Neuro - Part 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the somatic motor system do? What is it composed of?

A
  • supports body against gravity, establishes posture, and allows voluntary movement to occur
  • composed of:
    • give directions that control the sequential cord activity: cerebral motor cortex, basal nuclei, cerebellum, thalamus, brainstem
    • contain circuits for movement: spinal cord, peripheral nerves
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2
Q

What is posture and movement dependent on?

A
  • dependent on a combination of voluntary actions controlled by higher brain centers and involuntary reflexes coordinated by the spinal cord
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3
Q

What must the CNS do to control body movement? What 2 receptors are important for this?

A
  • the CNS must:
    • assess the effect of gravity on the muscles
    • determine the initial position of body parts to be moved
    • detect any discrepancy between the intended movement and movement that naturally occurs
  • 2 receptors: muscle spindle + golgi tendon organ
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4
Q

What is a reflex? What is a reflex arc? What are the 5 components of the reflex arc?

A
  • reflex: involuntary , qualitatively unvarying motor response of the nervous system to a stimulus
  • reflex arc: neuronal circuit that directs this motor response
    • receptor
    • sensory neuron
    • one or more synapses in the CNS
    • motor neuron
    • target organ
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5
Q

What ways can reflexes be classified?

A
  • monosynaptic (direct contact between sensory + motor neurons) x polysynaptic (involve interneurons,more common)
  • ipsilateral x contralateral
  • segmental (refle arc passes through only a small segment of spinal cord and a small rostrocaudal region of the brainstem) x intersegmental (reflex arc passses through many segments of spinal cord and several major brain divisions)
  • somatic x autonomic
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6
Q

Describe the stretch reflex or tendon reflex

A
  • a primarily monosynaptic reflex
  • afferent axons from a muscle stretch receptor directly synapse w/ spinal cord alpha motor neurons which cause contraction of that are muscle
  • stretch receptor for tendon reflex is the muscle spindle
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7
Q

What is the patellar reflex?

A
  • monosynaptic reflex
  • excited by tapping the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle immediately distal to the patella
  • test extensor reflex mediated by femoral nerve
  • most reliable test of tendon reflex
  • cord segment involved: L4-L6
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8
Q

What does the stretch reflex counteract?

A
  • gravity
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9
Q

What is the inverse stretch reflex?

A
  • the duration and force of muscle contraction associated with the stretch reflex is mitigated to some degree by the golgi tendon organ
  • receptor is sensitive to muscle tension increasing their firing rate when the muscle contracts
    • excites inhibitory neuron in spinal cord
    • inhibits alpha motor neuron causing contraction
    • leads to muscle relaxation
  • ** prevents excess tension on the muscle
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10
Q

T/F: sensory inputs to a segment of the spinal cord can only influence motor neurons in the same segment

A
  • false
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11
Q
A
  • B
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12
Q
A
  • A
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13
Q
A
  • A
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14
Q
A
  • B
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15
Q

What is the flexor reflex or withdrawal reflex?

A
  • a coordinated postsynaptic reflex in high all the flexor muscles of the limb contract in response to a noxious stimulus
  • reciprocal innervation
    -the force and duration of the withdrawal reflex are proportional to the intensity of the noxious stimulus applied
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16
Q

What is the clinical application of the withdrawal reflex?

A
  • assess integrity of sensory and motor reflex pathways that mediate flexion of limbs
  • elicited by applying pressure to base of the toenail
  • thoracic cord segment: C6-T4
  • pelvic cord segment: L4-S1
  • clinically, a intact reflex, whether normal or exaggerated, tells the clinician that the lesion does not involve that area of the PNS/CNS
    • will be present even if the neuroma is cranial or causal to the reflex circuit as been damaged
    • exaggeration may occur w/ lesions affecting UMNs cranial to reflex
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17
Q

What are the CNS areas involved with voluntary movement?

A
  • Primary Motor Cortex
  • most voluntary movements initiated by the cerebral cortex are achieved when the cortex activates “patterns” of function stored in lower brain areas
    • cerebellum
    • basal nuclei
    • spinal cord
    • brainstem
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18
Q

What are the two general forms movement is divided into?

A
  • dominated by flexor muscles
    • largely learned, voluntary, conscious and skilled
    • fairly discrete contraction of a few muscle groups (many distal to spinal cord)
  • dominated by extensor muscles
    • postural, antigravity muscle activity, generally subconscious and involuntary
    • long term contraction of larger groups of muscles (many located closer to spinal cord)
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19
Q

How are the two forms of movements controlled?

A
  • skilled voluntary movement of distal musculature (flexors) is primarily controlled by a LATERAL SYSTEM (LATERAL FUNICULUS) of LMN and UMN spinal tracts
  • posture and anti-gravity activity of the proximal and axial musculature (extensors) is controlled by a more MEDIAL SYSTEM (VENTRAL FUNICULUS) of neurons and tracts
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20
Q

T/F: CNS structures that control movement have a hierarchal organization

A
  • true
  • simple movements/movement patterns: more caudal CNS regions
  • complex/skilled patterns: progressively more rostral regions
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21
Q

Describe the role of the spinal cord in motor function

A

-spinal cord is the most caudal and simples level of movement control
- contain the alpha LMN innervating skeletal muscle fibers
- contain interneurons and complex neural circuits for motor control (spinal reflexes)
- execute low-level commands that generate proper forces on individual muscle groups to enable adaptive movements (the # of muscle fibers innervated by a single LMN decreases as the need for fine control of a muscle increases)

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22
Q

How does the motor system maintain posture?

A
  • providing a tonic excitatory bias to motor circuits that excite extensor muscles
  • modulating stretch-reflex circuits
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23
Q

T/F: proprioceptive information is vital for movement

A
  • true;
  • muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs help to provide this information
  • these receptors are also components of some spinal reflexes: important for basic understanding of motor control
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24
Q

What is walking/locomotion dependent on?

A
  • alternation between extension and flexion which is largely generated by spinal cord reflexes
    • stretch reflex (muscle spindle): contracts muscle being stretched
    • inverse muscle stretch (golgi tendon organ): relaxes muscle being tensioned
    • withdrawal reflex/flexor reflex (proprioceptive and nonproprioceptive receptors): cause flexion of stimulated limb
      • ** protects body from injury BUT can be MODULATED (overridden) by the cortex!
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25
Q

Describe the crossed extensor reflex and positive supportive reaction

A
  • about .2-.5s after a stimulus elicits a withdrawal reflex in one limb, the opposite begins to extend
    • ** crossed-extensor reflex only works when weight bearing
    • if laying down, no reflex is NORMAL
    • if reflex is present = PATHOLOGIC, UMN lesion expected
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26
Q

What are central pattern generators (CPGs)?

A
  • neuronal networks in the CNS that produce oscillatory outputs used for controlling rhythmical motor activity
    • locomotion, scratching, chewing, breathing
    • contain excitatory and inhbitory neurons
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27
Q

T/F: activity in the muscles of the trunk, neck, and tail are interlinked

A
  • true
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28
Q

Constant proprioceptive input from all body + limb muscles both activates the reflexes and sends sensory information to the cerebellum for use in coordination of motor activity. This gives to rise to:

A
  • conscious awareness of posture and movement
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29
Q

UMN tracts __________, __________, and __________ muscle activity of limbs and body

A
  • initiate, modify, and terminate
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30
Q

What are the two major descending motor system pathways from brain to spinal cord?

A
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31
Q

What are the 4 major axon tracts of the brainstem UMN pathways

A
  • medial (ventral column): axons travel in medial regions of the white matter and synapse within medial regions of the grey matter
    • vestibulospinal tract
    • reticulospinal tract
    • tectospinal tract
  • lateral (lateral column): axons run in a more lateral region of the white matter and synapse in the lateral spinal grey matter
    • rubrospinal tract
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32
Q

What is the major role of the medial UMN pathways?

A

-to maintain the body subconsciously in an upright position against the pull of gravity
- control of axial + proximal EXTENSOR musculature
- bilateral control
- prevents animal from collapsing

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33
Q

What are features of the 3 medial UMN pathways?

A
  • vestibulospinal tract
    • regulates antigravity muscle tone
    • receives sensory information form the vestibular system
  • reticulospinal tract
    • regulates antigravity muscle tone
    • initiate and control the speed of to-and-fro rhythmicity of walking
    • modulate consciousness, arousal,and attention
    • plays important role in pain perception, respiration, and circulatory function
  • tectospinal tract
    • involved in reflex orientation of the head towards environmental stimuli + rapid reflex movement of eyes
    • axons only project as far as the upper cervical regions of the spinal cord (muscles that move the head)
    • process visual, auditory, and somatosensory info about the relative position of stimuli in the environment w/ respect to the organism (coordinate dad and eyes to fix gaze on stimuli)
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34
Q

What are features of the lateral UMN pathway?

A
  • controls distal limb musculature associated with movement
  • exerts unilateral control over a limited number of muscles in the distal limb (often flexors associated with skilled movements of extremities)
  • receives a lot of input from higher levels of the motor system (provides a means for the motor cortices to INDIRECTLY influence the spinal LMNs of distal limb flexor musculature)
  • receives significant input from the CEREBELLUM (synchronizes muscle activity by fine tuning movement initiated by corticospinal tract)
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35
Q

What are other brainstem influences in the motor system?

A
  • sensory organs in the face/head
  • ex: eye + vestibular apparatus
  • simple segmental reflexes can be organized at the brainstem levels without significant control from other levels of the motor system
36
Q

Corticospinal tracts are direct projections from ________ to ________. What are some features?

A
  • cerebral cortex to spinal cord
  • responsible for most skilled voluntary movements, especially those involving extremities
  • minimal influence on gait
37
Q

Where does decussation of axons occur? What does this mean?

A
  • ventral surface of the medulla
  • lesions to the motor cortices on one side of the body has devastating effects on voluntary movement of the distal flexor musculature on the opposite side of the body
38
Q

The ability to control the most dexterous skilled movements derives from:

A
  • synaptic termination pattern of several axons
  • axons bypass not only the brainstem motor pathways to the cord but also the premotor neurons of the spinal cord
  • a given corticospinal neuron contains smaller #s of alpha neurons
  • causes increased independence of the actions of different muscles (ex: moving individual fingers)
39
Q

How does the cerebellum control posture and movement?

A
  • posture: the cerebellum coordinates overall posture by coordinating contraction-relaxation of all muscles in the body used for maintaining posture, BOTH at rest + during movement
    • failure to establish a postural platform prevents normal,coordinated movement
  • movement: the cerebellum coordinates initiation of movement, the actual movement itself, and termination of movement
    • ** CANNOT initiate movement per se
40
Q

For voluntary learned movement the planning occurs in the executive motor planning areas of the brain. What are these areas?

A
  • integration/interpretation areas associated w/ a variety of sensory receiving areas:
    - visual cortex
    - somatosensory cortex
  • memory and behavior centers
41
Q

How does the cerebellum and the executive motor planning areas interact?

A
  • a copy of the planned movement is sent to the cerebellum which then establishes the postural platforms
  • the cerebellum feeds back to the motor planning centers informing them that the posture has been established
  • the executive centers then direct the pyramidal and extrapyramidal tracts so that movement is initiated
42
Q

What is ataxia? Some features?

A
  • inability to coordinate the position of the head, trunk, and limbs in space
    • uncoordinated movements
    • NOT paresis (weakness), ex: dragging limbs
  • important neurological sign to recognize to localize lesions in the nervous system
43
Q

What are the three types of ataxia?

A
  • vestibular
  • cerebellar
  • proprioceptive or sensory
44
Q

What are characteristics of vestibular ataxia?

A
  • easiest to recognize
  • characterized by:
    • head tilt
    • falling
    • leaning
    • rolling
    • circling
    • strabismus
    • nystagmus
  • animals with central vestibular disease can have changes in mental status (ex: somnolence) and proprioceptive deficits
45
Q

What are characteristics of cerebellar ataxia?

A
  • characterized by dysmetria: inability to control the rate and range of stepping movements
    • usually manifested in hypermetria: exaggerated steps
  • also head and body tremors, intentional tremors, and wide pelvis limb stance + gait
    • pure cerebellar ataxia does not show conscious proprioceptive deficits
      - helpful differentiating from proprioceptive ataxia
46
Q

What are characteristics of proprioceptive or sensory ataxia?

A
  • primarily related to spinal cord diseases (no head tilt or tremors)
  • is a phenomenon of the spinal cords white matter, reflecting a dysfunction of the sensory tracts carrying unconscious proprioception
    • dorsal, ventral, and cranial spinocerebellar tracts + cuneocerebellar tract
  • clinical signs: truncal sway (wobbliness) and abnormal limb stance and gait such as circumduction, abduction, or adduction w/ the limbs crossing w/ each other as the animal walks
47
Q

What are the main functions of the autonomic nervous system?

A
  • portion of the nervous system that controls most visceral functions and glandular secretion of the body
    • help control arterial pressure
    • gastrointestinal motility
    • gastrointestinal secretion
    • urinary bladder emptying
    • body temp, etc.
    • innervates blood vessels, glands, and muscles
48
Q

What are the subdivisions of the ANS and some features of each?

A
  • parasympathetic system “rest + digest”
    • responsible for processes that conserve and store energy
    • day-to-day control of viscera for basic functions (ex: breathing at rest, digestion, elimination)
    • anatomically arises from the cranial and sacral-spinal nerves
        • craniosacral system
  • sympathetic system “fight + flight”
    • function under stress: enables vigorous activity with rapid production of energy (ATP)
    • increases HR, respiration,change blood flow to activate muscles,dilate pupils for increased vision
    • anatomically arises from that columnar cord
        • thoracolumbar system
49
Q

T/F: most viscera receive info from either the SNS or PSNS but not both

A
  • false; despite different origins, most viscera receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic input, with the systems acting together in a antagonistic fashion to maintain homeostasis
  • input balance determines organ function
50
Q

Although the ANS is usually defined as visceral motor system, it has ________, ________, and _________ components

A
  • afferent, central, and efferent components
  • target viscera are usually part of reflex pathways + CNS structures like the hypothalamus
51
Q

The ANS is under control of the __________, which acts as an integrator. How?

A
  • hypothalamus
  • hypothalamic control is made by the brainstem (reticular formation) with some influence by the cerebral cortex
  • afferent and efferent fibers of the ANS travel via the spinal cord and cranial nerves to connect between the CNS and target organ
52
Q

What are characteristics of pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic neurons in the ANS?

A
  • connect the CNS to the target organ
  • the somatic motor system has only ONE LMN connecting skeletal muscle and spinal cord
  • the ANS pre-ganglionic neuron has its cell body in the CNS and synapses with the post-ganglionic neuron in the peripheral ganglion
53
Q

In both sympathetic and parasympathetic systems cell bodies of the ___________ neurons are located in the CNS

A
  • preganglionic
54
Q

In parasympathetic innervation, cranial and sacral pre-ganglionic fibers leave the CNS to synapse in:

A
  • specific ganglia near the target organs
55
Q

In sympathetic innervation, fibers to the abdominal and pelvic viscera are supplied by:

A
  • thoracic and lumbar splanchnic nerves
56
Q

The post-ganglionic neuron has its cell body in the peripheral ganglion ______ the CNS. In the parasympathetic system,the ganglion is usually _________ to the target organ

A
  • outside
  • very close
57
Q

Post-ganglionic neurons usually have _______ _______ ______ axons. What are some features?

A
  • slow conducting unmyelinated axons
  • innervate SMOOTH MUSCLE (in blood vessels + viscera), CARDIAC MUSCLE (heart), and GLANDULAR TISSUE (visceral + non-visceral glands)
  • they can excite or inhibit the target tissue
    • no generalization to explain whether SNS or PSNS will cause + or - of a particular organ, must understand organ function
  • synaptic boutons are varicosities distributed along the length of the branches
58
Q

All pre-ganglionic neurons are ___________ in both sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. They secrete _________ in the synapse with the post-ganglionic neuron

A
  • cholinergic
  • acetylcholine
59
Q

Post-ganglionic neurons secrete different neurotransmitters.
- parasympathetic post-ganglionic neurons are __________ and secrete ________
- most sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons are ___________ and secrete ____________

A
  • cholinergic, acetylcholine
  • adrenergic, norepinephrine
60
Q

Sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons that synapse with sweat glands and blood vessels of skin are ____________, and those that synapse with renal vessels are ___________.

A
  • cholinergic
  • dopaminergic
61
Q

____ is synthesized in the terminal endings and varicosities of cholinergic nerve fibers

A
  • acetylcholine
  • enzyme choline acetytransferase: acetyl-CoA + choline = ACh
  • stored in vesicles until released
  • enzyme acetylcholinesterase: ACh = acetate ion + choline
  • choline is recycled
62
Q

____________ is synthesized in the axoplasm of the terminal endings and at secretory vesicles

A
  • norepinephrine
  • basic steps:
    • thyrosine ——hydroxylation—> dopa
    • dopa ——decarboxylation——> dopamine
    • transport of dopamine into vesicles
    • dopamine ——hydroxylation——> norepinephrine
    • norepinephrine ——methylation——> epinephrine**
  • ** only in ADRENAL GLAND
63
Q

The enteric nervous system has _______ fibers. What are some features of these fibers?

A
  • NANC: non-adrenergic, non-cholinergic fibers
  • extensively innervate the enteric nervous system
  • very important in the physiological regulation of the GI tract, genitourinary tract, and selected blood vessels
  • ex: NANC fibers produce NITRIC OXIDE
64
Q

What are features of the enteric nervous system?

A
  • regulation of GI physiology is mediated by the enteric nervous system, which is a intrinsic system in the wall of the GI system
    • sensory +motor components
    • complex network that inclues the myenteric plexus and sumucosal plexus
    • nerve endings in the gut wall + mucosa convey chemical, mechanical, and stretch sensory information
  • in the PSNS and SNS innervation appears to modulate the enteric NS in a regulatory manner
  • GI has cholinergic, adrenergic, and NANC fibers
65
Q

What are features of postsynaptic receptors?

A
  • neurotransmitters released at the synapse will bind to metabotropic or ionotropic receptors at the postsynaptic neuron
    1. causing a change in cell membrane permeability to one or more ions
    1. activating or inactivating second messengers
66
Q

What are the main types of postsynaptic receptors?

A
  • 2 main types of cholinergic receptors
    • nicotinic
    • muscarinic
  • 2 major classes of adrenergic receptors
    • alpha
    • beta
  • dopamine receptors
67
Q

What are features of nicotinic receptors?

A
  • bind to ACh
  • ligand-gated ion channels found in autonomic ganglia of both SNS and PSNS (Nn)
  • also found at neuromuscular junction in skeletal muscle (Nm)
  • activation results in EPSP’s of the postsynaptic neuron
68
Q

What are features of muscarinic receptors?

A
  • bind to ACh
  • GPCR’s found on all effector cells that are stimulated by pstganglionic cholinergic neurons of ether the SNS or PSNS
    • ACTIVATE SECOND MESSENGERS
  • 5 subtypes: M1, M2, M3, M4, M5
    • signal through GI or Gq family of G proteins
69
Q

What are features of adrenergic receptors?

A
  • located at the synapses between peripheral target tissues and synaptic post-ganglionic neurons that release NE
    • also stimulated by the release of cathecolamines from adrenal gland
    • GCPRs
    • 2 divisions: alpha + beta
70
Q

What are the two divisions of adrenergic receptors and some features?

A
  • alpha receptors
    - subtypes: a1 (Gq) and a2 (Gi)
    - ex: induce vasoconstriction of most blood vessels; raise blood pressure
  • beta receptors
    • subtypes: B1, B2, B3 (Gs)
    • ex: B1 in he heart increases HR and contraction force
      - Beta Blockers: decrease HR and present arrhythmias
71
Q

What are features of dopamine receptors?

A
  • dopamine mediates numerous physiological effects in the CNS and at the peripheral target organs
    • released by some post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons synapsing with specific organs like renal vessels
    • bind to dopaminergic receptors: GPCR
      • activate different cellular responses resulting in a EPSP or IPSP
    • subtypes: D1, D2, D3, D4, D5
72
Q
A
73
Q

What are characteristics of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A
  • craniosacral system that conserves and restores the energy sources of the body
    • the pre-ganglionic fibers are relatively long,projecting toganglia located in the vicinity of or in the wall of their target tissues
    • post-ganglionic neurons have short axons
  • does NOT innervate structures of the body wall + extremities
  • have greater degree of independent control, as well as more precise control of tissues and organs compared to SNS
74
Q

What are features of the sympathetic nervous system?

A
  • thoracolumbar system that preps body for emergency situations
    • post-ganglionic fibers reach effector organs by accompanying the vasculature supplying them. Widely distributed as blood vessels
  • some effector organs are controlled solely by the sympathetic division
    • sweat glands, piloerector muscles, most blood vessels
75
Q

What are actions of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems?

A
76
Q

Normally, the. SNS and PSNS are continually active and the basal rates are known as _____. What are features of this?

A
  • tone
  • allows a single nervous to both increase and decrease the activity of a stimulated organ
    - ex: sympathetic tone normally keeps almost all systemic arterioles constricted
      • or - tone can contract or dilate more, without tone sympathetic system will only be allowed constrict and not dilate
77
Q

What are features of sympathetic tone?

A
  • fight or flight
  • under physical or emotional stress the SNS is capable of massive, coordinated output w/ widespread effects
    • increase HR and BP
    • dilation of pupils (mydriasis)
    • elevation in levels of blood glucose and fat free acids
    • increased state of arousal
    • effects last longer than those from parasympathetic system —> adrenal medulla
78
Q

What part of the adrenal gland is important to tone? What does it produce?

A
  • medulla
  • Epinephrine + Norepinephrine
  • adrenal gland is essentially a postsynaptic ganglia/neuron of the sympathetic nervous system
  • secretes neurotransmitters via chromaffin cells from amino acid tyrosine
79
Q

What are features of the sympathetic stress response?

A
  • a massive discharge of catecholamine
    • this action increases the ability of the body to perform vigorous muscle activity
    • the sum of all these effects permits an individual to perform far more strenuous activity than would otherwise be possible
80
Q

What are the results of the fight of fight response

A
81
Q

What are features of parasympathetic tone?

A
  • rest and digest
  • is generally concerned wit the restorative aspects of daily living
    • lowers BP by slowing down the HR and decreasing the force of contraction (M2)
    • enhances digestive activity
      • increases blood flow to GI tract
      • increases intestinal motility
      • stimulates secretion of digestive enzymes
      • relaxes pyloric sphincter
82
Q

What are autonomic reflexes?

A
  • homeostatic reflexes
  • ex: controlof blood pressure
    - important to maintain sufficient brain blood flow
    - stretch receptors in the internal carotid artery and aorta detect systemic blood pressure
    - mechanoreceptors (baroreceptors) : physiological receptors
    -ex: pupillary light reflex
    - autonomic reflex activity controlled by parasympathetic system
83
Q

What are features of the baroreceptor reflex?

A
  • ANS
  • refelx arc composed by:
    • baroreceptor: receptor for blood pressure
    • afferent neurons: carry info to medulla oblongata
    • brain stem enters (medulla): process info and coordinate a appropriate response
    • efferent neurons: direct changes in heart and blood vessels
84
Q

Describe the pupillary light reflex

A
  • when bright light shines directly into the eye, the pupil constricts (miosis) due to contraction of circumferential arranged smooth muscle of the iris
  • requires the retina, optic nerve, 2 central nuclei, the oculomotor nerve, ciliary ganglion, and ciliary nerve
  • the pupillary response that occurs in the illuminated eye is the DIRECT RESPONSE
  • the pupillary response that occurs in the not illuminated eye is the CONSENSUAL or INDIRECT RESPONSE
85
Q

When a flashlight is shown into an animals eye, light stimulates photoreceptors in the retina. What happens after?

A
  • sensory potentials are transmitted to the brainstem along the optic nerve (CN II)
  • through several interneurons, PARASYMPATHETIC CHOLINERGIC neurons (CN III) stimulate the constructor smooth muscle of the iris
  • pupillary diameter becomes smaller (MIOSIS)
86
Q

Describe Horner’s syndrome

A
  • loss of sympathetic input to the head due to decreases stimulation of the smooth muscle of the eye and periorbita
  • clinical signs:
    - enophthalmos: affected eye appears sunken
    - narrowing of palpebral fissure: secondary to paralysis
    - pupillary constriction ansicoria (inequality of pupil size)
    - prolapse of 3rd pupil
87
Q
A

D?