Airway Assessment by AI Flashcards

1
Q

What is the anatomy of the airway?

A

Includes the mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, and associated structures

The airway anatomy is crucial for understanding intubation and airway management.

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2
Q

What are the components of the mouth in airway anatomy?

A

Roof, floor, tongue, mandible, teeth

The mouth plays a vital role in airway assessment and management.

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3
Q

What is the length of the trachea in adults?

A

10 to 15 cm

The trachea extends from the inferior cricoid membrane to the carina.

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4
Q

What is the primary function of the larynx?

A

Phonation and airway protection

The larynx connects the pharynx to the trachea.

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5
Q

What are the unpaired laryngeal cartilages?

A

Thyroid, cricoid, epiglottis

The thyroid is the largest cartilage.

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6
Q

What are the paired laryngeal cartilages?

A

Arytenoid, corniculate, cuneiform

The arytenoid cartilages are where the vocal cords attach.

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7
Q

Where are the true vocal cords located?

A

They attach to the arytenoids and the thyroid notch on thyroid cartilage

The true vocal cords are essential for sound production.

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8
Q

What is a significant predictor of difficult intubation?

A

Past difficult intubation

Other factors include excessive sore throat and recent onset of hoarseness.

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9
Q

What does the STOP BANG questionnaire assess?

A

Risk factors for obstructive sleep apnea

It includes questions about snoring, tiredness, observed apnea, blood pressure, body mass index, age, neck circumference, and gender.

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10
Q

What is the Mallampati classification used for?

A

To assess the visibility of oropharyngeal structures

It ranges from Class I (most visible) to Class IV (only hard palate visible).

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11
Q

What does the ‘C’ in the ‘LEMONS’ intubation assessment stand for?

A

Criteria associated with difficult airway

This includes evaluating the patient’s face and neck for abnormalities.

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12
Q

What does the ‘B’ in the ‘BOOTS’ predictor for difficult BMV stand for?

A

Beard

The ‘BOOTS’ acronym includes other factors like Obesity, Older age, and Toothless.

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13
Q

What is the significance of the sniffing position?

A

Aligns the oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axis

This positioning aids in intubation.

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14
Q

What is the preferred inter-incisor distance for easy intubation?

A

> 6 cm (3 finger breadths)

Adequate mouth opening is crucial for successful intubation.

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15
Q

What is the purpose of laryngeal manipulation (BURP)?

A

To optimize the view of the glottis during intubation

It involves backward, upward, and rightward pressure on the larynx.

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16
Q

What is the preferred thyromental distance for easy intubation?

A

> 6.5 cm (3 finger breadths)

This measurement helps assess airway anatomy.

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17
Q

What does the term ‘difficult airway’ refer to?

A

Challenges in intubation or ventilation

Factors include anatomical variations and patient history.

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18
Q

What is the role of nebulized lidocaine in airway management?

A

To provide local anesthesia before intubation

It helps minimize discomfort during the procedure.

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19
Q

What are the criteria associated with difficult mask ventilation?

A

Obesity, Beard, Edentulous, Snorer, Elderly, Mallampati score 3 or 4

These factors can complicate ventilation during anesthesia.

20
Q

What is the significance of the ‘3-3-2 rule’ in airway assessment?

A

Assessing mouth opening, mandible, and thyroid notch distance

Each measurement helps predict intubation difficulty.

21
Q

What is the expected course of a patient with difficult airway features?

A

Potential need for awake intubation or alternative airway strategies

Early decision-making is vital in these cases.

22
Q

What is the primary use of propofol in rapid sequence intubation?

A

Sedation and induction agent

Propofol is used for its rapid onset and short duration.

23
Q

What are the two main paralytic agents mentioned?

A

Rocuronium and Succinylcholine

Rocuronium is preferred in certain clinical situations.

24
Q

What condition can predispose patients to malignant hyperthermia?

A

Existing muscular dystrophies or inherited myopathies

Malignant hyperthermia is a serious reaction to certain anesthetics.

25
Q

What is the onset time for intubating conditions with rocuronium?

A

40 seconds

Compared to succinylcholine, which has a quicker onset.

26
Q

Fill in the blank: The duration of action for succinylcholine is _______.

A

5-10 minutes

27
Q

True or False: Rocuronium has a longer duration of action than succinylcholine.

A

True

Rocuronium lasts 30-90 minutes.

28
Q

What should be the target SBP before intubation if possible?

A

≥140 mmHg

This helps ensure better perfusion during the procedure.

29
Q

What is the induction agent of choice in shock patients?

A

Ketamine

Ketamine provides both sedation and sympathetic stimulation.

30
Q

What is the recommended initial intervention for patients with high aspiration risk?

A

Intubate in semi-upright position

This reduces the risk of aspiration during intubation.

31
Q

What should be done if oxygen saturation cannot reach ≥95%?

A

Consider lung shunt physiology

Conditions like pulmonary edema or pneumonia may be affecting saturation.

32
Q

What are the physiological killers mentioned?

A
  • Hypotension
  • Hypoxemia
  • Metabolic Acidosis
33
Q

What is the significance of using a PEEP valve during intubation?

A

It helps maintain positive pressure in the airway

This can prevent atelectasis and improve oxygenation.

34
Q

What does the acronym NO DESAT stand for?

A

Nasal Oxygen During Efforts Securing A Tube

35
Q

What is the recommended dose of ketamine for procedural sedation?

A

0.5-1 mg/kg

This dosage provides adequate sedation for preoxygenation.

36
Q

What should be included in the plan for failed intubation?

A

Rescue maneuvers like ventilation and cricothyrotomy

Early initiation of rescue maneuvers is crucial for patient safety.

37
Q

What is the role of the bougie in intubation?

A

Facilitates passage of the endotracheal tube

Incorporating bougie use into routine can aid in difficult intubations.

38
Q

Fill in the blank: The cribriform plate is part of the _______.

A

Nasal anatomy

39
Q

What is the effect of increased circulating CO2 in patients with metabolic acidosis?

A

It can worsen acidosis and lead to arrhythmias

Monitoring CO2 levels is important in managing acidosis.

40
Q

What are the two recommended approaches for preoxygenation in patients with difficulty breathing?

A
  • Nasal Cannula at 15LPM + BVM 15LPM + PEEP Valve
  • SIMV + PSV with VT 8ml/kg Predicted Body Weight
41
Q

WHat are turbinates?

A

Thin structures in the nasal cavilty that bleed easily

The lateral wall of the nasal passages is characterized by the presence

to avoid bleeding push the nose into a pig nose state and push the NPA straight down

42
Q

How do you avoid bleeding when placing an NPA?

A

Cocaine soaked gauze, Afrin (neo nasal spray), lidocaine

43
Q

What scan do you do to get the best view of the tongue?

44
Q

WHat is the primary cause of upper airway obstruction

A

Loss of pharyngeal muscle tone is one of the primary causes of upper airway obstruction during anesthesia​

chin lift with mouth closure increases longitudinal tension in the pharyngeal muscles, counteracting the tendency of the pharyngeal airway to collapse​

45
Q

Nasopharynx ends at the _____

A

Soft Palate

The nasopharynx ends at the soft palate; this region is termed the velopharynx and is a common site of airway obstruction in both awake and anesthetized patients​

46
Q

The pharynx joins the ___ and ______

A

larynx and esophagus​