Neuro - Part 5 Flashcards
(87 cards)
1
Q
What does the somatic motor system do? What is it composed of?
A
- supports body against gravity, establishes posture, and allows voluntary movement to occur
- composed of:
- give directions that control the sequential cord activity: cerebral motor cortex, basal nuclei, cerebellum, thalamus, brainstem
- contain circuits for movement: spinal cord, peripheral nerves
2
Q
What is posture and movement dependent on?
A
- dependent on a combination of voluntary actions controlled by higher brain centers and involuntary reflexes coordinated by the spinal cord
3
Q
What must the CNS do to control body movement? What 2 receptors are important for this?
A
- the CNS must:
- assess the effect of gravity on the muscles
- determine the initial position of body parts to be moved
- detect any discrepancy between the intended movement and movement that naturally occurs
- 2 receptors: muscle spindle + golgi tendon organ
4
Q
What is a reflex? What is a reflex arc? What are the 5 components of the reflex arc?
A
- reflex: involuntary , qualitatively unvarying motor response of the nervous system to a stimulus
- reflex arc: neuronal circuit that directs this motor response
- receptor
- sensory neuron
- one or more synapses in the CNS
- motor neuron
- target organ
5
Q
What ways can reflexes be classified?
A
- monosynaptic (direct contact between sensory + motor neurons) x polysynaptic (involve interneurons,more common)
- ipsilateral x contralateral
- segmental (refle arc passes through only a small segment of spinal cord and a small rostrocaudal region of the brainstem) x intersegmental (reflex arc passses through many segments of spinal cord and several major brain divisions)
- somatic x autonomic
6
Q
Describe the stretch reflex or tendon reflex
A
- a primarily monosynaptic reflex
- afferent axons from a muscle stretch receptor directly synapse w/ spinal cord alpha motor neurons which cause contraction of that are muscle
- stretch receptor for tendon reflex is the muscle spindle
7
Q
What is the patellar reflex?
A
- monosynaptic reflex
- excited by tapping the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle immediately distal to the patella
- test extensor reflex mediated by femoral nerve
- most reliable test of tendon reflex
- cord segment involved: L4-L6
8
Q
What does the stretch reflex counteract?
A
- gravity
9
Q
What is the inverse stretch reflex?
A
- the duration and force of muscle contraction associated with the stretch reflex is mitigated to some degree by the golgi tendon organ
- receptor is sensitive to muscle tension increasing their firing rate when the muscle contracts
- excites inhibitory neuron in spinal cord
- inhibits alpha motor neuron causing contraction
- leads to muscle relaxation
- ** prevents excess tension on the muscle
10
Q
T/F: sensory inputs to a segment of the spinal cord can only influence motor neurons in the same segment
A
- false
11
Q
A
- B
12
Q
A
- A
13
Q
A
- A
14
Q
A
- B
15
Q
What is the flexor reflex or withdrawal reflex?
A
- a coordinated postsynaptic reflex in high all the flexor muscles of the limb contract in response to a noxious stimulus
- reciprocal innervation
-the force and duration of the withdrawal reflex are proportional to the intensity of the noxious stimulus applied
16
Q
What is the clinical application of the withdrawal reflex?
A
- assess integrity of sensory and motor reflex pathways that mediate flexion of limbs
- elicited by applying pressure to base of the toenail
- thoracic cord segment: C6-T4
- pelvic cord segment: L4-S1
- clinically, a intact reflex, whether normal or exaggerated, tells the clinician that the lesion does not involve that area of the PNS/CNS
- will be present even if the neuroma is cranial or causal to the reflex circuit as been damaged
- exaggeration may occur w/ lesions affecting UMNs cranial to reflex
17
Q
What are the CNS areas involved with voluntary movement?
A
- Primary Motor Cortex
- most voluntary movements initiated by the cerebral cortex are achieved when the cortex activates “patterns” of function stored in lower brain areas
- cerebellum
- basal nuclei
- spinal cord
- brainstem
18
Q
What are the two general forms movement is divided into?
A
- dominated by flexor muscles
- largely learned, voluntary, conscious and skilled
- fairly discrete contraction of a few muscle groups (many distal to spinal cord)
- dominated by extensor muscles
- postural, antigravity muscle activity, generally subconscious and involuntary
- long term contraction of larger groups of muscles (many located closer to spinal cord)
19
Q
How are the two forms of movements controlled?
A
- skilled voluntary movement of distal musculature (flexors) is primarily controlled by a LATERAL SYSTEM (LATERAL FUNICULUS) of LMN and UMN spinal tracts
- posture and anti-gravity activity of the proximal and axial musculature (extensors) is controlled by a more MEDIAL SYSTEM (VENTRAL FUNICULUS) of neurons and tracts
20
Q
T/F: CNS structures that control movement have a hierarchal organization
A
- true
- simple movements/movement patterns: more caudal CNS regions
- complex/skilled patterns: progressively more rostral regions
21
Q
Describe the role of the spinal cord in motor function
A
-spinal cord is the most caudal and simples level of movement control
- contain the alpha LMN innervating skeletal muscle fibers
- contain interneurons and complex neural circuits for motor control (spinal reflexes)
- execute low-level commands that generate proper forces on individual muscle groups to enable adaptive movements (the # of muscle fibers innervated by a single LMN decreases as the need for fine control of a muscle increases)
22
Q
How does the motor system maintain posture?
A
- providing a tonic excitatory bias to motor circuits that excite extensor muscles
- modulating stretch-reflex circuits
23
Q
T/F: proprioceptive information is vital for movement
A
- true;
- muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs help to provide this information
- these receptors are also components of some spinal reflexes: important for basic understanding of motor control
24
Q
What is walking/locomotion dependent on?
A
- alternation between extension and flexion which is largely generated by spinal cord reflexes
- stretch reflex (muscle spindle): contracts muscle being stretched
- inverse muscle stretch (golgi tendon organ): relaxes muscle being tensioned
- withdrawal reflex/flexor reflex (proprioceptive and nonproprioceptive receptors): cause flexion of stimulated limb
- ** protects body from injury BUT can be MODULATED (overridden) by the cortex!
25
Describe the crossed extensor reflex and positive supportive reaction
- about .2-.5s after a stimulus elicits a withdrawal reflex in one limb, the opposite begins to extend
- ** crossed-extensor reflex only works when weight bearing
- if laying down, no reflex is NORMAL
- if reflex is present = PATHOLOGIC, UMN lesion expected
26
What are central pattern generators (CPGs)?
- neuronal networks in the CNS that produce oscillatory outputs used for controlling rhythmical motor activity
- locomotion, scratching, chewing, breathing
- contain excitatory and inhbitory neurons
27
T/F: activity in the muscles of the trunk, neck, and tail are interlinked
- true
28
Constant proprioceptive input from all body + limb muscles both activates the reflexes and sends sensory information to the cerebellum for use in coordination of motor activity. This gives to rise to:
- conscious awareness of posture and movement
29
UMN tracts __________, __________, and __________ muscle activity of limbs and body
- initiate, modify, and terminate
30
What are the two major descending motor system pathways from brain to spinal cord?
31
What are the 4 major axon tracts of the brainstem UMN pathways
- medial (ventral column): axons travel in medial regions of the white matter and synapse within medial regions of the grey matter
- vestibulospinal tract
- reticulospinal tract
- tectospinal tract
- lateral (lateral column): axons run in a more lateral region of the white matter and synapse in the lateral spinal grey matter
- rubrospinal tract
32
What is the major role of the medial UMN pathways?
-to maintain the body subconsciously in an upright position against the pull of gravity
- control of axial + proximal EXTENSOR musculature
- bilateral control
- prevents animal from collapsing
33
What are features of the 3 medial UMN pathways?
- vestibulospinal tract
- regulates antigravity muscle tone
- receives sensory information form the vestibular system
- reticulospinal tract
- regulates antigravity muscle tone
- initiate and control the speed of to-and-fro rhythmicity of walking
- modulate consciousness, arousal,and attention
- plays important role in pain perception, respiration, and circulatory function
- tectospinal tract
- involved in reflex orientation of the head towards environmental stimuli + rapid reflex movement of eyes
- axons only project as far as the upper cervical regions of the spinal cord (muscles that move the head)
- process visual, auditory, and somatosensory info about the relative position of stimuli in the environment w/ respect to the organism (coordinate dad and eyes to fix gaze on stimuli)
34
What are features of the lateral UMN pathway?
- controls distal limb musculature associated with movement
- exerts unilateral control over a limited number of muscles in the distal limb (often flexors associated with skilled movements of extremities)
- receives a lot of input from higher levels of the motor system (provides a means for the motor cortices to INDIRECTLY influence the spinal LMNs of distal limb flexor musculature)
- receives significant input from the CEREBELLUM (synchronizes muscle activity by fine tuning movement initiated by corticospinal tract)
35
What are other brainstem influences in the motor system?
- sensory organs in the face/head
- ex: eye + vestibular apparatus
- simple segmental reflexes can be organized at the brainstem levels without significant control from other levels of the motor system
36
Corticospinal tracts are direct projections from ________ to ________. What are some features?
- cerebral cortex to spinal cord
- responsible for most skilled voluntary movements, especially those involving extremities
- minimal influence on gait
37
Where does decussation of axons occur? What does this mean?
- ventral surface of the medulla
- lesions to the motor cortices on one side of the body has devastating effects on voluntary movement of the distal flexor musculature on the opposite side of the body
38
The ability to control the most dexterous skilled movements derives from:
- synaptic termination pattern of several axons
- axons bypass not only the brainstem motor pathways to the cord but also the premotor neurons of the spinal cord
- a given corticospinal neuron contains smaller #s of alpha neurons
- causes increased independence of the actions of different muscles (ex: moving individual fingers)
39
How does the cerebellum control posture and movement?
- posture: the cerebellum coordinates overall posture by coordinating contraction-relaxation of all muscles in the body used for maintaining posture, BOTH at rest + during movement
- failure to establish a postural platform prevents normal,coordinated movement
- movement: the cerebellum coordinates initiation of movement, the actual movement itself, and termination of movement
- ** CANNOT initiate movement per se
40
For voluntary learned movement the planning occurs in the executive motor planning areas of the brain. What are these areas?
- integration/interpretation areas associated w/ a variety of sensory receiving areas:
- visual cortex
- somatosensory cortex
- memory and behavior centers
41
How does the cerebellum and the executive motor planning areas interact?
- a copy of the planned movement is sent to the cerebellum which then establishes the postural platforms
- the cerebellum feeds back to the motor planning centers informing them that the posture has been established
- the executive centers then direct the pyramidal and extrapyramidal tracts so that movement is initiated
42
What is ataxia? Some features?
- inability to coordinate the position of the head, trunk, and limbs in space
- uncoordinated movements
- NOT paresis (weakness), ex: dragging limbs
- important neurological sign to recognize to localize lesions in the nervous system
43
What are the three types of ataxia?
- vestibular
- cerebellar
- proprioceptive or sensory
44
What are characteristics of vestibular ataxia?
- easiest to recognize
- characterized by:
- head tilt
- falling
- leaning
- rolling
- circling
- strabismus
- nystagmus
- animals with central vestibular disease can have changes in mental status (ex: somnolence) and proprioceptive deficits
45
What are characteristics of cerebellar ataxia?
- characterized by dysmetria: inability to control the rate and range of stepping movements
- usually manifested in hypermetria: exaggerated steps
- also head and body tremors, intentional tremors, and wide pelvis limb stance + gait
- pure cerebellar ataxia does not show conscious proprioceptive deficits
- helpful differentiating from proprioceptive ataxia
46
What are characteristics of proprioceptive or sensory ataxia?
- primarily related to spinal cord diseases (no head tilt or tremors)
- is a phenomenon of the spinal cords white matter, reflecting a dysfunction of the sensory tracts carrying unconscious proprioception
- dorsal, ventral, and cranial spinocerebellar tracts + cuneocerebellar tract
- clinical signs: truncal sway (wobbliness) and abnormal limb stance and gait such as circumduction, abduction, or adduction w/ the limbs crossing w/ each other as the animal walks
47
What are the main functions of the autonomic nervous system?
- portion of the nervous system that controls most visceral functions and glandular secretion of the body
- help control arterial pressure
- gastrointestinal motility
- gastrointestinal secretion
- urinary bladder emptying
- body temp, etc.
- * innervates blood vessels, glands, and muscles
48
What are the subdivisions of the ANS and some features of each?
- parasympathetic system “rest + digest”
- responsible for processes that conserve and store energy
- day-to-day control of viscera for basic functions (ex: breathing at rest, digestion, elimination)
- anatomically arises from the cranial and sacral-spinal nerves
- * craniosacral system
- sympathetic system “fight + flight”
- function under stress: enables vigorous activity with rapid production of energy (ATP)
- increases HR, respiration,change blood flow to activate muscles,dilate pupils for increased vision
- anatomically arises from that columnar cord
- * thoracolumbar system
49
T/F: most viscera receive info from either the SNS or PSNS but not both
- false; despite different origins, most viscera receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic input, with the systems acting together in a antagonistic fashion to maintain homeostasis
- input balance determines organ function
50
Although the ANS is usually defined as visceral motor system, it has ________, ________, and _________ components
- afferent, central, and efferent components
- target viscera are usually part of reflex pathways + CNS structures like the hypothalamus
51
The ANS is under control of the __________, which acts as an integrator. How?
- hypothalamus
- hypothalamic control is made by the brainstem (reticular formation) with some influence by the cerebral cortex
- afferent and efferent fibers of the ANS travel via the spinal cord and cranial nerves to connect between the CNS and target organ
52
What are characteristics of pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic neurons in the ANS?
- connect the CNS to the target organ
- the somatic motor system has only ONE LMN connecting skeletal muscle and spinal cord
- the ANS pre-ganglionic neuron has its cell body in the CNS and synapses with the post-ganglionic neuron in the peripheral ganglion
53
In both sympathetic and parasympathetic systems cell bodies of the ___________ neurons are located in the CNS
- preganglionic
54
In parasympathetic innervation, cranial and sacral pre-ganglionic fibers leave the CNS to synapse in:
- specific ganglia near the target organs
55
In sympathetic innervation, fibers to the abdominal and pelvic viscera are supplied by:
- thoracic and lumbar splanchnic nerves
56
The post-ganglionic neuron has its cell body in the peripheral ganglion ______ the CNS. In the parasympathetic system,the ganglion is usually _________ to the target organ
- outside
- very close
57
Post-ganglionic neurons usually have _______ _______ ______ axons. What are some features?
- slow conducting unmyelinated axons
- innervate SMOOTH MUSCLE (in blood vessels + viscera), CARDIAC MUSCLE (heart), and GLANDULAR TISSUE (visceral + non-visceral glands)
- they can excite or inhibit the target tissue
- no generalization to explain whether SNS or PSNS will cause + or - of a particular organ, must understand organ function
- synaptic boutons are varicosities distributed along the length of the branches
58
All pre-ganglionic neurons are ___________ in both sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. They secrete _________ in the synapse with the post-ganglionic neuron
- cholinergic
- acetylcholine
59
Post-ganglionic neurons secrete different neurotransmitters.
- parasympathetic post-ganglionic neurons are __________ and secrete ________
- most sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons are ___________ and secrete ____________
- cholinergic, acetylcholine
- adrenergic, norepinephrine
60
Sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons that synapse with sweat glands and blood vessels of skin are ____________, and those that synapse with renal vessels are ___________.
- cholinergic
- dopaminergic
61
____ is synthesized in the terminal endings and varicosities of cholinergic nerve fibers
- acetylcholine
- enzyme choline acetytransferase: acetyl-CoA + choline = ACh
- stored in vesicles until released
- enzyme acetylcholinesterase: ACh = acetate ion + choline
- choline is recycled
62
____________ is synthesized in the axoplasm of the terminal endings and at secretory vesicles
- norepinephrine
- basic steps:
- thyrosine ——hydroxylation—> dopa
- dopa ——decarboxylation——> dopamine
- transport of dopamine into vesicles
- dopamine ——hydroxylation——> norepinephrine
- norepinephrine ——methylation——> epinephrine**
- ** only in ADRENAL GLAND
63
The enteric nervous system has _______ fibers. What are some features of these fibers?
- NANC: non-adrenergic, non-cholinergic fibers
- extensively innervate the enteric nervous system
- very important in the physiological regulation of the GI tract, genitourinary tract, and selected blood vessels
- ex: NANC fibers produce NITRIC OXIDE
64
What are features of the enteric nervous system?
- regulation of GI physiology is mediated by the enteric nervous system, which is a intrinsic system in the wall of the GI system
- sensory +motor components
- complex network that inclues the myenteric plexus and sumucosal plexus
- nerve endings in the gut wall + mucosa convey chemical, mechanical, and stretch sensory information
- in the PSNS and SNS innervation appears to modulate the enteric NS in a regulatory manner
- GI has cholinergic, adrenergic, and NANC fibers
65
What are features of postsynaptic receptors?
- neurotransmitters released at the synapse will bind to metabotropic or ionotropic receptors at the postsynaptic neuron
- 1. causing a change in cell membrane permeability to one or more ions
- 2. activating or inactivating second messengers
66
What are the main types of postsynaptic receptors?
- 2 main types of cholinergic receptors
- nicotinic
- muscarinic
- 2 major classes of adrenergic receptors
- alpha
- beta
- dopamine receptors
67
What are features of nicotinic receptors?
- bind to ACh
- ligand-gated ion channels found in autonomic ganglia of both SNS and PSNS (Nn)
- also found at neuromuscular junction in skeletal muscle (Nm)
- activation results in EPSP’s of the postsynaptic neuron
68
What are features of muscarinic receptors?
- bind to ACh
- GPCR’s found on all effector cells that are stimulated by pstganglionic cholinergic neurons of ether the SNS or PSNS
- ACTIVATE SECOND MESSENGERS
- 5 subtypes: M1, M2, M3, M4, M5
- signal through GI or Gq family of G proteins
69
What are features of adrenergic receptors?
- located at the synapses between peripheral target tissues and synaptic post-ganglionic neurons that release NE
- also stimulated by the release of cathecolamines from adrenal gland
- GCPRs
- 2 divisions: alpha + beta
70
What are the two divisions of adrenergic receptors and some features?
- alpha receptors
- subtypes: a1 (Gq) and a2 (Gi)
- ex: induce vasoconstriction of most blood vessels; raise blood pressure
- beta receptors
- subtypes: B1, B2, B3 (Gs)
- ex: B1 in he heart increases HR and contraction force
- Beta Blockers: decrease HR and present arrhythmias
71
What are features of dopamine receptors?
- dopamine mediates numerous physiological effects in the CNS and at the peripheral target organs
- released by some post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons synapsing with specific organs like renal vessels
- bind to dopaminergic receptors: GPCR
- activate different cellular responses resulting in a EPSP or IPSP
- subtypes: D1, D2, D3, D4, D5
72
73
What are characteristics of the parasympathetic nervous system?
- craniosacral system that conserves and restores the energy sources of the body
- the pre-ganglionic fibers are relatively long,projecting toganglia located in the vicinity of or in the wall of their target tissues
- post-ganglionic neurons have short axons
- does NOT innervate structures of the body wall + extremities
- have greater degree of independent control, as well as more precise control of tissues and organs compared to SNS
74
What are features of the sympathetic nervous system?
- thoracolumbar system that preps body for emergency situations
- post-ganglionic fibers reach effector organs by accompanying the vasculature supplying them. Widely distributed as blood vessels
- some effector organs are controlled solely by the sympathetic division
- sweat glands, piloerector muscles, most blood vessels
75
What are actions of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems?
76
Normally, the. SNS and PSNS are continually active and the basal rates are known as _____. What are features of this?
- tone
- allows a single nervous to both increase and decrease the activity of a stimulated organ
- ex: sympathetic tone normally keeps almost all systemic arterioles constricted
- + or - tone can contract or dilate more, without tone sympathetic system will only be allowed constrict and not dilate
77
What are features of sympathetic tone?
- fight or flight
- under physical or emotional stress the SNS is capable of massive, coordinated output w/ widespread effects
- increase HR and BP
- dilation of pupils (mydriasis)
- elevation in levels of blood glucose and fat free acids
- increased state of arousal
- effects last longer than those from parasympathetic system —> adrenal medulla
78
What part of the adrenal gland is important to tone? What does it produce?
- medulla
- Epinephrine + Norepinephrine
- adrenal gland is essentially a postsynaptic ganglia/neuron of the sympathetic nervous system
- secretes neurotransmitters via chromaffin cells from amino acid tyrosine
79
What are features of the sympathetic stress response?
- a massive discharge of catecholamine
- this action increases the ability of the body to perform vigorous muscle activity
- the sum of all these effects permits an individual to perform far more strenuous activity than would otherwise be possible
80
What are the results of the fight of fight response
81
What are features of parasympathetic tone?
- rest and digest
- is generally concerned wit the restorative aspects of daily living
- lowers BP by slowing down the HR and decreasing the force of contraction (M2)
- enhances digestive activity
- increases blood flow to GI tract
- increases intestinal motility
- stimulates secretion of digestive enzymes
- relaxes pyloric sphincter
82
What are autonomic reflexes?
- homeostatic reflexes
- ex: controlof blood pressure
- important to maintain sufficient brain blood flow
- stretch receptors in the internal carotid artery and aorta detect systemic blood pressure
- mechanoreceptors (baroreceptors) : physiological receptors
-ex: pupillary light reflex
- autonomic reflex activity controlled by parasympathetic system
83
What are features of the baroreceptor reflex?
- ANS
- refelx arc composed by:
- baroreceptor: receptor for blood pressure
- afferent neurons: carry info to medulla oblongata
- brain stem enters (medulla): process info and coordinate a appropriate response
- efferent neurons: direct changes in heart and blood vessels
84
Describe the pupillary light reflex
- when bright light shines directly into the eye, the pupil constricts (miosis) due to contraction of circumferential arranged smooth muscle of the iris
- requires the retina, optic nerve, 2 central nuclei, the oculomotor nerve, ciliary ganglion, and ciliary nerve
- the pupillary response that occurs in the illuminated eye is the DIRECT RESPONSE
- the pupillary response that occurs in the not illuminated eye is the CONSENSUAL or INDIRECT RESPONSE
85
When a flashlight is shown into an animals eye, light stimulates photoreceptors in the retina. What happens after?
- sensory potentials are transmitted to the brainstem along the optic nerve (CN II)
- through several interneurons, PARASYMPATHETIC CHOLINERGIC neurons (CN III) stimulate the constructor smooth muscle of the iris
- pupillary diameter becomes smaller (MIOSIS)
86
Describe Horner’s syndrome
- loss of sympathetic input to the head due to decreases stimulation of the smooth muscle of the eye and periorbita
- clinical signs:
- enophthalmos: affected eye appears sunken
- narrowing of palpebral fissure: secondary to paralysis
- pupillary constriction ansicoria (inequality of pupil size)
- prolapse of 3rd pupil
87
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