Neuro exam 14 Nov Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the autonomic nervous system?

A

It regulates involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, breathing rate, digestion, and arousal responses (fight, flight, freeze).

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2
Q

What are the primary components regulated by the autonomic nervous system?

A

Heart rate, breathing rate, vasodilation, digestion, saliva production, eye function, facial expressions, body temperature, and neuro-endocrine responses.

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3
Q

What is sensory processing?

A

Sensory processing involves how the brain receives, interprets, and integrates sensory information from the environment.

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4
Q

What types of stimuli do sensory systems respond to?

A

Mechanical (touch, pressure), visual (light), thermal, chemical (odors, tastes), electrical, and magnetic stimuli.

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5
Q

What is Sensory Processing Disorder (SPD)?

A

A condition where the brain struggles to receive and respond appropriately to sensory information, affecting daily functioning and emotional regulation.

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6
Q

What are the types of Sensory Processing Disorders?

A
  1. Sensory Modulation Disorder (over/under-reactivity)
  2. Sensory Discrimination Disorder (difficulty distinguishing stimuli)
  3. Sensory-Based Motor Disorder (motor coordination issues).
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7
Q

What is range fractionation in sensory processing?

A

A process where different receptors detect varying segments of a stimulus range, allowing for sensitivity to different intensities.

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8
Q

How does adaptation occur in sensory receptors?

A

Adaptation is the decrease in responsiveness of a receptor to a constant stimulus over time, helping to prevent sensory overload.

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9
Q

What is the role of receptor fields in sensory perception?

A

Receptive fields are specific areas where sensory receptors detect stimuli, influencing the resolution and sensitivity of sensory perception.

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10
Q

What is the significance of topographic organisation in the brain?

A

It refers to the spatial arrangement of sensory inputs in the sensory cortex, allowing for precise localisation of sensory information.

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11
Q

What are the key structures of the human eye involved in vision?

A

Cornea, pupil, lens, vitreous humor, retina (rods and cones), bipolar cells, ganglion cells, and optic nerve.

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12
Q

How do photoreceptors transduce light into chemical reactions?

A

Photoreceptors (rods and cones) convert light into electrical signals through a series of chemical reactions, ultimately altering the release of neurotransmitters to bipolar cells.

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13
Q

How does the eye function under different light intensities?

A

Rods are specialized for low light (scotopic) vision, while cones are optimized for bright light (photopic) conditions, allowing the eye to adjust based on light levels.

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14
Q

How does the visual system create brightness?

A

Brightness perception is created by comparing the responses of cones sensitive to different wavelengths (short, medium, long) and through overall stimulation of photoreceptors.

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15
Q

What is the pathway of a neural signal from the retina to the brain?

A

Retina -> optic nerve -> optic tract -> thalamus (LGN) -> primary visual cortex -> dorsal (where) and ventral (what) streams.

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16
Q

How does the Royal Society for the Blind (RSB) support individuals with vision impairment?

A

The RSB provides services and support for people with vision impairment, employing occupational therapists to maximize function and engagement in daily activities.

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17
Q

Where are rods and cones located in the retina?

A

Rods are found in the peripheral retina, while cones are concentrated in the fovea (central part of the retina).

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18
Q

What is the impact of stroke on vision?

A

Approximately one-third of stroke survivors experience some form of vision loss, and occupational therapists assist in rehabilitation and adaptation to visual changes.

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19
Q

What is the difference in response time and acuity between rods and cones?

A

Rods have low acuity and slower response times, while cones have high acuity and faster response times.

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20
Q

Outline the transduction pathway of light in the eye.

A

Light → cornea → pupil → lens → vitreous humor → retina → rods/cones → bipolar cells → ganglion cells → optic nerve → optic tract → thalamus → occipital lobe → primary visual cortex.

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21
Q

What is sound?

A

Sound is a form of energy produced by vibrating objects, propagated through mediums like air or water, characterized by vibration, sound waves, frequency, amplitude, and wavelength.

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22
Q

What are the key properties of sound waves?

A

Frequency: Cycles per second (Hz), determines pitch (higher frequency = higher pitch).
Amplitude: Height of the wave, determines loudness (larger amplitude = louder sound).
Wavelength: Distance between consecutive compressions or rarefactions in a sound wave.

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23
Q

Describe the anatomy of the ear.

A

The ear consists of three parts:

Outer Ear: Pinna and ear canal, collects sound waves.
Middle Ear: Eardrum and ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes), transmits vibrations to the inner ear.
Inner Ear: Cochlea and hair cells, converts vibrations into electrical signals for the brain.

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24
Q

What is the process of auditory pathways to the brain?

A
  1. Sound waves enter the outer ear and vibrate the eardrum.
  2. Vibrations are transmitted through the ossicles to the oval window.
  3. Fluid movement in the cochlea stimulates hair cells, generating electrical signals.
  4. Signals travel via the auditory nerve to the brainstem.
  5. Signals are relayed to the primary auditory cortex in the temporal lobe for interpretation.
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25
Q

What are the types of hearing loss?

A
  1. Conductive Hearing Loss: Problems in outer/middle ear; e.g., ear infections, fluid.
  2. Sensorineural Hearing Loss: Damage to hair cells or auditory nerve; often irreversible (aging, noise).
  3. Neural Hearing Loss: Damage to auditory nerve/brain pathways.
  4. Central Hearing Loss: Issues in brain’s auditory processing, affecting sound interpretation.
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26
Q

What role do hair cells play in hearing?

A

Hair cells in the cochlea convert mechanical vibrations from sound into electrical signals. They are critical for detecting sound and are sensitive to damage, leading to sensorineural hearing loss.

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27
Q

Describe the vestibular system’s role in balance.

A

The vestibular system consists of semicircular canals and otolith organs, which detect head movements and orientation. It sends signals to the brain to help maintain balance and coordinate movements.

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28
Q

How do sound intensity and decibels (dB) relate?

A

Sound intensity is expressed in decibels (dB), a logarithmic scale measuring sound pressure. The human ear can detect sounds from 0 dB (threshold) to 120-130 dB, with sounds above 90 dB potentially causing inner ear damage.

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29
Q

What is the significance of the external ear?

A

The external ear collects sound waves and channels them to the tympanic membrane (eardrum), which vibrates in response to sound, marking the first step in sound transduction.

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30
Q

Explain the concept of sound waves and their cycles.

A

Sound waves are pressure waves that consist of compressions and rarefactions. A single alternation of compression and rarefaction is one cycle, characterized by properties like amplitude and frequency, impacting perceived sound.

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31
Q

What is the process of sound wave transduction in the ear?

A

Sound waves enter the ear through the pinna, travel down the ear canal to the cochlea, stimulating hair cells in the fluid. These hair cells create electrical impulses that travel along the auditory nerve to the brain, where they are interpreted as sound.

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32
Q

What are the different types of sensory receptor organs?

A
  1. Photoreceptors: Rods (night vision, low light) and Cones (color vision).
  2. Mechanoreceptors: Meissner’s (light touch), Pacinian (deep pressure), Merkel (sustained pressure), Ruffini (skin stretch).
  3. Thermoreceptors: Cold and warm receptors.
  4. Nociceptors: A-delta fibers (sharp pain) and C fibers (dull pain).
  5. Chemoreceptors: Olfactory (smell), gustatory (taste), internal chemoreceptors (blood chemistry).
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33
Q

What is the concept of labelled lines?

A

Each sensory modality has a dedicated neural pathway. When a receptor is activated, it sends signals through specific neurons to designated brain areas (e.g., visual pathway via optic nerve, pain pathway via spinothalamic tract).

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34
Q

Name the tactile receptors in the skin and their properties.

A

Meissner’s Corpuscles: Light touch, fast-adapting.
Pacinian Corpuscles: Deep pressure, fast-adapting.
Merkel Discs: Light touch, slow-adapting.
Ruffini Endings: Skin stretch, slow-adapting.

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35
Q

Outline the pain pathways to the brain.

A

Activation: Nociceptors detect stimuli.
Transmission: Signals travel via A-delta and C fibers to the spinal cord.
Processing: Signals are relayed to the thalamus and then to the cortex (somatosensory and emotional areas).

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36
Q

How can pain be modulated?

A
  1. Pharmacological: NSAIDs, opioids, antidepressants.
  2. Physical: Physical therapy, heat/cold therapy.
  3. Psychological: Cognitive-behavioral therapy, relaxation techniques.
  4. Neuromodulation: Spinal cord stimulation, TMS.
  5. Gate Control Theory: Non-painful stimuli inhibit pain signal transmission.
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37
Q

Briefly outline the pain cycle.

A

Initial Injury: Tissue damage activates nociceptors.
Pain Perception: Signals transmitted and processed by the brain.
Behavioral Response: Protect the injured area.
Chronic Pain Development: Persistent pain alters nervous system sensitivity and processing.

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38
Q

What is nociception?

A

Nociception is the neural feedback mechanism that responds to noxious stimuli, such as heat, cold, mechanical force, and chemical stimulation, resulting in pain perception.

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39
Q

What are the two pathways for pain transmission?

A
  1. Spinothalamic Pathway: Nociceptors near the skin surface transmit sharp, well-localized pain to the thalamus.
  2. Reticulothalamic Pathway: Nociceptors in deeper tissues transmit dull, poorly localized pain via the reticular formation to the thalamus.
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39
Q

Describe the difference between acute pain and neuropathic pain.

A

Acute Pain: Short-term response to tissue damage.
Neuropathic Pain: Results from nerve damage, often causing shooting or burning sensations, numbness, and tingling.

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40
Q

Describe the components of the reflex arc.

A

The reflex arc includes:

Sensory receptor
Sensory neuron
Integrating center (spinal cord)
Motor neuron
Effector (muscle or gland)

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40
Q

How do muscle spindles function?

A

Muscle spindles consist of afferent fibers that send signals to the spinal cord when a muscle is stretched. The brain interprets this information to coordinate muscle responses.

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41
Q

What are some benefits of touch?

A

Touch can improve bonding, decrease stress, lower heart rate/blood pressure, reduce muscle tension, lessen depression and anxiety, relieve pain, and enhance immune function.

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42
Q

What are the two types of proprioceptive receptors?

A
  1. Muscle Spindles: Monitor muscle length and speed of stretch.
  2. Golgi Tendon Organs: Monitor muscle tension and prevent overload.
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43
Q

What role do Golgi tendon organs play?

A

Golgi tendon organs detect tension in muscles, inhibiting motor neurons when tension is too high to prevent injury.

44
Q

What is a stretch reflex?

A

A monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching. It is ipsilateral, meaning sensory and motor signals travel on the same side of the body.

44
Q

What is a flexor (withdrawal) reflex?

A

A polysynaptic reflex that causes the contraction of multiple muscle groups to withdraw a limb from danger. It involves intersegmental reflex arcs.

45
Q

List the levels of motor control in the body.

A
  1. Skeletal system and muscles
  2. Spinal cord
  3. Brainstem
  4. Primary motor cortex
  5. Non-primary motor cortices
  6. Other brain regions (cerebellum, basal ganglia, thalamus)
45
Q

What are the classifications of reflexes?

A
  1. Inborn Reflexes: Automatic responses (e.g., pulling hand away from heat).
  2. Learned Reflexes: Responses developed through experience (e.g., slamming brakes in an emergency).
46
Q

Why are reflexes important in occupational therapy?

A

Reflexes indicate nervous system health, influence safety in daily activities, and can be affected by aging and chronic conditions, impacting engagement in occupations.

47
Q

What types of muscles are involved in somatic and autonomic reflexes?

A

Somatic Reflexes: Involve skeletal muscles.
Autonomic Reflexes: Involve smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands.

48
Q

What role does the primary motor cortex (M1) play in movement?

A

Located on the precentral gyrus, M1 initiates movement commands, with representation mapped to body parts (homunculus). Hands and lips have large areas due to complex movements.

49
Q

Describe the non-primary motor cortex regions and their roles.

A

Supplementary Motor Area (SMA): Plans internally-generated movements (e.g., playing piano).

Premotor Cortex: Directs movements in response to external cues; contains mirror neurons for imitative learning.

50
Q

What are mirror neurons, and where are they located?

A

Mirror neurons, located in the premotor cortex, activate when observing a task, forming an internal motor representation, possibly aiding social learning and rehabilitation.

51
Q

What is Parkinson’s Disease, and what are its primary symptoms?

A

Parkinson’s is a basal ganglia disorder causing tremors, muscle tone loss, and motor movement difficulty due to dopamine deficiency from the substantia nigra.

51
Q

What is the role of the cerebellum in movement?

A

The cerebellum coordinates movements through three divisions:

  1. Spinocerebellum: Modulates movement by sensing body position.
  2. Cerebrocerebellum: Plans complex movement patterns.
  3. Vestibulocerebellum: Manages balance, posture, and eye movement.
52
Q

Describe the basal ganglia’s role in movement.

A

The basal ganglia modulate movement by adjusting amplitude, direction, and initiation through a looped system involving the cerebral cortex and thalamus, essential for learned motor skills.

53
Q

Differentiate the pyramidal and extrapyramidal systems.
Back:

A

Pyramidal System: Controls voluntary movement, with tracts decussating in the medulla to affect the opposite body side.

Extrapyramidal System: Includes the basal ganglia and cerebellum, managing posture and coordination without medulla involvement.

54
Q

Describe Huntington’s Disease and its symptoms.

A

Huntington’s is a genetic disorder leading to neuron death in the brain, causing involuntary movements, cognitive decline, behavioral changes, and speech difficulties.

55
Q

What impact can spinal cord injury have on movement?

A

Movement impairment depends on injury location and severity, affecting voluntary and inhibitory messages, which can lead to interrupted or overactive reflexes.

56
Q

What is Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS), and what are its effects?

A

ALS causes motor neuron degeneration, leading to muscle atrophy, progressive paralysis, and worsening mobility due to loss of neuromuscular control.

57
Q

What is the difference between hormonal and neuronal communication?

A

Hormonal: Hormones travel through blood, acting far from release site; effects are slower but last longer.
Neuronal: Neurotransmitters act in synapses, close to release, with faster but brief effects

58
Q

What are hormones, and how are they produced?

A

Hormones are chemicals secreted by endocrine glands (e.g., pituitary, adrenal) within the body, traveling via the bloodstream to distant targets to regulate behavior and physiology.

59
Q

What are neuroendocrine cells?

A

Neuroendocrine cells combine neuronal and endocrine features, producing action potentials and releasing hormones at their axon terminals, often in response to synaptic input.

60
Q

Name and explain two principles of hormonal action.

A

Gradual Action: Hormones often act gradually, influencing behavior or physiology over time.
Multiple Effects: A hormone can affect various cells and behaviors depending on the receptors available.

61
Q

What is the role of the hypothalamus in hormonal regulation?

A

The hypothalamus regulates hormonal release, especially in the pituitary gland, translating brain activity into hormone action for body-wide effects.

62
Q

What hormones are released by the posterior pituitary, and what are their functions?

A

Oxytocin: Stimulates uterine contractions, milk release, and social bonding.
Vasopressin (ADH): Promotes water retention in kidneys, blood vessel constriction, and plays roles in memory and social behavior.

63
Q

Describe the adrenal glands and their functions.

A

Located above the kidneys, they secrete hormones for stress response, including glucocorticoids (e.g., cortisol) for metabolism and epinephrine/norepinephrine for fight/flight.

64
Q

What are the primary hormones of the thyroid gland, and what do they regulate?

A

The thyroid secretes hormones (thyroxine and triiodothyronine) that regulate gene expression, growth, and nervous system development, under control of the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary.

65
Q

What is the HPA axis, and what role does it play in the stress response?

A

HPA Axis: Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenocortical axis, which regulates cortisol release.

Process: Hypothalamus releases CRH → stimulates pituitary to release ACTH → ACTH prompts adrenal glands to produce cortisol, preparing the body to handle stress.

65
Q

How do hormones impact behavior and regulation in areas like stress, appetite, and puberty?

A

Hormones influence physiological responses (e.g., cortisol for stress), development (e.g., sex hormones for puberty), and regulatory behaviors (e.g., appetite through ghrelin and leptin).

65
Q

What is the pineal gland’s primary function and hormone?

A

The pineal gland, located above the brainstem, produces melatonin, regulating biological rhythms and sleep cycles by tracking light/dark changes.

66
Q

What is stress, and what is a stressor?

A

Stress: The body’s response to any demand or challenge that threatens homeostasis.

Stressor: A stimulus that disrupts homeostasis, activating the stress response, which can be adaptive or maladaptive.

66
Q

Describe the two types of stress responses.

A

Reactive: Physical and immediate response to a direct threat (internal stimuli).

Anticipatory: Emotional and cognitive response, involving hippocampus and amygdala, predicting stress based on past experience or sensory input.

67
Q

How does stress affect the immune system?

A

Short-term stress enhances immune alertness; long-term stress suppresses immunity, impairing disease resistance and healing.

Chronic cortisol elevation due to prolonged stress can decrease immune function and increase susceptibility to illness.

67
Q

What is allostatic load, and why is it significant?

A

Allostatic Load: The cumulative wear and tear on the body from chronic stress.

Impact: Can lead to high blood pressure, immune dysfunction, hormone imbalance, accelerated aging, and greater risk of degenerative diseases.

68
Q

Define psychoneuroimmunology and its connection to stress.

A

Psychoneuroimmunology: The study of interactions between the brain, nervous system, and immune system.

Stress Link: Stress hormones affect immune cells (e.g., lymphocytes), while immune system signals (cytokines) can influence brain activity and behavior.

69
Q

What are active and passive coping strategies?

A

Active Coping: Addressing stress proactively (e.g., problem-solving, planning, seeking support).

Passive Coping: Avoiding stressors without resolving them (e.g., denial, distraction, substance use).

70
Q

Why should occupational therapists understand the stress response?

A

Stress impacts health, behavior, and participation in daily activities.

OTs help manage stress, reduce allostatic load, and enhance coping skills to improve quality of life and engagement in meaningful activities.

71
Q

How can socioeconomic status affect allostatic load?

A

Lower SES is associated with higher allostatic load due to stress from factors like income, education, neighborhood, and social support.

Social disparities (e.g., race, gender) also influence stress levels and health outcomes.

71
Q

How do occupational therapists assist clients with coping?

A
  1. Assess coping skills and identify struggles.
  2. Set goals to enhance active coping strategies.
  3. Teach stress management and mindfulness techniques.
  4. Modify environments to reduce stressors and support positive habits.
71
Q

What role does the hippocampus play in memory?

A

The hippocampus is critical in transferring new knowledge into long-term memory.

72
Q

Describe the difference between short-term memory (STM) and long-term memory (LTM).

A

STM holds information briefly and relies on existing networks, with changes within the synapse. LTM stores information for longer periods, requiring structural changes to neural networks, becoming more robust over time through memory consolidation.

72
Q

What is the difference between learning and memory?

A

Learning is the acquisition of new information, while memory is the storage of that information. Learning and memory are inextricably linked, as one supports the other.

72
Q

What is synaptic plasticity, and how does it relate to memory?

A

Synaptic plasticity is the ability of synapses to strengthen or weaken over time, based on activity. This alteration is crucial for memory formation and can be physiological or structural.

73
Q

Define long-term potentiation (LTP) and its importance.

A

LTP is the process by which synaptic connections become stronger with repeated activation, particularly in the hippocampus, which is essential for long-term memory storage.

74
Q

How does sleep influence memory formation?

A

Sleep promotes the growth of neural dendrites, which strengthens the connections involved in learning and memory. Sleeping after learning can double dendrite growth compared to active learning alone.

74
Q

How do emotions and motivation affect learning?

A

Emotions can enhance attention and motivation, supporting learning through interactions in the amygdala, anterior cingulate, and orbitofrontal cortex.

75
Q

Explain the process of encoding, consolidation, and retrieval in memory formation.

A

Encoding is sensory information transfer to STM. Consolidation strengthens STM to LTM, and retrieval involves recalling information using multiple cognitive processes, like attention.

75
Q

What happens to memory and learning with age?

A

While age may affect some cognitive functions, neuroplasticity (brain adaptability) continues throughout life. “Use it or lose it” applies as dendrites that aren’t used may be pruned away.

76
Q

What are executive functions?

A

High-level cognitive processes that control and organize lower-level cognitive functions, including cognitive flexibility, planning, and inhibitory control. They enable goal-directed behavior and problem-solving.

77
Q

What role can OTs play in cases of post-concussion syndrome?

A

OTs help manage cognition, memory loss, and fatigue. They support visual function and provide strategies to assist with daily activities affected by memory and cognitive deficits.

78
Q

What is executive dysfunction?

A

It refers to difficulties in regulating cognitive skills due to issues in planning, judgment, and impulse control, commonly associated with disorders like ADHD, autism, and acquired brain injury.

78
Q

What role does the prefrontal cortex (PFC) play in executive function?

A

The PFC is crucial for executive functions, which include planning, regulating emotions, and inhibiting impulses. It continues developing until the mid-twenties, allowing for increased cognitive flexibility and self-control.

78
Q

Which factors negatively impact the development of executive functions (EF)?

A

Low socioeconomic status, adverse childhood events, occupational deprivation, and high stress levels, which elevate cortisol, can impair PFC function and EF development.

79
Q

What is cognitive flexibility?

A

The ability to shift attention or thinking between different tasks or concepts, allowing for adaptability in various situations.

80
Q

What is the role of the amygdala in emotional processing?

A

The amygdala is responsible for processing emotions, especially fear and aggression, and works closely with the prefrontal cortex to regulate emotional responses.

81
Q

Describe the relationship between executive function and emotional regulation.

A

Executive functions, managed by the PFC, play a key role in regulating emotions, helping to manage reactions and impulsive behaviors through inhibitory control.

81
Q

What is self-monitoring in executive function?

A

Self-monitoring is the ability to evaluate and regulate one’s own performance and behavior, adjusting actions to meet goals or correct errors.

82
Q

In which brain structure is long-term potentiation (LTP) most frequently studied?

A

LTP is primarily studied in the hippocampus, where repeated synaptic activation strengthens connections, supporting memory and learning.

82
Q

How can executive function be supported in children?

A

Through scaffolded practice, caregiver-child interactions that promote autonomy, and skills training in diverse contexts to ensure adaptability and transferability of EF skills.

83
Q

What is the role of social connection in stress regulation?

A

Social connection helps decrease baseline body “readiness,” allowing for more efficient stress monitoring and promoting co-regulation to maintain allostasis.

84
Q

How does secure attachment develop neurobiologically?

A

Through interactions between the medial prefrontal cortex (mPFC) and the amygdala, allowing a child to feel safe and secure through proximity-seeking behaviors and co-regulation from caregivers.

85
Q

What are the six foundational principles in developing social brain functions?

A

Self-relevance, joint engagement, predictability, categorization, discrimination, and integration are essential for early social brain development.

85
Q

How does social pain activate the brain similarly to physical pain?

A

Social pain, such as loneliness or rejection, activates the anterior cingulate cortex and insula, the same regions involved in processing physical pain.

86
Q

What is empathy, and how is it related to the concept of attunement?

A

Empathy is based in neural synchrony with others (attunement), including synchronized gaze, vocalization, heart rate, and hormone secretion, which helps people co-regulate each other’s physiological states.

87
Q

Describe the function of Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, and the arcuate fasciculus in language.

A

Broca’s area is responsible for planning speech movements, Wernicke’s area processes spoken and written words, and the arcuate fasciculus links these areas to enable clear speech and comprehension.

88
Q

What is the role of the medial prefrontal cortex (mPFC) in social interactions?

A

The mPFC is involved in self-relevance, processing theory of mind, and understanding communication directed at oneself. It also supports joint attention and social prediction.

89
Q

How does predictability support social skills?

A

Predictability allows us to anticipate others’ actions, which aids in social collaboration and competition. This involves predictive coding in the frontal and pre-motor cortex.

90
Q

What is the significance of categorization in social interactions?

A

Categorization, processed in the inferior temporal cortex, helps us quickly classify individuals, promoting faster social judgments and response efficiency.

91
Q

How do babies show a preference for social connection?

A

Infants are subcortically biased to pay attention to faces, voices, and the movement of people and animals over other stimuli, indicating an innate preference for social connection.