Cardiac non table drugs Flashcards

Inotropes vasopressors Summary of cardiac pharm inc. antiarryhthmics

1
Q

Classify the inotrope agents (5)

A

Direct sympathomimetics
Indirect sympathomimetics
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
Clacium sensitisers
Cardiac glycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the 2 subclasses of direct sympathomimeitcs and indirect sympathomimeitcs providing MOA

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What non sympathomimetic inotropes are there? Describe their mechanisms

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give the properties of an ideal inotrope
- Pharmaceutics 3
Pharmacokinetics 5
Pharmacodynamics 5
Safety
2

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dobutamine vs milronone
- CLass
- Chemistry
- Route of adminsitration
- Solubility and pKa

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dobutamine vs milronone pharmacokinetics

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MOA and effect dobutamine vs milronone

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 4 reasons arrhythmias occur? Describe the mechanism? What drugs might therefore work

A
  • Abnormal automaticity
    ◦ where some normal tissue becomes overexcited and decides to become a pacemaker, or existing pacemakers make pace in some disorganised or abnormal manner.
    ◦ To treat
    ‣ Of normal pacemakers –> Anything that reduces the slope of phase4 of those cells e.g. calcium and beta blockers
    ‣ Non pacemaker tissue –> beta blockade by reducing resting potential voltage of the membrane
  • Early afterdepolarisations
    ◦ triggered depolarisations which occur during Phase 3, and which are promoted by anything which prolongs the repolarisation
  • Late afterdepolarisations
    ◦ triggered depolarisations which occur during Phase 4, and which are promoted by anything that might increase the intracellular calcium
    ◦ Catecholamines or calcium are the tissue –> therefore beta blockers and calcium channel blockers address this
  • Reentry
    ◦ where acton potential re-excites a patch of myocardium shortly after it has already depolarised, either because of some anatomical shortcut or because of an abnormally short refractory period
    ◦ Abnormally short refractory period –> Prolong by class 1a and class 3 agents
    ◦ As for abnormal conducting pathways - slowing conduction using class 1c agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does abnormal automaticity occur? (2) What can be done to prevent each

A
  • Abnormal automaticity
    ◦ where some normal tissue becomes overexcited and decides to become a pacemaker, or existing pacemakers make pace in some disorganised or abnormal manner.
    ◦ To treat
    ‣ Of normal pacemakers –> Anything that reduces the slope of phase4 of those cells e.g. calcium and beta blockers
    ‣ Non pacemaker tissue –> beta blockade by reducing resting potential voltage of the membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Earyl afterdepolarisations occur because of?

A
  • Early afterdepolarisations
    ◦ triggered depolarisations which occur during Phase 3, and which are promoted by anything which prolongs the repolarisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Late afterdepolarisation occur because of? How to prevent it 2

A
  • Late afterdepolarisations
    ◦ triggered depolarisations which occur during Phase 4, and which are promoted by anything that might increase the intracellular calcium
    ◦ Catecholamines or calcium are the tissue –> therefore beta blockers and calcium channel blockers address this
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a re-entry circuit? How might you abort each

A
  • Reentry
    ◦ where acton potential re-excites a patch of myocardium shortly after it has already depolarised, either because of some anatomical shortcut or because of an abnormally short refractory period
    ◦ Abnormally short refractory period –> Prolong by class 1a and class 3 agents
    ◦ As for abnormal conducting pathways - slowing conduction using class 1c agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Classify Vaughan Williams anti-arrhtyhmics?

A
  • Class I: fast sodium channel blockers i.e. interfere directly with depolarisation
    ◦ Class Ia: prolong the action potential (eg. quinidine)
    ◦ Class Ib: shortens the action potential (eg. lignocaine)
    ◦ Class Ic: no effect on the action potential (eg. flecainide)
  • Class II: Beta-blockers (eg. metoprolol) - antisympathetic
  • Class III: Potassium channel blockers (eg. sotalol and amiodarone) - prolong the duration of the action potential
  • Class IV: calcium channel blockers (eg. verapamil and diltiazem)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What effect do the subclasses of Vaughan Williams 1 antiarrhtyhmics have on the action potential

A
  • Class I: fast sodium channel blockers i.e. interfere directly with depolarisation
    ◦ Class Ia: prolong the action potential (eg. quinidine)
    ◦ Class Ib: shortens the action potential (eg. lignocaine)
    ◦ Class Ic: no effect on the action potential (eg. flecainide)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you reduce pacemaker automaticity

A
  • Reduction of pacemaker automaticity: agents which decrease the calcium currents in pacemaker cells, i.e. Class II and Class IV agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you reduce abnormal automaticity

A
  • Reduction of abnormal automaticity: agents which decrease the membrane resting potential in ventricular myocytes, i.e. mainly Class II agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you stop or reduce early afterdepolarisations 2

A

agents which reduce the action potential and repolarisation duration, i.e. Class II and Ib agents
◦ Some agents actually increase early afterdepolarizations by delaying repolarisation
◦ These are the same agents that prolong the QT interval (i.e. Class Ia and Class III agents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do you reduce delayed afterdepolrisations 3

A

◦ Agents which decrease the availability of intracellular calcium (i.e. Class II and IV agents)
◦ Agents which decrease the availability of intracellular sodium (i.e. Class I agents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What agents slow AVN conduction 4

A

◦ Agents which slow AV nodal conduction (i.e. adenosine, digoxin, Class II and Class IV agents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What afents slow velocity of conduction

A

◦ Agents which slow the velocity of conduction (i.e. Class Ia and Ic agents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What afgents increase the refractory period

A

◦ Agents which increase the refractory period (i.e Class III, Ia and Ic agents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Class 1 agents bind to what? When do they bind to this

A

Class 1 agents
* All have local anaesthetic effects
* All bind to a site in the pore of the Nav1.5 subunit of the fast voltage-gated sodium channel
* All prefer to bind to open or inactivated sodium channels (though slowly dissociating class 1c drugs remain bound even when the channels return to their resting state)
* Effects are more pronounced in ischaemic tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does a class 1 agent affect each of the aetiologies of arrhthmias

A
  • Automaticity of normal pacemakers
    ◦ Will remain normal on class 1 agent - phase 4 of normal pacemaker cells does in fact depend on sodium currents (funny current targeted by ivabradine) but distinct from the voltage gated fast ones.
    ‣ Class 1 agents may somehow affect phase 4 but this is debated - flecainide appears to assist with rhythm control for AF by mechanisms unknown.
  • Automaticity of non pacemaker tissue
    ◦ should also remain unchanged but decreases but by uncertain mechanisms as these drugs are used for VT and VF
  • Early afterdepolarisations - can increase with class 1 gents particularly 1a which prolong repolaristion therefore risk of polymorphic VT
  • Late afterdepolarisations - should decrease with sodium channel blockade as decreased intracellular sodium for sodium/calcium exchanger so less intracellular calcium available (and this is what is responsible for this phenomenon). However these agents to do not appear to help with this
  • Re-entry - most effective - by decreasing velocity of conduction AP propogation is slowed along abnormal conducting pathways preventing re-entrant tachycardias (class 1c ideal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Draw an action potential for each class 1 agent

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the 3 states of a sodium channel

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What i the refractory period of cardiac conduction tissue

A

250-350msec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How is the refractory period in cardiac conduction tissue caused

A

Inactivation of sodium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What effect do class 1 antiarrhtyhmics have on cardiac conducting tissuerefractory period

A
  • Class 1a agents increase the effective refractory period - action potential is longer
  • Class 1c agents have no effect on the effective refractory period of anything except AV node and atrial muscle where it is prolonged.
  • Class 1b agents shorten the effective refractory period by shortening the duration of the overall action potential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do class 1 drgus affect the ECG

A

Class Ia drugs prolong both the QRS and QT
Class Ib drugs have no effect on the QRS, and slightly shorten the QT.
Class Ic drugs markedly prolong the QRS, and have minimal effect on QT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is use dependence and describe how it occurs and what aegnts it effects

A
  • Tendancy for class 1 agents to favour ianctvie sodium channels and to dissociate slowly makes them more effective at faster HR
    ◦ Observe: each time the channel opens, block develops, and then gradually un-develops during diastole. Ergo, the shorter your diastole, the less block you lose between beats, and the more potent the block which affects the next beat. This is manifested as an increase in QRS duration which occurs with tachycardia.
    ◦ On the other hand, if the drug dissociates extremely rapidly from the sodium channels, its activity will again be unaffected by heart rate. Even with a preposterously short diastole, most of the drug will be gone from the active site long before the next systole - which means tachycardia will not do anything to change the effectiveness of the block.
    ◦ Extremely slowly dissociating drugs (Class Ic agents such as flecainide) should be the most affected by use dependence, and their effect should be amplified considerably by a fast heart rate.
    ◦ Moreover, for drugs with use-dependence, the QRS prolongation effect should increase with the duration of the tachycardia, as more and more drug molecules end up trapped at the effect site because frequent systoles prevent them from dissociating.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Electrochemical actions of class 1 a

A
  • Class Ia: prolong the action potential (eg. quinidine)
    ◦ Prolongs the duration of the action potential (mainly by their potassium channel blocker effects); prolong the QT interval and QRS complex because of a longer Phase 0
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Electrochemical actions of class 1b

A
  • Class Ib: shortens the action potential (eg. lignocaine)
    ◦ No effect on the duration of Phase 0 (do not prolong the QRS); shorten the QT interval
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Class 1 c electrochemical actions

A
  • Class Ic: no effect on the action potential (eg. flecainide)
    ◦ Prolong Phase 0 more than other subclasses; have little effect on the duration of the action potential and therefore do not prolong the QT interval
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Non vaughan williams anti-arrhtyhmics

A

Non-VW agents:
* Agents which slow AV nodal conduction (i.e. adenosine, digoxin)
* Physiological membrane stabilisers (magnesium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Class 2 Vaughan willaims drugs

A

Class II: Beta-blockers (eg. metoprolol)
* Increase IK1 inward rectifier potassium current and reduce other currents;
* Lower resting membrane potential, reduce action potential duration, promote rapid repolarisation in Phase 3, decrease AV node conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Class 2 Vaughan willaims drugs electrochmical action

A

Class II: Beta-blockers (eg. metoprolol)
* Increase IK1 inward rectifier potassium current and reduce other currents;
* Lower resting membrane potential, reduce action potential duration, promote rapid repolarisation in Phase 3, decrease AV node conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Class 3 electrochemical actions

A

Class III: Potassium channel blockers (eg. sotalol and amiodarone)
* Block Ikr, Iks and Ik1 currents which are responsible for Phase 3 of the cardiac action potential
* Increase the duration of the refractory period and of the action potential as a whole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Class 4 electrochemical actions

A

Class IV: calcium channel blockers (eg. verapamil and diltiazem)
* decrease the rate of Phase 0 rise in pacemaker cells
* shorten repolarisation by decreasing the duration of Phase 2
* decrease AV node conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Beta 1 selective beta bloickers

A

◦ Atenolol
◦ metoprolol
◦ Bisoprolol
◦ Nebivolol
◦ Esmolol
◦ Sotalol (also blocks potassium channels)

AM NEB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Combined beta and alpha beta blocker

A

labetalol, carbedilol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Non selective beta blocker

A

propanolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Class 2 effect on
- Depolarisation rate (phase 0)
- Conduction velocity
- AP duration
- PR duration
- QRS duration
- QTc duration
- Effective refractoyr period
- Automaticity
- Dissocation rate

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Beta blocker vs phase 0 of action potential

A
  • an unchanged slope of Phase 0
    ◦ Fast voltage gated sodium channels largely unaffected except by propanolol which does decrease the slope by 30%
    ◦ HOWEVER - 2 studies found that the slope of phase 0 is affected by beta inhibition therefore it is possible for the QRS to widen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

beta blocker vs conduction velcoity

A
  • decreased conduction velocity through specialised conducting tissue e.g. AV node
    ◦ Myocyte conduction velocity is unaffected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

beta blocker vs effective refractory period

A
  • decreased effective refractory period
    ◦ The Stoerling table from which the table on the right is derived suggests this is the case however other resources suggest it is increased
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Beta blocker vs action potential duration

A

ncreased action potential duration
◦ reduce calcium entry preventing earlier repolarisation - phase 2 is prolonged and phase 3 begins later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Beta blocker vs action potential duration

A

increased action potential duration
◦ reduce calcium entry preventing earlier repolarisation - phase 2 is prolonged and phase 3 begins later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Beta blocker vs QTc duration

A
  • Decreased QTc duration - prolong at slow rates and shorten at faster rates, promoting L type calcium channel inactivation (reverse of beta agonists which delay L type calcium channel inactivation prolonging QTc)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

beta blocker vs automaticity

A
  • decreased automaticity
    ◦ of normal pacemakers as catecholamines are one the main stimulants of this phenomenon - they do this by lowering the resting membrane potential during phase 4
    ◦ Reduce appearance of VEB by lowering resting membrane potential preventing automaticity in non pacemaker tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Beta blocker vs early and late afterdepolarisations

A
  • Decreased early afterdoparisations because repolarisation time is reduced counteracting pro-arrhtyhmic effects of class 3 agents
  • Late afterdopalarisations are realted to intracellular calciume xcess and improve due to the anti-catecholamine actions of beta blockers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Re-entry vs beta blockers

A
  • Re-entry is unaffected as myocyte conduction velocity is largely unchanged except for AV nodal re-entry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Draw and describe the effect of a beta blocker on an ECG

A

Corresponding ECG thereofre
* Longer PR interval
* Shorter QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does a class 3 antiarrhthmics do

A

◦ Prolongs repolarisation by interfering with inward rectifier and outward delayed rectifier potassium currents increasing refractory period and action potential as a whole
◦ In short, these drugs mainly block Ikr, Iks and Ik1 currents which are responsible for Phase 3 of the cardiac action potential. Class III drugs are not unique in the effect, as there are many other drugs which interfere with this current (notably, macrolide antibiotics and antipsychotic drugs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What occurs with rapid infusion of amiodarone

A

‣ Hypotension due to decreased contractility (polysorbate 80)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Acute use amiodarone effects

A

Class 2 and 4 effects - delayed AVN conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Chornic use of amiodarone causes what class of effects
- How does it affect repolarisation
- QTc duraiton
- AP
- re0entry
- Earyl afterdpolarisation
- QRS

A

◦ With chronic use, Class Ia and Class III effects
‣ Prolonged repolarisation and QTC duration
‣ Prolonged action potential duration
‣ Decreased reentry, as the result of this
‣ Increased risk of early afterdepolarisations
‣ Minimal effect on QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Draw a AP for someone on amiodarone

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Effect of class 3 agents on autoamticity

A

◦ Automaticity of normal pacemakers unchanged with pure potassium blockade but as beta blocker effects seen in sotalol and amiodarone rate slowing occurs
◦ Abnormal autoamaticity of non pacemaker tissue - increased early afterdopalarisations due to prolonged repolarisation but counteracted by beta blockade in sotalol/amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Effect of class 3 agents on early afterdpolarisations

A

◦ Automaticity of normal pacemakers unchanged with pure potassium blockade but as beta blocker effects seen in sotalol and amiodarone rate slowing occurs
◦ Abnormal autoamaticity of non pacemaker tissue - increased early afterdopalarisations due to prolonged repolarisation but counteracted by beta blockade in sotalol/amiodarone

61
Q

Effect of class 3 agents on late afterdepoalrisations

A

Unaffected

62
Q

R

A
63
Q

Re-entry vs class 3 agents

A

Decreased due to prolonged effective refractory period

64
Q

Amiodarone side effects
- 4 major system
- 4 minor system
- Pharmacokinetic
- Toxicity

A
  • Cardiac:
    ◦ Bradycardia (5%)
    ◦ Torsades de pointes (<1%)
    ◦ Hypotension with rapid IV administration (due to polysorbate 80)
  • Pulmonary
    ◦ Pulmonary fibrosis (1.6%)
  • Dermatological
    ◦ Photosensitivity (25-75%)
    ◦ Blue skin discolouration (<10%)
  • Ophthalmic
    ◦ Corneal deposits and cataracts (100%)
    ◦ Optic neuritis (<1%)
  • Thyroid
    ◦ Wolff-Chaikoff effect: iodine-induced hypothyroidism (1-23%)
    ◦ Hyperthyroidism can also occur (1-32%)
  • Hepatic
    ◦ LFT derangement (15%)
    ◦ Hepatitis and cirrhosis (<3%)
  • Neurological
    ◦ Ataxia, tremor, peripheral neuropathy
    ◦ Sleep and memory disturbances
  • Urogenital
    ◦ Epididymitis
  • Pharmacokinetic
    ◦ By binding to albumin and other protein, amiodarone can displace other highly protein-bound drugs, and increase their free fraction (increasing their effect)
    ◦ INhibitor of P glycoprotein an efflux pump for eliminiatino of digoxin - leading to digoxin levels being raised
    ◦ Inhibitor of CYP3A4 impairing clearance of
    ‣ Warfarin
    ‣ Atorvastatin and simvastatin
    ‣ Flecainide
    ‣ Phenytoin
    ‣ Cyclosporin
  • Obstetric
    ◦ Penetrates the placenta, causing iodine overload and hypothyroidism of the foetus, causing neurodevelopmental abnormalities
    ◦ Excreted into breast milk
65
Q

What effect do class 4 agents have on
- Conduction velocity
- Effective refractory period
- QT interval
- AP

A

◦ No effect on conduction velocity of normal tissues, but AV nodal slowing occurs
◦ No effect on effective refractory period
◦ No effect on QT interval
◦ Decreased action potential duration according to CICM source - but others vary and it is uncertain

66
Q

How does a class 4 agent affect the 4 types of arrhythmias

A

◦ Decreased autoamaticity of normal pacemakers as decreased rate of rise of phase 0 of pacemaker cells (L type calcium channels)
◦ Abnormal automaticity of non pacemaker tissue unchanged as less reliant on calcium channels
◦ Early afterdepolarisations - reduced as this is mainly related to prolonged repolarisation and calcium channel blockers shorten duration of phase 2
◦ Later after depolarisations are reduced
◦ Re-entry unaffected except for AV nodal

67
Q

Digoxin effects (2)

A
  • Digoxin and the other cardiac glycosides mainly exert their antiarrhythmic effects by a vagomimetic action on the AV node, where they slow the conduction of action potentials.

By increasing the availability of intracellular calcium, digoxin may lead to an increased risk of late afterdepolarisations. Other than that, it has no real positive effect on the arrhythmogenesis of ventricular myocardium

◦ By inhibiting conducting tissue NaK-ATPase, digoxin alters the action potential by, (according to a CICM text that is probably wrong)
68
Q

How does digoxin affect the cardiac action potential

A

Perhaps more correctly
* The whole action potential duration decreases (Ruch et al 2003)
* Phase 0 can be either shortened or lengthened (Hordof et al, 1978); most textbooks seem to think it is lengthened.
* Phase 1 is shortened (Woodbury & Hecht, 1952).
* Phase 2 is shortened the most (Woodbury & Hecht, 1952).
* Phase 3 is lengthened (Woodbury & Hecht, 1952).
* Phase 4 slope is increased in pacemaker tissues (Hordof et al, 1978) and in Purkinje fibres (Rosen et al, 1975), increasing their automaticity.

69
Q

When is magnesium useful for arrhtymias? How does it work?

A
  • Magnesium has antiarrhythmic properties which are most pronounced in those arrhythmias where the mechanism involves early or delayed afterdepolarisations. It can be classified along with Class III and Class IV agents, as its effects are mainly involved in decreasing the duration of repolarisation by acting as an antagonist of potassium and calcium currents (Fazekas et al, 1993). By the same effect, it counteracts the depolarisation of pacemaker tissues, like a calcium channel blocker.
70
Q

What is an inotrope

A

Increases myocardiac contractility by increased velcoity and force of myocardial fibre shortening

71
Q

What is a vasopressor

A

vasoconstriction leading to increased systemic or pulmonary vascular resistance (increased BP) e.g. noradrenaline, vasopressin, metaraminol, methylene blue (i.e. mimic sympathetic nervous system)
* All produce an increase in IC calcium in vascular smooth muscle which is mediated through:
◦ Alpha receptor stimulation
◦ Raise IC calcium concentration by a non-alpha receptor mechanism
◦ Raising extracellular calcium concentration

72
Q

Sympathomimetic is

A

exert effects via adrenoreceptors or dopamine receptors either directly (via receptors) or indirectly (stimulate NA release)

73
Q

SNS comes off where in the spine

A

T1 - L2

74
Q

Describe the pre and post ganglionic nervous structure of the NSS

A

◦ preganglionic nerve cells
‣ arise from lateral horns T1-L2–> primary anterior rami –> rami communicates –> sympathetic chain
‣ release ACh to stimulate post ganglionic cells (nicotinic receptor) - in the sympathetic chain at the same level, a different level of leaving through splanchnic nerves to a prevertebral ganglion
◦ post ganglionic cells can be
‣ unmyelinated pass into adjacent spinal nerve via grey rami communicates
‣ Adrenergic –> release norepinephrine
* Special circumstance –> adrenal medulla which has preganglionic nerves directly synapsing with chramoffin cells which secrete adrenaline (80%) into the blood stream in response to ACh stimulation
‣ Cholinergic –> sweat glands, vasodilator blood vessels in skeletal muscle

75
Q

Describe the pre and post-ganglionic nervous structure of the SNS
- Where they arise form
- Myelintion
- Transmitters used
- Receptors

A

◦ preganglionic nerve cells
‣ arise from lateral horns T1-L2–> primary anterior rami –> rami communicates –> sympathetic chain
‣ release ACh to stimulate post ganglionic cells (nicotinic receptor) - in the sympathetic chain at the same level, a different level of leaving through splanchnic nerves to a prevertebral ganglion
◦ post ganglionic cells can be
‣ unmyelinated pass into adjacent spinal nerve via grey rami communicates
‣ Adrenergic –> release norepinephrine
* Special circumstance –> adrenal medulla which has preganglionic nerves directly synapsing with chramoffin cells which secrete adrenaline (80%) into the blood stream in response to ACh stimulation
‣ Cholinergic –> sweat glands, vasodilator blood vessels in skeletal muscle

76
Q

Alpha receptors
- Found ?
- Stimulation leads to?

A

Post synaptic
Stimulation
Vasoconstriction

77
Q

MOA of alpha receptors

A

‣ MOA –> Gprotein (Gq) –> Pjospholipase C –> IP3 + DAG –> Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum and increased calcium sensitivity

78
Q

Alpha 2 receptors
- Where are they found?
- What is their effect in each loaction?

A

both presynaptic and post synaptic
‣ Release of NA from presynaptic terminal activates alpha 2 receptor to inhibit the further release of noradrenaline (i.e. negative feedback), post junctional alpha 2 receptors are also located on reistsnace and capacitance vessels which mediate vasoconstriction
‣ Inhibit adenylate cyclase production –> reduce cAMP concentration

79
Q

Alpha 1 vs alpha 2
- Duration of action
- onset time
- Sensitivity to pH and temperature
- Relationship with AT2
- Central role

A

Alpha 2
* The effects of activation of these differ from alpha 1
◦ Slower in onset
◦ Longer lastic
◦ More sensitive to pH and temperature change
◦ Can also be affected by AT2
◦ Central affects lower sympathetic outflow (postulated mechanism for clonidine)
‣ Also causes sedation and analgesia

80
Q

Myocardiac beta receptor proportions

A

85% Beta 1
15% beta 2

81
Q

Where else other than the myocardium do you find beta 1 receptors

A

platelets

82
Q

Alpha 1 vs alpha 2
- Duration of action
- onset time
- Sensitivity to pH and temperature
- Relationship with AT2
- Central role

A

Alpha 2
* The effects of activation of these differ from alpha 1
◦ Slower in onset
◦ Longer lastic
◦ More sensitive to pH and temperature change
◦ Can also be affected by AT2
◦ Central affects lower sympathetic outflow (postulated mechanism for clonidine)
‣ Also causes sedation and analgesia

83
Q

Beta 1 selective beta bloickers

A

◦ Atenolol
◦ metoprolol
◦ Bisoprolol
◦ Nebivolol
◦ Esmolol
◦ Sotalol (also blocks potassium channels)

AM NEB

83
Q

Alpha 2 receptors
- Where are they found?
- What is their effect in each loaction?

A

both presynaptic and post synaptic
‣ Release of NA from presynaptic terminal activates alpha 2 receptor to inhibit the further release of noradrenaline (i.e. negative feedback), post junctional alpha 2 receptors are also located on reistsnace and capacitance vessels which mediate vasoconstriction
‣ Inhibit adenylate cyclase production –> reduce cAMP concentration

84
Q
A
85
Q
A
86
Q

Beta 1 activation leads to?

A

‣ Activation increased cAMP which alters cellular function –> phosphorylation of voltage sensitive calcium channels inmyocrdium (increase calcium influx across the sarcolemma) –> increased isotropy

87
Q

What is cAMP broken down to?

A

5AMP

88
Q

Beta 2 receptors found where 4
Cause

A

‣ Bronchi, vascular smooth muscle, uterus and heart –> relaxation of smooth muscle (GPCR –> increased cAMP –> increased Na/K activity and hyper polarisation)

89
Q

Dopamine receptors respond to?

A

Catecholamine
Dopamine

90
Q

Alpha 2 receptors
- Where are they found?
- What is their effect in each loaction?

A

both presynaptic and post synaptic
‣ Release of NA from presynaptic terminal activates alpha 2 receptor to inhibit the further release of noradrenaline (i.e. negative feedback), post junctional alpha 2 receptors are also located on reistsnace and capacitance vessels which mediate vasoconstriction
‣ Inhibit adenylate cyclase production –> reduce cAMP concentration

90
Q

What is cAMP broken down to?

A

5AMP

90
Q

Alpha 1 vs alpha 2
- Duration of action
- onset time
- Sensitivity to pH and temperature
- Relationship with AT2
- Central role

A

Alpha 2
* The effects of activation of these differ from alpha 1
◦ Slower in onset
◦ Longer lastic
◦ More sensitive to pH and temperature change
◦ Can also be affected by AT2
◦ Central affects lower sympathetic outflow (postulated mechanism for clonidine)
‣ Also causes sedation and analgesia

90
Q

Beta 1 selective beta bloickers

A

◦ Atenolol
◦ metoprolol
◦ Bisoprolol
◦ Nebivolol
◦ Esmolol
◦ Sotalol (also blocks potassium channels)

AM NEB

91
Q

Where do you find dopamine receptors

A

CNS, renal, splanchnic, coronary

92
Q

Dopamine 1 receptor causes

A

post synaptic on sympathetic nerve –> stimulation leads to vasodilation of renal, mesenteric, coronary and cerebral vessels + sodium excretion

93
Q

Dopamine 2 receptor leads to

A

◦ DA2 –> pre-synaptic –> activation inhibits release of noradrenaline (like alpha 2) + produces nausea and vomiting + reduced pituitary hormone release

94
Q

Pure alpha 1 action causes 3

A

◦ Vasoconstriction - arterioles of heart, brain, kidneys, lungs, skeletal muscle, skin
◦ Mydriasis
◦ Inhibition of insulin release

95
Q

Pure beta 1 action causes

A

◦ Heart - increased contractility, tachycardia (SA node rate), increased AV conduction velocity, reduced refractor period
◦ Increased glycogenlysis and adipose tissue lipolysis

96
Q

pure beta 2 action causes

A

asodilation - skeletal muscle
◦ Bronchial relaxation
◦ Uterine relaxation (if pregnant)
◦ Hypokalaemia - sodium/potassium pump potentiation

97
Q

Structural elements of a catecholamine

A

Catechold ring - benzene ring with 2 hydroxyl groups
Ethylamine tail

98
Q

How many hydroxyl groups on a catecholamine ring

A

2 conventionally at 3,4 position of a benzene ring

99
Q

What effect does dropping a hydroxyl group off the benzene ring of a catecholamine have?

A

Increased lipid soliubility
Increased potency 10 fold
Prevents COMT metabolism prolonging duration

100
Q

What effect does dropping both hydroxyl groups off a catecholamine ring have?

A

◦ Losing both hydroxyl groups decreases the potency 100-fold - maximum potency occurs when separation of the hydroxy groups and ethyl amine groups is maximal.
‣ Changing the hydroxyl groups to the 3 and 5 position increases beta-2 selectivity when there is also a large substitution present on the amine group
‣ Losing both hydroxyl groups however reduces COMT metabolism nd increased oral bioavailability (the same applies to a lesser extent with one hydroxyl group loss) although become indirectly acting agents (no direct action)

101
Q

Why is the benzene ring important to catecholamine action

A

Improves central actions without decreasing beta or alpha ctions

102
Q

What does the ethylamine tail of a catecholamine contain

A

Beta carbon - first carbon
Alpha carbon - 2nd carbon
Amine group

103
Q

What effect do the alpha and beta carbons have on catecholamines

A

‣ Beta carbon - The first carbon.
* Adding a hydroxyl group decreases lipid solubility andCNSpenetration
* Adding any group increases both alpha and beta selectivity
‣ Alpha carbon - The second carbon.
* Adding a group prevents metabolism by MAO, prolonging duration of action –> ephedrine or amphetamines
* Methylation increases indirect activity

104
Q

What function does the terminal amine group have on catecholamines?

A

mine group - The terminal nitrogen.
* Addition of a methyl group generally increases beta selectivity
As the chain length increases, so does the beta selectivity; conversely the same applies when it gets shorter to increasing alpha activity

105
Q

What are the catecholamines

A

adrenaline
* noradrenaline
* dopamine
* dobutamine
* isoprenaline
* dopexamine

106
Q

What is cAMP broken down to?

A

5AMP

106
Q

Alpha 1 vs alpha 2
- Duration of action
- onset time
- Sensitivity to pH and temperature
- Relationship with AT2
- Central role

A

Alpha 2
* The effects of activation of these differ from alpha 1
◦ Slower in onset
◦ Longer lastic
◦ More sensitive to pH and temperature change
◦ Can also be affected by AT2
◦ Central affects lower sympathetic outflow (postulated mechanism for clonidine)
‣ Also causes sedation and analgesia

106
Q

Beta 1 selective beta bloickers

A

◦ Atenolol
◦ metoprolol
◦ Bisoprolol
◦ Nebivolol
◦ Esmolol
◦ Sotalol (also blocks potassium channels)

AM NEB

107
Q

Alpha 2 receptors
- Where are they found?
- What is their effect in each loaction?

A

both presynaptic and post synaptic
‣ Release of NA from presynaptic terminal activates alpha 2 receptor to inhibit the further release of noradrenaline (i.e. negative feedback), post junctional alpha 2 receptors are also located on reistsnace and capacitance vessels which mediate vasoconstriction
‣ Inhibit adenylate cyclase production –> reduce cAMP concentration

108
Q

Beta 1 selective beta bloickers

A

◦ Atenolol
◦ metoprolol
◦ Bisoprolol
◦ Nebivolol
◦ Esmolol
◦ Sotalol (also blocks potassium channels)

AM NEB

108
Q

What is cAMP broken down to?

A

5AMP

108
Q

Alpha 2 receptors
- Where are they found?
- What is their effect in each loaction?

A

both presynaptic and post synaptic
‣ Release of NA from presynaptic terminal activates alpha 2 receptor to inhibit the further release of noradrenaline (i.e. negative feedback), post junctional alpha 2 receptors are also located on reistsnace and capacitance vessels which mediate vasoconstriction
‣ Inhibit adenylate cyclase production –> reduce cAMP concentration

108
Q

Alpha 1 vs alpha 2
- Duration of action
- onset time
- Sensitivity to pH and temperature
- Relationship with AT2
- Central role

A

Alpha 2
* The effects of activation of these differ from alpha 1
◦ Slower in onset
◦ Longer lastic
◦ More sensitive to pH and temperature change
◦ Can also be affected by AT2
◦ Central affects lower sympathetic outflow (postulated mechanism for clonidine)
‣ Also causes sedation and analgesia

109
Q

Alpha 1 vs alpha 2
- Duration of action
- onset time
- Sensitivity to pH and temperature
- Relationship with AT2
- Central role

A

Alpha 2
* The effects of activation of these differ from alpha 1
◦ Slower in onset
◦ Longer lastic
◦ More sensitive to pH and temperature change
◦ Can also be affected by AT2
◦ Central affects lower sympathetic outflow (postulated mechanism for clonidine)
‣ Also causes sedation and analgesia

109
Q

Alpha 2 receptors
- Where are they found?
- What is their effect in each loaction?

A

both presynaptic and post synaptic
‣ Release of NA from presynaptic terminal activates alpha 2 receptor to inhibit the further release of noradrenaline (i.e. negative feedback), post junctional alpha 2 receptors are also located on reistsnace and capacitance vessels which mediate vasoconstriction
‣ Inhibit adenylate cyclase production –> reduce cAMP concentration

109
Q

Beta 1 selective beta bloickers

A

◦ Atenolol
◦ metoprolol
◦ Bisoprolol
◦ Nebivolol
◦ Esmolol
◦ Sotalol (also blocks potassium channels)

AM NEB

109
Q

What is cAMP broken down to?

A

5AMP

110
Q

Beta 1 selective beta bloickers

A

◦ Atenolol
◦ metoprolol
◦ Bisoprolol
◦ Nebivolol
◦ Esmolol
◦ Sotalol (also blocks potassium channels)

AM NEB

110
Q

Alpha 1 vs alpha 2
- Duration of action
- onset time
- Sensitivity to pH and temperature
- Relationship with AT2
- Central role

A

Alpha 2
* The effects of activation of these differ from alpha 1
◦ Slower in onset
◦ Longer lastic
◦ More sensitive to pH and temperature change
◦ Can also be affected by AT2
◦ Central affects lower sympathetic outflow (postulated mechanism for clonidine)
‣ Also causes sedation and analgesia

110
Q

What is cAMP broken down to?

A

5AMP

110
Q

Alpha 2 receptors
- Where are they found?
- What is their effect in each loaction?

A

both presynaptic and post synaptic
‣ Release of NA from presynaptic terminal activates alpha 2 receptor to inhibit the further release of noradrenaline (i.e. negative feedback), post junctional alpha 2 receptors are also located on reistsnace and capacitance vessels which mediate vasoconstriction
‣ Inhibit adenylate cyclase production –> reduce cAMP concentration

111
Q

Atropine derived from where? Chemical structure?

A

Alkaloid from Atropa Belladona - a tertiary amine

112
Q

Atropine chemically prepared as?

A

Tertiary amine as the ester of tropic acid and tropine - comes as a racemic mixture of D and I hyoscyamine (I form active)

113
Q

MOA of atropine

A

An anticholinergic acting by competitive antagonism of acetylcholine at muscurinic receptors

Minimal action at nicotinic receptors except at high doses

114
Q

Atropine presentation

A

Clear colourless solution for injectino containing 0.5 or 0.6mg/mlatropine sulfate

Also as a tablet 0.6mg

115
Q

Routes of adminsitration fo atropine

A

IM, IV
Oral

116
Q

Dose of atropine in adults

A

0.015-0.02mg/kg in adults

3mg needed for complete vagal block in adults

117
Q

Atropine effects

A

Cardiovascular - low doses produces an initial bradycardia followed by tachycardia, little effect on BP. Decreases AV condution time and may produce arrhtyhmias.

Respiration - bronchodilation and increases dead space, reduces secretions, RR increased, reduced laryngospasm

CNS - either excitation or depression - if centrala nticholinergic syndrome somnolence, confusion, amnesia, hallucinations, ataxis, dysarthria

Antiemetic
Antiparkinsonian

Reduces salivations, gastric secetions and perisalsis. Antispasmodic. Reduces lower oesophageal tone

Cucloplegia, mydriasis and increased IOP

BMR increased and sweating inhibited
Suppresses ADH secretion

118
Q

Toxicity of atropine

A

Dry mouth
Anticholinergic syndrome
urnary retention
Gluacoma if ocular adminitration (not in IV or IM)

119
Q

Absorption of atropine

A

rapidly absorbed from gut, bioavailability 20%

120
Q

Distribution of atropine

A

50% protein bound
2-4L/kg Vd
Cross placenta and BBB

121
Q

Metabolism fo atorpine

A

Hydrlysed in liver and tissue to tropine and tropic acid

122
Q

Excretion fo atropine

A

94% in urine within 24 hours uncahnged, clearance 70L/hr and half life 2.5 hours

123
Q

Atropine derived from where? Chemical structure?

A

Alkaloid from Atropa Belladona - a tertiary amine

124
Q

Atropine chemically prepared as?

A

Tertiary amine as the ester of tropic acid and tropine - comes as a racemic mixture of D and I hyoscyamine (I form active)

125
Q

MOA of atropine

A

An anticholinergic acting by competitive antagonism of acetylcholine at muscurinic receptors

Minimal action at nicotinic receptors except at high doses

126
Q

Atropine presentation

A

Clear colourless solution for injectino containing 0.5 or 0.6mg/mlatropine sulfate

Also as a tablet 0.6mg

127
Q

Routes of adminsitration fo atropine

A

IM, IV
Oral

128
Q

Dose of atropine in adults

A

0.015-0.02mg/kg in adults

3mg needed for complete vagal block in adults

129
Q

Atropine effects

A

Cardiovascular - low doses produces an initial bradycardia followed by tachycardia, little effect on BP. Decreases AV condution time and may produce arrhtyhmias.

Respiration - bronchodilation and increases dead space, reduces secretions, RR increased, reduced laryngospasm

CNS - either excitation or depression - if centrala nticholinergic syndrome somnolence, confusion, amnesia, hallucinations, ataxis, dysarthria

Antiemetic
Antiparkinsonian

Reduces salivations, gastric secetions and perisalsis. Antispasmodic. Reduces lower oesophageal tone

Cucloplegia, mydriasis and increased IOP

BMR increased and sweating inhibited
Suppresses ADH secretion

130
Q

Toxicity of atropine

A

Dry mouth
Anticholinergic syndrome
urnary retention
Gluacoma if ocular adminitration (not in IV or IM)

131
Q

Absorption of atropine

A

rapidly absorbed from gut, bioavailability 20%

132
Q

Distribution of atropine

A

50% protein bound
2-4L/kg Vd
Cross placenta and BBB

133
Q

Metabolism fo atorpine

A

Hydrlysed in liver and tissue to tropine and tropic acid

134
Q

Excretion fo atropine

A

94% in urine within 24 hours uncahnged, clearance 70L/hr and half life 2.5 hours