Fasciculus cuneatus and gracilis

Ascend to the medulla and then decussate to become the medial lemniscus which ascends to the thalamus and then somatosensory cortex

Proprioception, vibration and fine touch

93
Q

What does the fasciculus cuneatus carry

A

lateral and carries information from the upper body to the cuneate tubercle in the medulla

94
Q

What does the fasciculus gracilis carry

A

medial and carries information from the lower body to the gracile tubercle in the medulla

95
Q

Describe the spinothalamic tract

A

Lateral = pain and temperature
Medial/Anterior = Crude touch
Ascend on the same side then decussates before ascending to the thalamus

96
Q

Describe the spinocerebellar tract

A

Posterior spinocerebellar = carries proprioception to the ipsilateral inferior cerebellar peduncle
Anterior spinocerebellar = carries proprioception to the contralateral superior cerebellar peduncle

97
Q

Describe brown sequard disease

A
  • Hemi section of the spinal cord
  • Ipsilateral weakness below the lesions due to damage to the ipsilateral descending motor corticospinal tract which has already decussated at the medulla (loss of vibration and proprioceptive sensation)
  • Contralateral Loss of spinothalamic pain and temperature below the lesion as spinothalamic fibres decussate after entering the spinal cord
98
Q

What is the basal ganglia

A

Group of nuclei lying deep within the cerebral hemisphere

99
Q

What are the main components of the basal ganglia?

A

Striatum (Putamen and caudate)
Globus pallidus
Subthalamic nucleus
Substantia nigra

100
Q

What are the main functions of the basal ganglia?

A

Purposeful behaviour and movement
Inhibits unwanted movements
Controls posture and movement
Facilitation, integration and fine tuning of movements

101
Q

What are the three coverings of the spinal cord from outermost to innermost

A

Dura
Subarachnoid
Pia

102
Q

Where are the two enlargements of the spinal cord?

A

Cervical (Segments C3-T1) = upper limbs

Lumbar L1-S3 = lower limbs

103
Q

Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord after it ends at L1/2

A

Tapers into a cone (Conus medullaris) and ends in a strand of tissue called filum terminale

104
Q

The fascicles cuneatus carries information about what limb

A

Upper

105
Q

The fasciculus cuneatus carries information about what limb

A

Lower

106
Q

What information does the lateral spinothalmic tract carry

A

Pain and temperature

107
Q

What information does the medial spinothalamic tract carry

A

Crude touch

108
Q

What is the somatic motor function of the facial nerve?

A

Muscles of facial expression

109
Q

What is the visceral motor function of the facial nerve?

A

Lacrimal glands

Submandibular and sublingual glands

110
Q

What are the two motor functions of the glossopharyngeal nerve?

A

Elevate the pharynx by supplying stylopharyngeus

Secretion of the parotid gland

111
Q

What are the sensory functions of the glossopharyngeal nerve

A 
Sensation to external ear 
Posterior 1/3 of tongue - touch, pain, temp 
Pharynx - touch, patn, temp 
Eustachian tube - touch, pain, temp 
Carotid sinus, baro and chemoreception
112
Q

What are the functions of the vagus nerve

A 
Taste - posterior pharynx 
Swallowing- muscles of pharynx and larynx except stylopharngeus 
CV and GI regulation 
Hunger 
Fullness 
Decreased HR and BP
113
Q

What does the accessory nerve supply?

A

Sternocleidomastoid

Trapezius

114
Q

What does the hypoglossal nerve supply?

A

The intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue

115
Q

What is the sensory and taste innervation of the posterior 1/3 of tongue?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

116
Q

What is the sensory sensation of the anterior 2/3 of tongue?

A

Lingual branch of the V3 from trigeminal

117
Q

What is the taste sensation of the anterior 2/3 of tongue?

A

Chorda tympani branch of facial nerve carried by lingual branch

118
Q

What passes through the cavernous sinus

A 
Oculomotor 
Trigeminal 
Ophthalmic trigeminal 
Maxillary trigeminal 
Carotid (internal) 
Abducens 
Trochlear
119
Q

Damage to Broca’s area results in what sort of aphasia

A

Expressive aphasia where they understand what is being said and know what they want to say but can’t express it in meaningful words

120
Q

Damage to Wernicke’s area results in what sort of aphasia

A

Comprehension aphasia where they have difficulty understanding written or spoken language but hearing and vision not impaired
Have fluent speech but may scramble words

121
Q

What is the most common artery for a berry aneurysm to occur?

A

Anterior cerebral artery

122
Q

What are the functions of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

A

Sensation to the anterior of head and face (Superior 1/3) including scalp, forehead, cornea and tip of nose

123
Q

What are the functions of the maxillary division of the trigmeninal nerve

A

Sensation to middle 1/3 of face including cheek, nose, upper lip, upper teeth and palate

124
Q

What are the functions of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve?

A

Senesation to inferior 1/3 of face including lower Lip, lower teeth, chin, jaw and anterior 2/3 of tongue
Motor to muscles of mastication and tensor tympani muscle

125
Q

What are the functions of the facial nerve?

A 
Motor to facial movement 
Salivation (Submandibular and sublingual) 
lacrimation 
Sensation from external ear 
Taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue
126
Q

What is the criteria for brainstem death

A 
Pupils 
Corneal reflex 
Caloric vestibular reflex 
Cough reflex 
Gag reflex 
Respirations 
Response to pain
127
Q

Describe the branches of the aortic arch

A

Brachiocephalic trunk divides into the right common carotid and the right subclavian

Left common carotid
Left subclavian artery

128
Q

Where does the right and left common carotid arise from

A

Right = brachiocephalic trunk

Left = Directly from aortic arch

129
Q

Do the carotid arteries branch

A

No

130
Q

Where do the carotid arteries bifurcate into internal and external

A

C4

131
Q

What are the 4 segments of the internal carotid artery

A

Cervical
Petrous
Cavernous
Supraclinoid

132
Q

Where does the cervical section of the ICA lie

A

Anterior and medial to the internal jugular vein and posterior and lateral to the external carotid artery

133
Q

Does the cervical section of the ICA branch

A

NO

134
Q

The petrous portion of the ICA penetrates what bones and runs in which canal

A

Temporal bone and runs horizontal in the carotid canal

135
Q

What is the small branch of the ICA that connect to the middle/inner ear called

A

Carticotympanic artery

136
Q

What is the name of the potential connection between the petrous ICA and the ECA

A

Vidian Artery

137
Q

The cavernous portion of the ICA enters the skull where

A

Foramen lacerum into the carotid canal and then into the cavernous sinus

138
Q

Small branches of the cavernous ICA supply what?

A

Dura
CN3-6
Posterior pituitary (Meningio-hypophyseal artery
Inferolateral trunk

139
Q

What are the name of the potential connections between the cavernous ICA and the ECA

A

Inferolateral trunk

140
Q

What are the 4 branches of the supraclinoid ICA

A

Ophthalmic artery
Superior hypophyseal artery
Posterior communicating artery
Anterior Choroidal artery

141
Q

What does the superior hypophyseal artery supply

A

Pituitary gland
Stalk
Hypothalamus
Optic chiasm

142
Q

What does the posterior communicating artery supply

A

Runs backwards above CN3 to connect the anterior (cerebral vascular supply of head and posterior (Brainstem) supply

143
Q

What does the anterior choroid artery supply

A 
Choroid plexus 
Optic tract 
Cerebral peduncles 
Internal capsule 
Medial temporal lobe
144
Q

Which is the lager of the terminal ICA branches

A

Middle cerebral artery

145
Q

What are the segments of the middle cerebral artery

A

M1 - lateral lenticulostriate arteries (Supplies basal ganglia and internal capsule)
M2 - runs near insular cistern
M3 - Emerge onto brain surface
M4 - vessels on brain surface

146
Q

What are the branches of the anterior cerebral arteries

A

A1 - runs medially to connect with contralateral ACA via anterior communicating artery to supply the head of caudate nucleus and internal capsule

A2 - runs in the inter hemispheric tissues to genu of corpus callosum

A3 - Cortical branches from callosomarginal and pericallosal arteries

147
Q

Vertebral arteries arise from where

A

Subclavian arteries

148
Q

Where do the vertebral arteries enter the skull

A

Foramen magnum

149
Q

The extra cranial vertebral branches supply what

A

Neck muscles
Spinal meninges
Spinal cord

150
Q

What are the inter cranial vertebral artery branches

A

Anterior spinal artery
Small medullary perforators
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

151
Q

The vertebral arteries combine to form what

A

Basilar artery

152
Q

What are the branches of the basilar artery

A

Anterior inferior cerebellar arteries
Superior cerebellar arteries
Posterior cerebellar arteries

153
Q

What does the posterior cerebral artery supply

A

Thalamus
Geniculate bodies
Cerebral peduncles
Tectum

154
Q

Define dermatome

A

Area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve

155
Q

Define myotome

A

A volume of muscle supplied by a single spinal nerve

156
Q

The dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway carries what sensory information

A

Proprioception, vibration and fine touch

157
Q

The lateral spinothalamic tract carries information about what

A

Pain and temperature

158
Q

the anterior spinothalamic tract carries information about what

A

Crude touch

159
Q

What areas of the brain does the ACA supply

A

Motor cortex and top of the brain

160
Q

What areas of the brain does the MCA supply

A

Outer surface of the brain

161
Q

What areas of the brain does the PCA supply

A

Peripheral vision

162
Q

What are the branches of the aortic arch

A

Brachiocephalic trunk divides into right common carotid and right subclavian

Left common carotid

Left subclavian

163
Q

Wheree does the optic tract synapse

A

At the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus

164
Q

Fibres carrying information from the lower portions of the retina (Superior visual fields) travel through which lobe

A

Temporal lobe to the visual cortex = Meyer’s Loop

165
Q

Fibres carrying information from the superior portions of the retina (Inferior visual fields) travel through which lobe

A

Loop superiorly through the parietal lobe to the visual cortex = Baum’s Loop

166
Q

Inferior colliculus and medial geniculate body are important structures in which sense

A

Auditory

167
Q

Superior colliculus and the lateral geniculate body are impotent structures in which sense

A

Visual

168
Q

Damage to the left optic nerve causes what

A

Left anopia - left blindness

169
Q

Damage to the optic chiasm leads to what

A

Causes loss of the temporal visual fields = hemianopia

170
Q

Damage to the right optic tract causes what

A

Loss of temporal field of the left eye and the nasal field of the right eye = hemianopia

171
Q

Damage to the left Meyer’s loop causes what

A

Damage to Meyers loop carrying information from the inferior retina and thus the superior visual field resulting in loss of vision in the superior nasal field of the left eye and the superior temporal field of the right eye

Phase 2 (16 decks)

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