Neuro non drug table Flashcards

1
Q

potency of anaesthetic agents in linearly correlated with

A

Lipid solubility

◦ Relates to their ability to cross and manipulate the activity of ion channels --> ligand gated channels are moe sensitive to the action fo general anaesthetics than voltage gated channels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lipid solubility of local anaesthetics is determined by>

A

pKa which in turn determines potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How are local anaesthetics formulated

A

Hydrochloride salt with sodium metabisulfite and fungiside preservatives; further preservative 1mg/mL methyl parahydroxybenzoate in multidose bottles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What concentration is adrenaline in when added to LA

A

1:200 000
5mcg/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

pKa for LA
Acid or base

A
  • pKa for most of them is ~8-9, and they are weak bases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe how pKa and MOA work for LA

A

◦ After injection, at body pH they become more lipid soluble –> solubility and lipophilicity are primary determinants of absorption into the neuron/potency but also affects local distirbution and likelihood of being washed away by local blood flow
◦ This allows them to penetrate the cell and bind to the intracellular part of the voltaged-gated sodium channel, which is their site of action
◦ Most local anaesthetics have a pKa of something like 8.0-9.0, and are presented in an aqueous solution.
◦ Aqueous solutions of local anaesthetics are buffered down to a pH of 5.0-6.0, which makes them ionised and therefore water-soluble.
◦ Once injected into the tissues, this acidic liquid dilutes into extracellular fluid and the local anaesthetic molecules become more lipid-soluble (now being bathed in a pH of 7.40).
◦ Now they can penetrate into the cells.
◦ Inside the cells, conditions are slightly more acidic (pH ~ 6.9)
◦ Thus, more of the agent will be present in its cationic form
◦ This is good because only the charged form can bind to the voltage-gated sodium channel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

LA binding domain? What characteristics of the channel are required for binding? What important characterstics of the LA are required to bind?

A

◦ Bind to INTRACELLULAR domain of voltage gated sodium channels in their OPEN state inside the channel pore then blocking the channel by stabilising its inactive state
‣ Also block other ion channels
‣ Needs to be in its ionised form (protonated) to do this –> the axoplasm is more acidic favouring this anyway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Is local anaesthetic action concentration dependent?

A

Yes, decrease in amplitude of action potential is concentration dependent, and if enough are blocked the membrane does not reach threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What state do the LA stabilise

A

Inactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What states can a sodium channel be in?

A

Open
Inactive
Resting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does phasic block refer to?

A

Property of LA

  • They preferentially bind to the channel in its open state, stabilising it in the inactive state
    ◦ This gives rise to use-dependent block (PHASIC block), where repeated stimulation of the axon makes more open channels available, and increases the blockade effect.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the term for block that i use dependent in LA

A
  • They preferentially bind to the channel in its open state, stabilising it in the inactive state
    ◦ This gives rise to use-dependent block (PHASIC block), where repeated stimulation of the axon makes more open channels available, and increases the blockade effect.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Differential block means what?

A
  • Differential block
    ◦ They preferentially affect pain and temperature fibres (“Differential block”), possible because they are largely unmyelinated (C-fibres); but also autonomic neurotramission with motor block only at HIGH concentrations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What afferents do local anaesthetics primarily affect?

A
  • Differential block
    ◦ They preferentially affect pain and temperature fibres (“Differential block”), possible because they are largely unmyelinated (C-fibres); but also autonomic neurotramission with motor block only at HIGH concentrations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Potency of local anaesthetics is related to?

A

◦ Correlated to lipid solubility - tissue distribution and vasodilator properties determine amount of clocal anaesthetic available
‣ e.g. vasodilation at low concentrations (prilocaine > lidocaine > bupivocaine > ropivocaine) - vaso constrcti at high concentrations.
◦ Ineffective in infected tissue as acidic environment reduced unionised fraction and increased vascularity removes drug from area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Duration of action of a local anaesthetic agent is related to?

A

Protein binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Onset of action of a local anaesthetic is related to?

A

◦ Related to pKa - high pKa have more in the ionised form and cannot penetrate the nerve as quickly, and the inverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the structure of a local anaesthetic 3

A

Lipophilic aromatic ring - essential to anaesthetic activity

Hydrophilic amine group - allows ionisation and water soluble. Alkalyl substitutions make for larger molecules adn more lipid solubility = higher potency

Intermediate chain linkage - ester or amide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Distirbution and protein binding for local anaestheteics

A

◦ Highly protein bound e.g. lignocaine bound to both albumin and alpha 1 acid glycoprotein (bupivocaine and ropivocaine also >95% bound)
‣ Free fraction reduced when lots of protein e.g. pregnancy, MI, renal failure, post op, infancy
‣ Note if foetus becomes acidotic then there will be increased local anaesthetic accumulation there (ion trapping); esters do not cross the placenta in significant amounts
◦ Vd 0.9L/kg for lignocaine and 2.7L/kg for prilocaine (the largest)
◦ Esters minimally bounds
◦ Amide protein binding: bupicacaine > ropivacaine > lidocaine > prilocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the two subclasses of local anaesthetics? 3 examples of each

A

Amides - lignocaine, ropivocaine, bupivocaine
Esters - cocaine, procaine, amethocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What structurally is differnent between esters and amides

A
  • Esters have an ester intermediate chain
  • e.g.

Amides have an amino intermediate chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Metabolism and clearance for esters

A

◦ Plasma esterases rapidly degrade via hydrolysis e.g. prilocaine <10 minutes to para-aminobenzoate which has been associated with hypersensitivity reactions
◦ Cocaine the exception undergoing a hepatic metabolism by amidases
◦ Additionally also has a shorter shelf life as esters degrade more easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Metabolism and clearance of amides

A
  • Metabolism and clearance
    ◦ longer halflives
    ◦ cleared by the liver - lignocaine has active metabolites - reduced hepatic blood flow or hepatic dysfunction markedly reduces clearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

LA toxicity affects which 2 systems things primarily

A

CNS
CV
Methaemoglobinaemia in prilocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which more commonly occurs in local anaesthetic toxicity - CNS or CV

A

CNS at lower doses
Usually 1:3 dose relationhip
Bupivocaine has a reduced ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the phases of CNS toxicity for local anaesthetic agents

A

◦ At lower doses: (inhibitory interneurons blocked)
‣ Visual disturbances (resembling nystagmus) - objects oscillate
‣ Perioral numbness
‣ Lightheaded, tinnitus
◦ At increasing doses: all neurons blocked
‣ Slurred speech
‣ Incoherent conversation
‣ Confusion and decreased level of consciousness
◦ With very large doses:
‣ Seizures - as inhibitory neuronal activity is suppressed
‣ Coma with EEG features of non-convulsive status or burst suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cardiovascular toxicity of local anaesthetics

A

◦ Lower dose effects are sympathomimetic:
‣ Hypertension
‣ Vasoconstriction
‣ Tachycardia
◦ With increasing doses cardiodepression occurs and vasoconstriction changes to vasodilation
◦ Higher dose effects:
‣ Hypotension (systemic vasodilation)
‣ Bradycardia and heart block - spontaneous pacemaker activity prolonged
‣ Decreased VMax (prolonged 0 phase), QRS prolongation, QT shortened, arrhythmias, cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What patient risk factors increase the risk of local anaesthetic toxicity 6

A

◦ Acidosis
‣ Only the charged version can bind to voltage gated sodium channels - in intracellular acidosis more of them in active ionised state
‣ Acidosis also reduced protein binding increasing free drug
‣ Acidosis increases the partition coefficient of local anaesthetic to the myocardium
◦ Old age: slower clearance due to reduced hepatic blood flow, more cardiofragile
◦ Young age: lower α1-acid glycoprotein level, higher free fraction
◦ Pregnant patients: lower α1-acid glycoprotein level, better perfusion of blocked tissue therefore faster systemic washout
◦ Concomitant use of another antiarrhythmic
◦ Hyperkalemia (decreased toxic dose of agent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pharmacologcial factors increaase the change of local anaesthetic toxicity 5

A

◦ Dose (obviously) - dose to ideal no actual body weight
◦ Choice of agent (some drugs, eg. bupivacaine, have a lower CC/CNS ratio)
‣ The difference in the dose required to cause cardiac complications vs CNS
◦ Site of administration (eg. closer to large vessels, hyperaemic site, epidural)
‣ Increased risk of direct intravascular injection:
* Interscalene block
* intercostal
* Epidural
* Brachial plexus block
* Stellate ganglion block
* Intercostal nerve block
‣ Increased risk of rapid absorption:
* Scalp
* Bronchial mucosa
* Interpleural cavity
* Epidural
◦ Coadministration of vasoconstrictor (slows systemic absorption)
◦ Slower dissociation from sodium channels (eg. bupivacaine)
◦ Drug interactions:
‣ displacement from protein binding (eg. by phenytoin)
‣ decreased metabolism (eg. by cimetidine of amides)
‣ Delayed absorption - adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Management of locala anesthetic toxicity comes down to 3 factors

A

◦ Supportive
‣ Seizures - Benzos to raise seizure threshold
‣ Decreased GCS - intubated
‣ Cardiovascular collapse - supportive +/- ECMO
◦ Alkalinise or hyperventilate as binding is pH dependent
‣ Increase protein binding when alkalosis
‣ Decrease charged fraction (active and capable of binding sodium channels)
◦ Increase the distribution into lipid:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the dose for intralipid

A

‣ Give intralipid emulsion to increase lipid-bound fraction and decrease free fraction
* 1.5mL/kg IV over 1 minute then continuous infusion 0.25mL/kg/minute
◦ Bolus can be repeated and infusion doubled if resistance
◦ Maximum dose over first 30 minutes 10mL/.kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the MOA for intralipid (4)

A
  • Lipid sink - highly lipid soluble LA moelcules absorbed into intralipid reducing free fraction
    ◦ Tissue extraction because free fraction drops decreased CNS and CVS
    * Lipid shuttle - deliver anaesthetic to the liver enhancing rate of elimination
    * Metabolic changes in mycoardium - increased fatty acid reverses LA reduced reduction in FFA metabolism in mitochondria, providing energy substrate
    * May prevent Na channel inhibition
    * Inoconstrictor - inhibits NO release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Give the 2 classes of classical antipsycotics and 2 examples of each

A
  • Phenothiazines
    ◦ CHlorpramazine
    ◦ Prochlorperazine
  • Butyrophenones
    ◦ Haloperidol
    ◦ Droperidol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a phenothiazine

A

1st Gen classical antipsychotic
Chlorpromazine and prochloperazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a butyrophenone?

A
  • 1st Gen antipsyhotic
  • Butyrophenones
    ◦ Haloperidol
    ◦ Droperidol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Atypical or second generation antipsychotics include?

A
  • Olanzapine
  • Quetiapine
  • Risperidone
  • Aripiprazole
37
Q

Action in general of antipsychotics by?

A
  • Central dopamine (typically D2, but varies with agent) antagonism
    ◦ Responsible for the antipsychotic properties
38
Q

Secondary actions of antispychotics relate to which systems 4

A
  • 5-HT2 antagonism
  • Other receptors which are quantitatively less important:
    ◦ H1 antagonism
    ◦ α1 antagonism
    ◦ Muscarinic ACh antagonism
39
Q

How is the MOA slightly different generally between 1st and 2nd generation antipsyhcotics

A
  • Typical or 1st generation antipsychotics
    ◦ Higher affinity for D2 receptors (subsequently less blockade of 5-HT2), causing a greater effect on ‘positive’ symptoms’ and a greater incidence of extrapyramidal side effects
  • Atypical or 2nd generation, which typically have fewer motor effects
    ◦ Have greater effect on negative symptoms.
40
Q

Which seratonin receptor is implicated in antipsychotic use

A

5HT2

41
Q

General pharmacokinetic rules for antipscyhotics

A
  • Well absorbed
  • Large first pass effect - oral bioavailability 10-70%
  • Large Vd 10-20L/kg
  • Most are >90% protein bound
  • Metbaolised in the liver - many having active metabolites
  • Metabolites renally excreted

Pharmacodynamics

42
Q

Pharmacoynamics for antipsychotics

A
  • D2 receptor blockade in the mesolimbic symptoms controlling positive symptoms of psychosis
  • Seratonin recpeotr actvity managing negative symptoms in newer antipsychotics
43
Q

Side effects of antipsychotics
- 3 systems with 3 things each

A

Cardiac
1. QTc prolongation
2. Hypotension, postural esp
3. Tachycardia anticholinergic
Neuro
1. Sedative
2. EPS
3. Seizure threshold reduced
Hormonal
- Increased weight gain - DM
- Increased chlosterol
- Increased prolactin

44
Q

What EPS side effects do antipsychotics cause

A

◦ Dystonia - involuntary muscle spasm involving facial muscles
◦ Oculogyric crisis - arched back and eyes rolled back
◦ Akasthesia - restless
◦ Rigidity and parkinsons - months to develop
◦ Tardive dyskinesia with prolonged Tx - involuntary movements more pronounced, irreversible, worsen if therapy stopped, occuring with use for >10 years

45
Q

Why does the Qtc interval get longer for antipsychotics

A

as they block the delayed rectifer currents responsible for phase 3 of the acrtion potential

46
Q

How would you classify antiepileptics?

A
  • Ion channel modulation (altered RMP, stabilised AP associated channesl, inhibiting Ca influx prevneting neurotransmitter release)
    ◦ Pottasium channels - Retigabine
    ◦ Calcium channels
    ‣ Ethosuxamide
    ‣ Gabapentin
    ‣ Pregabalin
    ‣ Zonisamide
    ◦ Na channels
    ‣ Phenytoin
    ‣ Carbamazapine
    ‣ Lacosamide
    ‣ Lamotrigine
    ‣ Rufinamide
    ‣ Sodium valproate
    ‣ Topiramate
  • GABA potentiators
    ◦ GABA A - Benzo, barbituates, clobazam
    ◦ GABA reuptake - tiagabine
    ◦ GABA catabolism - Sodium valproate
  • Presynaptic neurotranmitter release modulators - SV2A - Levetiracetam
  • Post synpatic inhibitors of neurotransmission
    ◦ AMPA - parampanel, topiramate
    ◦ NMDA - ketamine, sodium valproate, magnesium

Phenytoin

47
Q

What antiepileptics affect Ca channels 4

A
  • Ion channel modulation (altered RMP, stabilised AP associated channesl, inhibiting Ca influx prevneting neurotransmitter release)
    ◦ Pottasium channels - Retigabine
    ◦ Calcium channels
    ‣ Ethosuxamide
    ‣ Gabapentin
    ‣ Pregabalin
    ‣ Zonisamide
    ◦ Na channels
    ‣ Phenytoin
    ‣ Carbamazapine
    ‣ Lacosamide
    ‣ Lamotrigine
    ‣ Rufinamide
    ‣ Sodium valproate
    ‣ Topiramate
  • GABA potentiators
    ◦ GABA A - Benzo, barbituates, clobazam
    ◦ GABA reuptake - tiagabine
    ◦ GABA catabolism - Sodium valproate
  • Presynaptic neurotranmitter release modulators - SV2A - Levetiracetam
  • Post synpatic inhibitors of neurotransmission
    ◦ AMPA - parampanel, topiramate
    ◦ NMDA - ketamine, sodium valproate, magnesium

Phenytoin

48
Q

What antiepiletocis affect Na channels? 6

A
  • Ion channel modulation (altered RMP, stabilised AP associated channesl, inhibiting Ca influx prevneting neurotransmitter release)
    ◦ Pottasium channels - Retigabine
    ◦ Calcium channels
    ‣ Ethosuxamide
    ‣ Gabapentin
    ‣ Pregabalin
    ‣ Zonisamide
    ◦ Na channels
    ‣ Phenytoin
    ‣ Carbamazapine
    ‣ Lacosamide
    ‣ Lamotrigine
    ‣ Rufinamide
    ‣ Sodium valproate
    ‣ Topiramate
  • GABA potentiators
    ◦ GABA A - Benzo, barbituates, clobazam
    ◦ GABA reuptake - tiagabine
    ◦ GABA catabolism - Sodium valproate
  • Presynaptic neurotranmitter release modulators - SV2A - Levetiracetam
  • Post synpatic inhibitors of neurotransmission
    ◦ AMPA - parampanel, topiramate
    ◦ NMDA - ketamine, sodium valproate, magnesium

Phenytoin

49
Q

What antiepileptics affect GABA
- 3 mechanisms each with an agent

A
  • Ion channel modulation (altered RMP, stabilised AP associated channesl, inhibiting Ca influx prevneting neurotransmitter release)
    ◦ Pottasium channels - Retigabine
    ◦ Calcium channels
    ‣ Ethosuxamide
    ‣ Gabapentin
    ‣ Pregabalin
    ‣ Zonisamide
    ◦ Na channels
    ‣ Phenytoin
    ‣ Carbamazapine
    ‣ Lacosamide
    ‣ Lamotrigine
    ‣ Rufinamide
    ‣ Sodium valproate
    ‣ Topiramate
  • GABA potentiators
    ◦ GABA A - Benzo, barbituates, clobazam
    ◦ GABA reuptake - tiagabine
    ◦ GABA catabolism - Sodium valproate
  • Presynaptic neurotranmitter release modulators - SV2A - Levetiracetam
  • Post synpatic inhibitors of neurotransmission
    ◦ AMPA - parampanel, topiramate
    ◦ NMDA - ketamine, sodium valproate, magnesium

Phenytoin

50
Q

Preynsaptic neurotransmitter release is inhibited by which antiepuileptics

A
  • Ion channel modulation (altered RMP, stabilised AP associated channesl, inhibiting Ca influx prevneting neurotransmitter release)
    ◦ Pottasium channels - Retigabine
    ◦ Calcium channels
    ‣ Ethosuxamide
    ‣ Gabapentin
    ‣ Pregabalin
    ‣ Zonisamide
    ◦ Na channels
    ‣ Phenytoin
    ‣ Carbamazapine
    ‣ Lacosamide
    ‣ Lamotrigine
    ‣ Rufinamide
    ‣ Sodium valproate
    ‣ Topiramate
  • GABA potentiators
    ◦ GABA A - Benzo, barbituates, clobazam
    ◦ GABA reuptake - tiagabine
    ◦ GABA catabolism - Sodium valproate
  • Presynaptic neurotranmitter release modulators - SV2A - Levetiracetam
  • Post synpatic inhibitors of neurotransmission
    ◦ AMPA - parampanel, topiramate
    ◦ NMDA - ketamine, sodium valproate, magnesium

Phenytoin

51
Q

Post synaptic inhibitors of neurotransmission is regulated by which two receptors in antiepileptics? What are examples of drugs in each class?

A
  • Ion channel modulation (altered RMP, stabilised AP associated channesl, inhibiting Ca influx prevneting neurotransmitter release)
    ◦ Pottasium channels - Retigabine
    ◦ Calcium channels
    ‣ Ethosuxamide
    ‣ Gabapentin
    ‣ Pregabalin
    ‣ Zonisamide
    ◦ Na channels
    ‣ Phenytoin
    ‣ Carbamazapine
    ‣ Lacosamide
    ‣ Lamotrigine
    ‣ Rufinamide
    ‣ Sodium valproate
    ‣ Topiramate
  • GABA potentiators
    ◦ GABA A - Benzo, barbituates, clobazam
    ◦ GABA reuptake - tiagabine
    ◦ GABA catabolism - Sodium valproate
  • Presynaptic neurotranmitter release modulators - SV2A - Levetiracetam
  • Post synpatic inhibitors of neurotransmission
    ◦ AMPA - parampanel, topiramate
    ◦ NMDA - ketamine, sodium valproate, magnesium

Phenytoin

52
Q

Absorption of antidepressatns

A
  • All of these drugs are only available in oral formulation
  • The vast majority of them are well absorbed enterically
    ◦ The exceptions are duloxetine, which is degraded by stomach acid, and sertraline, which is absorbed very slowly
  • Most have excellent oral bioavailability (except agomelatine and selegiline)
53
Q

Distribution of antidepressants

A

Wide
Large protein binding except venlafaxine

54
Q

Metabolism and excretion of antidepressants

A
  • All undergo extensive hepatic metabolism
  • Many have active metabolites (selegiline, fluoxetine, citalopram, bupropion, TCAs)
55
Q

MAOI MOA

A
  • MAOIs bind to monoamine oxidase and inhibit the catabolism of monoamines, increasing their synaptic effect
    ◦ This also increases the systemic availability of catecholamines, which can give rise to hypertensive crises
56
Q

SSRIs inhibit

A
  • SSRIs inhibit SERT, the serotonin reuptake protein
    ◦ This can result in serotonin syndrome in the presence of other serotonergic or monoamine agonist drugs
57
Q

SNRIs inhibit

A
  • SNRIs inhibit NET, the noradrenaline reuptake protein
58
Q

What does mirtazepine affect

A
  • Mirtazapine and mianserin target presynaptic α-adrenoceptors and histamine receptors in the CNS, increasing the synaptic release of noradrenaline
    ◦ The antihistamine effect leads to sedation
59
Q

TCAs act via what mechanisms

A
  • TCAs act by at least five different mechanisms, of which two are SNRI and SSRI like effects, and the others consist of the inhibition of α-adrenoceptors, histamine receptors and muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
    ◦ Antihistamine-like sedation, postural hypotension, and anticholinergic side effects, as well as sodium channel blockade in overdose
60
Q

Classify antidepressants

A

Classifying antidepressants
* MAO - mono amine oxidase inhibitors
◦ A1 - irreversible and non selective - phenelzine
◦ A1b - irreversible and selective - selegiline (MAO B)
◦ A1c - Reversible and selective - Moclobemide
* Reuptake inhibitors
◦ SSRI - sertraline, fluoxetine, citalopram, paroxetine, fluvoxamine
◦ SNRI - DUloxetine, venlafaxine
◦ Noradrenaline/dopamine reuptake inhibitors - Bupropion
* Alpha 2 receptor antagonists
◦ Mirtazepine
* Multimodal
◦ Noradrenergic - mianserine
◦ Noradrenergic/sertonergic/anticholinergic - TCA (Amitrptyiline)
* Non monoaminergic - melatonin agonsits - agomelatine
* Unclassifiable
◦ Amphetamines
◦ Steriods
◦ Ketamine

61
Q

Terminal half life of propofol?

A

Terminal elimination t1/2 of propofol: Variable reports from 2-24 hours (5-12 in Peck Hill and Williams), possibly longer – needed to express that it is lengthy and measured in hours from this range

62
Q

pH and PKa of thiopental

A

pH 11

pKa 7.5

63
Q

Vd and PPB of thiopental

A

2L/kg
80%

64
Q

Additives to thiopentone

A

Sodium bicarbonate

65
Q

Propofol pH and PkA

A

pH 8

pKa 11

66
Q

Vd and PPB of propofol

A

4L/kg
98% protein bound

67
Q

Additives to Propofol

A

10% soybean oil
2.5% glycerol
1.25% egg phosphatide
NaOH
EDTA

68
Q

Ketamine pH and pKa

A

pH 4
pKa 7.5

69
Q

Vd and PPB for ketamine

A

3L/kg
25% protein bound

70
Q

Clearance of ketamine vs propofol

A

Propofol 30-60ml/kg/min
Ketamine 15ml/kg/min

71
Q

Additives to ketamine

A

HCl
Na benzothonium

72
Q

Nerve sensitivity to LA blockade

A

Nerve sensitivity to LA blockade: B > Aδ > C > Aγ > Aβ > Aα

73
Q

pKa of lignocaine

A

7.9

74
Q

Protein binding of ligocaine

A

70%

75
Q

Vd of lignocaine

A

1L/kg

76
Q

Ropivocaine and Bupivocaine pKa and protein binding?

A

8.1
95%

77
Q

Potency of Ropivocaine and Bupivacaine in comparisone to lignocaine

A

Ropivocaine 3x potency
Bupivocaine 4x potency

(lignocaine is 2x more potent than the base procaine that is used for comparison)

78
Q

Vd of suxamethonium?

A

0.2L/kg

79
Q

Vd of pancruonium

A

0.2L/kg

80
Q

Vd of rocuonrium

A

0.2L/kg

81
Q

Atricurium Vd

A

0.2L/kg

82
Q

Which muscle relaxant has the longest duration of action? WHy?

A

Pancruonium

10% hepatic metabolism
80% renal clearance

83
Q

How is pancuronium cleared form the body? How is it metabolised? How important is metabolism to its clerance?

A

10% hepatic metabolism
80% renal clearance unchanged

84
Q

Rocuronium clearance? Degree of metabolisM?

A

Hepatic 15%
50% unchnaged - 40% bile, 10% renal

85
Q

Vecuronium metabolisma nd clearance

A

60% hepatically metabolised
20% renally unchanged
20% biliary unchanged

86
Q

Keppra pharmacokinetics

A

100% bioavailable
Small to moederate Vd 0.5L/kg
Mainly in total body water
Miniaml protein binding
Minimal metabolism and likely non hepatic
70% unchanged in urine

87
Q

Keppra side effects

A

Pregnancy category C with minor foetal skeletal abnormalities in rate studies
Agitation, aggregsion, somnolence, reduced LOC< respiratory depression

Haemodialsyis clears 50% in 4 hours

88
Q
A