neuro disorders exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

cerebral blood flow is modulated by

A

CMR
-CPP
PaCO2
PaO2
drugs and pathologies

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2
Q

cerebral blood flow is _____/_____

A

50ml/100g of brain tissue

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3
Q

brain tissue, csf, and blood have a combined volume of ________

A

1200-1500ml

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4
Q

ICP should be

A

5-15mmHg

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5
Q

monroe kelly hypothesis

A

Monro-Kellie hypothesis: any increase in one component of intracranial volume must be offset by a decrease in another component to prevent an elevated ICP​

  • initially once the room runs out youl have an increase in ICP
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6
Q

when ICP increased the ___ will increase to keep CPP adequate

A

MAP

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7
Q

the cranial vault is compartmentalized why?

A

protective mechanism

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8
Q

flax cerebri

A

the falx cerebri: a reflection (fold) of dura that separates the two cerebral hemispheres​

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9
Q

WHat type of herniation are these symptoms describing?

pupillary dilatation, ptosis, and lateral deviation of the affected eye, brainstem compression and death​

A

Uncal herniation

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9
Q

tentorium cerebri

A

the tentorium cerebelli: a reflection of dura that lies rostral to the cerebellum and marks the border btw the supratentorial and infratentorial spaces​

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10
Q

Subfalcine herniation

A

pushes right to left or left to right

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11
Q

How do tumors increase intracranial pressure? 3 way

A

cerebral edema
size
obstructing CSF flow (around the third ventricle)

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12
Q

What things increase ICP? 4 things

A

tumors
hematomas
blood in the CSF
infections

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13
Q

How can we decrease ICP?

A

elevate head of bed
hyperventilation (decrease CO2 and cause vasoconstriction)
CSF drainage (EVD, ventric)
hyper-osmotic drugs
diuretics
corticosteroids (increase integrity of BBB and decrease swelling)
cerebral vasoconstriction (propofol)
surgical decompression

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14
Q

Subfalcine Herniation: Herniation of hemispheric contents under the_______; typically, compressing branches of the __________, creating a midline shift ​

A

falx cerebri
anterior cerebral artery

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15
Q

Transtentorial Herniation is a Herniation of the _______ contents past the ________ ______, causing brainstem compression in a rostral to caudal direction. This leads to AMS, defects in gaze and ocular reflexes, hemodynamic and respiratory compromise, and death​

A

supratentorial
tentorium cerebelli

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16
Q

Uncal Herniation is a subtype of _____ _____, where the uncus (medial portion of temporal lobe) herniates over the tentorium cerebelli. This results in ipsilateral oculomotor nerve dysfunction​

A

transtentorial herniation

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17
Q

Herniation of the cerebellar tonsils can occur due to elevated infratentorial pressure, causing the cerebellar structures to herniate through the _______

Sx: medullary dysfunction, cardiorespiratory instability and subsequently death​

A

foramen magnum

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18
Q

What is included in the neurological assessment?

A
  • look at history
  • what treatments have they had
  • review imaging
  • look at trends
  • drugs they are taking
  • risk and benefits of anesthetic options
  • are they up to date on seizure meds? steroids?
  • clear preop documentation and why you are chosing the anesthetic plan you are choosing
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19
Q

What is the onset of MS?

A

20-40

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20
Q

What is MS?

A

autoimmune demylination of central nerves

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21
Q

what are symptoms of MS?

A

weakness, sensory disorders, visual impairment, autonomic instability

there is an extreme range of symptoms

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22
Q

How is MS managed?

A

managed with corticosteroids, immune modulators, targeted antibodies

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23
Q

Why do we get a liver function test for MS patients?

A

LFT if on Dantrolene & Azathioprine (bone marrow suppression, liver function impairment)​

very tough on the liver

same for MG

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24
Q

MS patients will be on steroids. WHat labs do you want?

A

glucose and electrolytes

you will need a stress dose steroid

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25
Q

What small thing in the OR can cause an exasterbation of MS?

A

temp, keep them warm

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26
Q

Why do you avoid Sux in MS?

A

their body will increase in immature N-ach receptors and this will spike the K level

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27
Q

In MS the cranial nerves are susceptible and this will cause what symptoms?

A

diplopia, ptosis
bulbar involvment

Bulbar involvement → laryngeal/pharyngeal weakness→ respiratory insufficiency, aspiration rx​

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28
Q

Thymic-hyperplasia is common in what neuro disorder

A

MG

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29
Q

What is the treatment for MG

A

IVIG (risk for infection) , and plasmapheresis

pyridostigmine (6hr half life, must take morning before surgery)

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30
Q

What is MG

A

Autoimmune; Antibodies generated against N-Ach-R’s at skeletal motor endplate​

Effects skeletal muscle, not smooth or cardiac muscle​

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31
Q

what does pyridostigmine do to sux?

A

prolongs sux and esters LA

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32
Q

What is Eaton-Lambert syndrome?

A

Disorder causing the development of autoantibodies against VG Calcium chnls presynaptic​

Reduce Ca++ influx into the presynaptic Ca++ channels→↓Ach release @ the NMJ​

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33
Q

What is eaton lambert associated with?

A

small cell lung carcinoma

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34
Q

what is the treatment for EL syndrome?

A

Tx: Selective K+ chnl blocker “3-4 diaminopyridine”

Ach-E inhibitors, immunologics (Azathioprine), steroids, plasmapheresis, IVIG​

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35
Q

ELS and very sensitive to what drugs?

A

ND-NMB and D-NMB

mainly ND-NMB

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36
Q

what is the preferred anesthesia for ELS?

A

regional because of the lack of respiratory support

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37
Q

What is muscular dystrophy?

A

Hereditary disorder of muscle fiber degeneration c/b breakdown of the dystrophin-glycoprotein complex, leads to myonecrosis, fibrosis, and skeletal muscle mbrn permeability. 6 types of MD.​

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38
Q

What is the most common MD?

A

Duchenne MD
2-5yr boys

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39
Q

What labs will be increased in MD?

A

elevated creatine kinase because of the breakdown of muscle tissue

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40
Q

What are anesthesia considerations with MD?

A

CBC, BMP, PFTs, consider CK​

Pre-op EKG, echocardiogram. Evaluate for cardiomyopathy​

Caution with ND-NMB’s, careful monitoring throughout​

“Hypermetabolic Syndrome” similar to MH seen with Succs & volatile anesthetics​

Hypermetabolic syndrome can lead to: rhabdomyolysis, hyperkalemia, Vfib, cardiac arrest​

Avoid Succs & VA as they exacerbate instability of muscle membrane​

Consider low dose rocuronium and TIVA for GA​

Have MH cart with Dantrolene available ​

RA preferred over GA to avoid triggers and cardiopulmonary complications​

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41
Q

Why do you avoid Sux and volatiles in MD?

A

can cause hypermetabolic syndrome which causes rhabdo, high K, Vfibb, death

TX dantrolene

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42
Q

What is the preferred anesthetic in MD?

A

TIVA and low dose rocc

43
Q

What is myotonic distrophy?

A

Myotonic Dystrophy: most common myotonia. Onset 20-30’s​

Sx: muscle wasting in face, masseter, hand, pre-tibial muscles​

may also affect pharyngeal, laryngeal, diaphragmatic muscles​

cardiac conduction may be affected; 20% have MVP​

44
Q

What is myotonia congenita?

A

Myotonia Congenita: Milder form, involving the skeletal muscles​

smooth & cardiac muscles are spared​

45
Q

What is central core disease?

A

Central Core disease: Rare. Core muscle cells lack mitochondrial enzymes ​

Sx: Proximal muscle weakness & scoliosis​

46
Q

Myotonias are triggered by ___ and _____

A

stress and cold temp

47
Q

What are the Tx for myotonias?

A

Tx: No cure. Sx managed w/Quinine, Procainamide, Steroids​

48
Q

Anesthetic considerations for myotonias

A

Assess the extent of cardiac and pulmonary abnormalities​

Assess breath and heart sounds for abnormalities ​

GI hypomotility-↑aspiration risk​

High rx of endocrine abnormalities. Look at thyroid & glucose levels​

Keep patients warm to avoid flare-ups​

Avoid Succinylcholine b/c fasciculations trigger myotonia​

Optimize preop respiratory status​

Caution with opioids to avoid post-op respiratory depression​

Pts are increased risk for post-op resp weakness​

49
Q

in myotonias avoid _____

A

SUX

Avoid Succinylcholine b/c fasciculations trigger myotonia​

50
Q

What are the three major dementias?

A

Alzheimer’s (70%), Vascular dementia (25%), Parkinsons (5%)​

51
Q

What is parkinsons disease?

A

Degeneration of dopaminergic fibers of basal ganglia​

Dopamine regulates (inhibits excess stimulation) the extrapyramidal motor system, which is stimulated by Ach​

In Parkinsons, these motor neurons are over stimulated​

52
Q

What are the triad of symptoms and treatment of parkinsons?

A

Triad of sx: skeletal muscle tremor, rigidity, akinesia​

Rhythmic “pill rolling,” facial rigidity, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, respiratory difficulty, depression & dementia​

Tx: Levodopa (crosses BBB), anticholinergics, MAOIs (inhibit dopamine degradation), Deep brain stimulator​

53
Q

What do you want to avoid in dementia?

A

versed, opioids, TIVA is preferred

54
Q

Whats the biggest risk factor for parkinsons?

A

Unknown cause; Advanced age is biggest risk factor​

55
Q

What medications do you avoid in parkinsons?

A

Avoid Reglan, Phenothiazines, Butyrophenones​

Avoid Demerol if on MAOI​

56
Q

Describe the assessment of parkinsons pts

A

Assess severity, with special attn to degree of pulmonary compromise​

Review home meds, as many may interact with our drugs (ex. MAOIs)​

Review basic labs along w/PFT if respiratory sx​

May need EKG, Echo if indicated​

↑aspiration risk (dysphagia, possible dementia)​

PO Levodopa must be continued to avoid unstable extreme extrapyramidal effects s/a chest wall rigidity​

Avoid Reglan, Phenothiazines, Butyrophenones​

Avoid Demerol if on MAOI​

Deep brain stimulators may need to be disabled to avoid interaction w/cautery​

If cautery used, bipolar recommended as it reduces scattering of electro-currant​

57
Q

Do you continue levodopa before surgery?

A

PO Levodopa must be continued to avoid unstable extreme extrapyramidal effects s/a chest wall rigidity​

58
Q

Common symptoms of brain tumors are

A

Common sx: ​

↑ICP​

Papilledema​

Headache​

AMS​

Mobility impairment​

Vomiting​

Autonomic dysfunction​

Seizures​​

59
Q

Describe Gliomas

A

Gliomas: Primary tumors. Least aggressive astrocytomas​

Often found in young adults w/new onset seizures​

60
Q

Describe Pilocyctic astrocytomas

A

Pilocyctic astrocytomas: Children & young adults​

Mostly benign, good outcomes if resectable​

61
Q

describe Anaplastic astrocytomas:

A

Anaplastic astrocytomas: Poorly differentiated​

Usually evolve into Glioblastoma Multiforme​

62
Q

describe Glioblastoma Multiforme

A

Glioblastoma Multiforme: Carry a high mortality​

Usually requires surgical debulking & chemo​

Life expectance is usually within weeks, even w/treatment​

63
Q

describe Meningiomas

A

Meningiomas: Usually benign. Arise from dura or arachnoid tissue​​

Good prognosis w/surgical resection​

64
Q

describe Pituitary Adenomas

A

Pituitary Adenomas: Noncancerous, varying subtypes​

Transsphenoidal or open craniotomy for removal is usually curative

65
Q

describe Acoustic Neuromas:

A

Acoustic Neuromas: Usually benign schwannomas involving the vestibular component of CN VIII within the auditory canal​

Good prognosis w/resection +/- radiation​

66
Q

Brain Tumors: Pre-anesthesia​

A

Review history & physical​

Inquire about previous therapies, presenting symptoms & neurological deficits​

Radiation damage may lead to lethargy and AMS​

Chemotherapy may also have neurological effects​

Pts are often on steroids to minimize cerebral edema​

Will need to continue steroids, monitoring glucose levels​

Anticonvulsants common (supratentorial lesions, closer to motor cortex)​

Autonomic dysfunction may manifest on EKG, labile HR & BP’s​

CBC, BMP (glucose), EKG​

CT/MRI​

Pre-op steroids & antiseizure meds per surgeon​

Mannitol often used to reduce intracranial volume & pressure​

67
Q

What is the most common type of stroke?

68
Q

_______ is the leading cause of death and disability​

69
Q

Causes of Ischemic stroke are categorized according to the TOAST classification into 5 groups:​

A

1class. Large artery atherosclerosis (e.g., carotid stenosis)​

2class. Small vessel occlusion (e.g., lacunar stroke)​

3class. Cardioaortic embolic (e.g., emboli from atrial fibrillation)​

4class. Other etiology (e.g., stroke due to hypercoagulable states or vasculopathies)​

5class. Undetermined etiology​

70
Q

Transient ischemic attack: sudden focal vascular neurologic deficit that resolves within ______ hrs ​

71
Q

What medications will you give for acute ischemic stroke

A

aspirin and tPA

tPa is 3-4 hours past onset

72
Q

hemorrhagic strokes are more ____ than ischemic

73
Q

blood is supplied to the brain by

A

internal carotid arteries​

vertebral arteries ​

74
Q

know all this stupid shit

75
Q

______ pts who experience a TIA will subsequently suffer a stroke​

76
Q

a CT will distinguish what?

A

ischemic vs hemorrhagic

77
Q

revascularization allows for thrombectomy or thrombolytics

A

this leads to the best outcome

78
Q

patients with ischemic stroke usually have what other health problems?

A

Patients w/ischemic stroke frequently have CV risk factors, including HTN, DM, CAD, Afib, and valvular disease, that could impact vasoactive drug choices and hemodynamic goal​

79
Q

The 2 most reliable predictors of outcome for hem stroke are: ______ & ______

A

estimated blood volume & change in LOC​

80
Q

hemorrhagic CVA tx

A

anticonvulsants
evacuation of blood
bp management
ICP control

go to ICU after

81
Q

the pt is on anticoags for CVA prevention. WHat do you do

A

consult prescriber

82
Q

the pt is on a new anticoag for thrombus. WHat do you do

A

no elective cases for 3 months

83
Q

Pre-op assessments for CVA

A

Careful review of history, deficits, imaging, treatments, and co-existing diseases​

Assess orientation, pupils, bilateral grip strength, LE strength​

Ask about headaches, tinnitus, vision/memory loss, bathroom issues​

Look at route cause of CVA: Vascular disease, embolic (a-fib, prosthetic valve, right to left shunt/PFO)​

Imaging: Carotid U/S, CT/MRI head & neck, echocardiogram​

Preop EKG​

CBC, BMP, possible T & C​

Cerebral oximetry if possible​

Aline, 2 IVs and/or CVC​

84
Q

High risk pts for CVA that pause LA anticoags (Warfarin) will need SA anticoags (LMWH, IV unfractionated heparin) to bridge the gap​

85
Q

cerebral aneurysms
sx
rx
dx
surgical tx within ____

A

Majority aneurysms not diagnosed before rupture​

Only 1/3 aneurysm pts have sx before rupture​

Sx: Headache, photophobia, confusion, hemiparesis, coma​

Rx: HTN, smoking, female, oral contraceptives, cocaine use​

Dx: CT/angio, MRI, Lumbar puncture w/CSF analysis if rupture suspected​

Intervention should be performed within 72h of rupture for best outcomes​

Pt may be on steroids, glucose monitoring important​

Pre-anesthesia: CT/MRI, EKG, Echo, CBC, BMP, T&C w/blood available​

BP control, mannitol? *aim is to avoid rupture ​

seizure prophylaxis​

Surgical tx: coiling, stenting, trapping/bypass (very large aneurysms)​

Neurosurgeon may be on standby in case of intra-op rupture/SAH ​

86
Q

Post SAH Vasospasm

A

Risk for vasospasm 3-15 days post SAH​

Free hgb triggers inflammatory mediators, which reduce nitric oxide availability and increase endothelin 1, leading to vasoconstriction​

Triple H therapy (Hypertension, Hypervolemia, Hemodilution)​

To avoid complications of hypervolemia, HTN is the initial main treatment​

Interventional treatments s/a balloon dilation and direct injection of vasodilators relieve the spasm​

Pre-anesthesia interventions: Same as with aneurysm, although normally less-invasive​

87
Q

aneurysm grading (hunt & hess and BCS)

A

she said just know that there are grading systems

H&H scores mortality

WFNS is based on GCS

88
Q

Whats an AVM

A

Arterial to venous connection w/o intervening capillaries​

high flow, low resistance shunting

90
Q

Spetzler martin grading system grades what

A

AVM severity

90
Q

most avms are

A

supratentorial

91
Q

Whats the tx for AVMs and the pre-anesthesia managment

A

Dx: Angiogram, MRI​
Tx: radiation, angio-guided embolization, surgical resection (higher mortality)​

Pre-anesthesia: H&P, review meds, imaging, CBC, BMP, T&C, EKG, Echo​

BP control, mannitol?, seizure prophylaxis, CVC or 2 Lg bore IV’s, Aline​

92
Q

What is a Chiari malformation and the types

A

Congenital displacement of the cerebellum​

Type 1: downward displacement of cerebellum​

Type 2 (Arnold Chiari): downward displacement of cerebellar vermis, often assoc w/myelomeningocele​

Type 3: Rare; occipital encephalocele w/downward cerebellar displacement​

Type 4: cerebellar hypoplasia w/o displacement of posterior fossa contents​

*Not compatible with life​

93
Q

What are the sx, tx, and pre anesthesia implications of chiari malformation

A

Sx: headache, extending to shoulders/arms, visual disturbances, ataxia​

Tx: Surgical decompression​

Pre-anesthesia: Review H&P, deficits, imaging, CBC, BMP, T&C​

May hyperventilate to ↓ICP, Lg bore IV x 2 or CVC, Aline​

94
Q

tubular sclerosis

A

AKA “Bourneville Disease”​

Autosomal dominant disease causing benign hemartomas, angiofibromas, and other malformations that can occur anywhere in the body​

Lesions of the brain include: cortical tumors & giant-cell astrocytomas​

Often involves co-existing tumors of face, oropharnyx, heart, lungs, liver & kidneys​

Presentation likely includes mental retardation and seizure disorders​

Anesthesia consideration must take into account airway compromise, as well as cardiac and/or kidney involvement​

95
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau Disease​ is associated with _____

A

phenochromocytoma

Benign tumors of the CNS, eyes, adrenals, pancreas and kidneys​

96
Q

Neurofibromatosis anesthesia considerations

A

Anesthesia considerations account for increased ICP, airway issues, scoliosis, possibility of pheochromocytoma​

97
Q

avoid what anesthesia with neurofibromatosis

98
Q

Hydrocephalus is treated with what

A

lasix and acetoazolamide

VP shunt or ETV

99
Q

Malfunctions of VP shunt will usually occur with in the _____ ____ of having it

A

first year

100
Q

Main goal of TBI is

A

preventing secondary injury

Secondary injuries: neuroinflammation, cerebral edema, ​

  hypoxia, anemia, electrolyte imbalances, and neurogenic shock​
101
Q

do you insert an NG or OG tube for TBI?

A

hell no, may have basilar sf and you will put that shit in their brain

102
Q

How do you intubate a seizure patient?

A

*May be called to intubate post-seizure→ RSI w/cricoid pressure​

103
Q

what drugs are you worried about with a patient with seizure disorders?

A

Phenytoin, Tegretol, Barbiturates are enzyme-inducers​

Likely require higher doses of hepatically-cleared medications​