Neuro Adults Flashcards

1
Q

How much glucose is used by the brain?

A

80%

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2
Q

Controls mobility, sensation, cognition, many involuntary processes.

A

Nervous system key function

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3
Q

Brain (cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem)
Spinal Cord are part of what?

A

Central Nervous System (CNS)

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4
Q

Basic units of the nervous system.
* Trasmit impulses or “messages”.

A

Neurons

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5
Q

(afferents neurons): Control sensation and send messages from PNS to the CNS.

A

Sensory neurons

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6
Q

(efferent neurons): Control mobility and send messages from the CNS to PNS

A

Motor neurons

Afferent Approaches the CNS, Efferent Exits the CNS

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7
Q

Regulated by centers in the spinal cord, brainstem, and hypothalamus

A

Autonomic Nervous System

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8
Q

farsightedness; light rays focus behind the retina

A

hyperopia

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9
Q

If ____ is present in adult then is abnormal.

A

Babinski

Babinski is for babies

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10
Q

Alert, Verbal stimuli, Painful stimuli, Unresponsive

A V P U

A

Levels of consiousness

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11
Q

Dropping eyelid

A

Ptosis

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12
Q

Produces images of actual organ functioning. The patient is injected with a radioctive (nuclear) substance that emits positively charged particles.

A

Positron Emisson Tomography (PET)

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13
Q

Side effects of ____ may include dizziness, lightheadedness, headache

A

Side effects of PET

Expected

Relaxation exercises may reduce anxiety

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14
Q

Three dimentional imaging technique that uses radionuclides and instruments to detect single photons.

Useful in detecting abnormally perfused areas of the brain, find stroke.

Pregnancy and breast-feeding are contraindications

A

Single-Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT)

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15
Q

X-ray study of the cerebral circulation with a contrast agent injected into a selected artery

Inserted into the femoral artery in the groin.

Mark peripheral pulses.

A

Cerebral Angiography

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16
Q

Check patient’s blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatine to ensure the kidneys will be able to excrete the contrast agent before what test?

Void immediatle before the test.

A

Cerebral Angiography

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17
Q

Complications of ____ are altered LOC, weakness of one side of the body, motor or sensory deficits, and speech disturbances.

A

Cerebral Angiography

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18
Q

Care after ____ check bleeding, hematomas, peripheral pulses, color of extremity, increase fluids.

Keep extremity straight.

A

Cerebral angiography

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19
Q

X-ray of the spinal subarachnoid space taken after the injection of a contrast agent into the spinal subarachnoid space through a lumbar puncture.

A

Myelography

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20
Q

Keep head of bed 30 to 45 degrees. Remain in bed 4 to 24 hours in recommended position.

A

Myelography

Nursing Intervensions

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21
Q

Used to identify seizures, sleep disorders, and other conditions. Electrodes placed on the scalp to record electrical activity in the brain.

A

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

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22
Q

Instruct patient to wash hair prior to procedure, arrive sleep deprived, avoid stimulants or sedative medications prior to procedure. No NPO needed.

A

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

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23
Q

Obtained by inserting needle electrodes into the skeletal muscles changes in the electrical potential of the muscles.

Muscle can be sore.

A

Electromyography

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24
Q

Cerebral Spinal Fluid (CSF) sample is taken from the spinal canal for analysis.

A

Lumbar Puncture

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25
Q

Used to diagnose meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, neurological disorders.

Usually done between L3/L4 or L4/L5

A

Lumbar puncture

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26
Q
  • Have patient empty bladder.
  • Position patient on their side in a fetal position, or streched over a table (so back is arched)
A

Lumbar puncture Pre Procedure

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27
Q
  • Instruct patient to lay flat for several hours and Increase fluid intake.
  • Monitor for CSF leak, which can cause a severe headache (epidural blood patch may be necessary)
A

Lumbar Puncture Post Procedure

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28
Q

What part of the brain contains the motor cortex and Broca’s area (speech function)?

A

Frontal Lobe

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29
Q

What part of the brain contains the sensory cortex?

A

Parietal Lobe

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30
Q

What part of the brain contains the visual cortex?

A

Occipital Lobe

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31
Q

What part of the brain contains the auditory cortex and Wernicke’s area (comprehension of verbal/written language)?

A

Temporal Lobe

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32
Q

Key functions: Controls motor, cognitive, sensory function.

A

Cerebrum

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33
Q

What’s the expected color of CSF?

A

Clear, colorless, no blood, no bacteria

34
Q

Involuntary movement of the eyeball

A

nystagmus

35
Q

refractive error due to an irregularity in the curvature of the cornea.

(can’t drive at night, fireworks)

A

Astigmatism

36
Q

Normal vison

A

Emmetropia

37
Q

What’s the normal intraocular pressure (IOP)?

A

Less than 21 mm Hg

38
Q

Composed of a series of progressively smaller rows of letter; the person is asked to read the lowest line possible

A

Snellen chart

39
Q

CN III, IV and VI control?

A

Movement and pupil size

40
Q

Defined as having central visual acuity of 20/40 or worse in the better eye with the best possible correction

A

Vision Impairment

41
Q

Describes visual impairment that requires the use of devices and strategies to perform visual tasks.

A

Low vision

42
Q

Best possible corrected central visual acuity that can range from 20/400 to no light perception.

A

Blindness

43
Q

Condition of impaired vision and is defined as having central visual acuity of 20/200 or worse in the better eye with the best possible correction or whose widest visual field diameter is 20 degrees or less.

A

Legal Blindness

44
Q

Function: Maintains homeostasis through innervation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands.

A

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

45
Q

“Fight or flight”
Effects: Increase cardiac output, vasoconstriction (Increase BP), broncodilation, pupil dilation, Slow secretion/peristalsis

Opposite of Parasympathetic Nervous System

A

Sympathetic Nervous System

46
Q

“Rest and digest”
Effects: Decrease cardiac output, vasodilation (decrease BP), bronchoconstriction, pupil constriction, increased secretions/peristalsis

Opposite of Sympathetic Nervous System

A

Parasympathetic Nervous System

47
Q

Eye disorder that results in Increase Intraocular Pressure (IOP)

A

Glaucoma

48
Q

Called the “silent thief of sight” because most patient are unaware that they have the disease until they experienced visual changes and vision loss.

May experience blurred vision or “halos” around lights, possible eye discomfort and headache.

A

Glaucoma

49
Q

Patho: Most common. Aqueous humor overproduction or obstruction of outflow results in a gradual increase of IOP.

A

Open Angle Glaucoma

50
Q

Patho: Less common. Forward displacement of the iris closes the angle between the iris and sclera completely, resulting in sudden increase of IOP

A

Closed Angle Glaucoma

51
Q

Risk factors: Familial, Over Age 40, Diabetes, Hypertension, History of Ocular problem.

A

Glaucoma

52
Q

S/S: Lose of peripheral vision, mild aching in the eyes, headache.

A

Open Angle Glaucoma

53
Q

S/S: Severe eye pain, severe headache, n/v, blurred vision, halos around lights, reddened sclera.

A

Closed Angle Glaucoma

54
Q

Pupil dilation

A

Mydriasis

55
Q

In ________ for glaucoma, a laser beam is applied to the inner surface of the trabecular meshwork to open the intratrabecular spaces and widen the canal of Schlemm, promoting outflow of aqueous humor and decreasing IOP

A

laser trabeculoplasty

56
Q

lens opacity or cloudiness that impairs vision

can progress to blindness

A

Cataracts

57
Q

What are cataracts three most common types?

A

congenital, traumatic, senile

The most common risk factor being age

58
Q

Clinical Manifestation

  • Painless blurry vision
  • Reduced visual acuity
  • Sensitivity to glare
  • Color shift
A

Cataracts

59
Q

Surgery is the only temporary cure is peformed on an outpatient basis with local anesthesia

Avoid bending the head below the waist.

A

Cataract

60
Q

Complications of surgery

Hemorrhage in eye, infection, rupture of posterior capsule, toxic syndrome

A

Cataracts Surgery Complications

61
Q

Separation of the retinal pigment epthelium from the neurosensory layer

A

Retinal Detachment

62
Q

Clinical manifestations

  • Sensation of shade or curtain coming across vision field
  • Cobwebs, bright flashing lights, sudden onset of increased floaters
  • Requires immediate surgical intervention
A

Retina Detachment

63
Q

Deterioation of the macula, resulting in central loss of vision.

Two types: dry and wet

A

Macular Degeneration

64
Q

Dry: Macula get thinner with age and tiny clumps of protein (drusen) grow.

More common, slower onset

A

Macular Degeneration

65
Q

Wet: Abnormal blood vessels grow under the retina and leak blood/fluid, causing scarring of the macula.

Less common, faster onset

A

Macular Degeneration

66
Q

results from an external ear disorder, such as impacted cerumen, or a middle ear disorder, such as otitis media or otosclerosis

A

Conductive hearing loss

67
Q

involves damage to the cochlea or vestibulocochlear nerve.

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

68
Q

Patients with ________ loss have conductive loss and sensorineural loss, resulting from dysfunction of air and bone conduction

A

Mixed hearing loss

69
Q

Early symptoms

  • Tinnitus: perception of sound; often “ringing in the ear”
  • Speech deterioration
  • Increase inability to hear in a group
  • Turning the volume on the TV
A

Hearing Impaired

70
Q
  • Removal may be by irrigation, suction, or instrumentation
  • Gentle irrigation should be used with lowest pressure, directing stream behind the obstruction.
A

Cerumen Impaction

71
Q

abnormality in inner ear fluid balance caused by a malabsorption in the endolymphatic sac or a blockage in the endolymphatic duct

A

Ménière’s disease

72
Q

Clinical Manisfestation

  • Vertigo,
  • tinnitus,
  • feeling of pressure or fullness

Risk factor: Fall risk

A

Ménière’s disease

73
Q

Treatment

Low sodium diet: 1,000-1,500 mg/day
Meclizine (med)
Surgical management to eliminate attacks of vertigo
Tranquilizer, antimetics may be used

A

Ménière’s disease

74
Q

episodes of abnormal motor, sensory, autonomic, or psychic activity (or a combination of these) that result from sudden excessive discharge from cerebral neurons

A

Seizures

75
Q

What type of seizure present with these symptoms?

Motor

*Nonmotor

*Awareness

*Aware

*Impaired awareness

*Unknown awareness

A

Focal

One hemisfire

76
Q

What type of seizure present with these symptoms?

Motor

*Absence

A

Generalized

77
Q

What type of seizure present with these symptoms?

Motor

*Nonmotor

*Awareness

*Aware

*Impaired awareness

*Unknown awareness

*Unclassified

A

Unknown

78
Q

Causes of what include these related diseases?

Allergies
Brain tumor
Cerebrovascular disease
CNS infections
Drug and alcohol withdrawal
Fever (childhood)
Head injury
Hypertension
Hypoxemia of any cause, including vascular insufficiency
Metabolic and toxic conditions (e.g., kidney injury, hyponatremia, hypocalcemia, hypoglycemia, pesticide exposure)

A

Seizures

79
Q

Nursing care during what?

Provide privacy, and protect the patient from curious onlookers. (The patient who has an aura may have time to seek a safe, private place.)

*Ease the patient to the floor, if possible.

*Protect the head with a pad to prevent injury (from striking a hard surface).

*Loosen constrictive clothing and remove eyeglasses.

*Push aside any furniture that may injure the patient during the seizure.

*If the patient is in bed, remove pillows and raise side rails.

*Do not attempt to pry open jaws that are clenched in a spasm or attempt to insert anything in the mouth during a seizure. Broken teeth and injury to the lips and tongue may result from such an action.

*Do not attempt to restrain the patient during the seizure, because muscular contractions are strong and restraint can produce injury.

*If possible, place the patient on one side with head flexed forward, which allows the tongue to fall forward and facilitates drainage of saliva and mucus. If suction is available, use it if necessary to clear secretions.

A

Seizure

80
Q

Nursing care after what?

Keep the patient on one side to prevent aspiration. Make sure the airway is patent.

*On awakening, reorient the patient to the environment.

*If the patient is confused or wandering, guide the patient gently to a bed or chair.

*If the patient becomes agitated after a seizure (postictal), stay a distance away, but close enough to prevent injury until the patient is fully aware.

A

Seizure

81
Q

What test is this?

Hold vibrating fork on the mastoid bone, then in front of the ear canal

A

Rinne test

82
Q

What test is this?

Hold vibrating fork on top of the patient’s head, compare hearing on the right vs. left side.

Expected: Patient can hear equally in both ears

A

Weber test