NEURO Flashcards

1
Q

What is neurodegeneration

A

Progressive loss of function of neurone due to cell death or degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give the definition of dementia

A

Decline in memory, intellect or personality which is severe enough to interfere with ADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is dementia diagnosed

A
  • Predominantly a clinical diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Investigations in dementia

A

ACE III- attention, memory, fluency, language, vitamin

Dementia screen- bloods, urinalysis, psychometric testing, MRI brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Differentials for dementia

A

Old age, depression, physical health problems eg DM, hypothyroid, vit def

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Treatment for dementia

A
  • Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors eg donepezil, rivastigmine
  • NMDA antagonist eg memantine
  • Rf reduction in vascular dementia is important
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is pseudo dementia

A
  • Cognitive impairments secondary to mental illness eg depression/anxiety
    Pseudo will say don’e know where as normal would make something up- confabulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Clinical features of Alzheimer’s

A

Episodic memory
Visuospatial problems
Getting lost in familiar places
4 As: aphasia, anomia(deficit of expressive language), acalculia, ADLs are a struggle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens in the late stages of Alzheimer’s

A
  • Frank dementia
  • Bradykinesia
  • Psychosis
  • Seizures
  • Incontinence
  • Mutism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the prognosis for Alzheimer’s

A

Incurable, long progressive course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pathophysiology of Alzheimer’s

A
  • B-amyloid plaques, accumulation of amyloid in the hippocampus, enterhinal cortex and amygdala
  • Neurofibrillary tangles- intercellular accumulation of tau
  • Cortical atrophy - mostly in frontal and temporal lobes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Investigations in Alzheimer’s

A
  • Rule out other causes
  • Neuropsychological testing: Addenbrookes (differentiates between front-temporal dementia and Alzheimer’s)
  • MMSE
  • MOCA
  • Functional imaging- reduced blood flow and glucose metabolism in tempo-parietal and hippocampus, cortical atrophy and enlarged ventricles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of Alzheimer’s

A

No cure

  • AChE Inhibitors eg donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine- inhibit Ach degradation at the synaptic cleft
  • NMDA antagonists- behavioural
  • Antidepressants/psychotics
  • Cognitive training
  • Emotional and social stimulation
  • Exercise programmes
  • Caregiver training programmes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Clinical features of Lewy body dementia

A
  • Visual hallucinations
  • Fluctuation
  • Parkinsonism- bradykinesia, tremor, rigidty
  • Sleep disorders
  • Psychosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Investigations for Lewy body dementia

A

Psychometric testing

  • deficits in attention
  • Executive functional decline
  • Fluctuation of cognitive performance
  • Episodic memory preserved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pathophysiology of Lewy body dementia

A
  • Pallor of substantia nigra

- Lewy bodies (alpha- synuclein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Treatment of Lewy body dementia

A
  • Anti-parkinsons tx can worsen psychosis

- avoid neuroleptics- causes tardive dyskinesia > hypersensitisation to dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Risk factors for Vascular dementia

A
  • Smoking
  • Overweight/obese
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • Poor diet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Types of Vascular Dementia

A
  • Step wise decline: mini strokes; multi infarct

- Generalised decline: diffuse white matter disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Clinical features of Vascular Dementia

A
  • Sundowning
  • Good and bad days
  • Mood plays a bigger role
  • Emotional incontinence
  • Inappropriate laughter or tearfulness
  • Good and bad days
  • Focal neurology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Management of Vascular Dementia

A
  • Non-Pharmacological interventions
  • AChE and NMDA inhibitors are NOT recommended
  • Manage emotional symptoms
  • Modifiable and preventable- lifestyle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Fronto-temporal linked to?

A

MND

- tends to affect younger people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Clinical picture of fronto-temporal dementia

A
  • Behaviour variant (apathic, disinhibition, lack of insight, emotional lability)
  • Semantic (can speak, receptive aphasia)
  • Progressive non-fluent aphasia - expressive aphasia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What investigations would you do for fronto-temporal dementia and what would you expect to see?

A
  • MRI > fronto-temporal atrophy
  • Genetic testing
  • Assess for MND
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Treatment for fronto-temporal dementia

A
  • SSRIs

- Holistic management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the pathophysiology of MND?

A
  • Progressive loss of motor neurones and dismantling of the motor neurone system
  • Anterior horn most commonly affected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Clinical features of MND

A
  • Dysfunction/weakness in one part of the body > spreads gradually
  • Resp failure > failure of muscles ventilation
  • Non sensory S&S or eyes or bladder involvement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

UMN signs of MND

A
  • hypertonia
  • hyperreflexia
  • up going plantars
  • weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

LMN signs of MND

A
  • weakness
  • wasting
  • reduced tone
  • reduced reflexes
  • fasciculation’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Lumbar signs of MND

A
  • foot drop

- fasciculation’s (esp in thigh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bulbar signs of MND

A
  • jaw jerk
  • dysarthria
  • swallowing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Prognosis of MND

A
  • incurable: death av. 3 yrs

- weight loss= poor prognosis (due to hyper metabolic state)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Treatment of MND

A

consider-

  • Nutritional management
  • Non-invasive ventilation
  • Counselling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Clinical features of Parkinson’s Disease

A
  • Bradykinesia
  • Cogwheel rigidity
  • Resting tremor
  • Postural instability
  • Hyposmia
  • Excessive saliva production
  • Memory impairment
  • Autonomic dysfunction
  • Depression/anhedonia
  • REM sleep disorders
  • Non motor symptoms often precede motor signs
  • Dementia (lewy body)
  • Psychosis
  • (can start presentation with constipation and GI symptoms or depression and REM first)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the neurological findings in PD

A

Loss of dopaminergic neurones in the substantia nigra. Decreased production of dopamine > suppressed movement
Presence of Lewy bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Clinical diagnosis of PD- history

A
  • Unilateral onset
  • Resting tremor
  • Progressive
  • Anosmia
  • Excellent response to l-dopa and a response for 5+ yrs
  • 10yr+ clinical course
  • Visual hallucinations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Management of PD

A
  • Levodopa (dopamine precursor)
  • Carbidopa
  • Avoid Tx until onset of disabling Sx
  • Dopamine receptor agonists (bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline) - THESE CAUSE IMPULSE BEHAVIOURS SO NEEED TO BE MONITORED
  • Levodopa + dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor
  • MAO-B i: inhibits dopamine breakdown
  • Anti cholinergics: reduce tremor
  • COMT inhibitros
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Monitoring people with PD

A
  • Always ask about impulsive things (dopamine agonists cause this)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Parkinsons plus

A
- Falls at presentation 
Multiple system atropy
- Symmetrical in onset
- Parkinsonism with autonomic(impotence/incontinence, postural hypotension, cerebellar signs) , corticospinal and cerebellar dysfunction
- Poor repsosne to l-dopa
- Rapid progression
- absence of tremor
- Eye involvement- progressive supra nuclear palsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Progressive supranuclear palsy (Parkinsons plus)

A
  • Symmetrical
  • Parkinsonism
  • Early falls
  • Postural instability
  • Vertical gaze palsy
  • Trunk rigidity
    Speech and swallow problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Supranuclear gaze palsy (Parksinsons plus)

A
  • Pt has difficulty with voluntary down gaze
  • Poor response to dopamine
  • ?PEG feeding due to pseudo bulbar palsy
  • 5yrs to incapacity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Dementia with Lewy Bodies/ Parkinson’s Disease Dementia

A
  • Progressive, degenerative dementia
  • Cognitive impairment precede motor signs
  • Visual hallucinations
  • Fluctuating cogntive funciton excessive daytime somnolence
  • Anterograde memory loss
  • Delusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are some acute causes of headache

A
  • infection: meningitis/encephalitis
  • haemorrhage: SAH, extradural
  • venous sinus thrombosis
  • sinusitis
  • low pressure headache: CSF leak
  • acute glaucoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are some chronic causes of headache?

A
  • tensions headache
  • migraine
  • cluster headache
  • trigeminal headache
  • raised ICP
  • medication overuse headache
  • GCA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Migraine symptoms

A
  • Unilateral

- Pulsatile headaches- last up to 24 hours with nausea and photophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Causes of migraine

A

CHOCOLATE

  • chocolate
  • OCP
  • caffiene
  • alcohol
  • travel
  • exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Treatment of migraines

A

acute- NSAIDs, triptans
chronic- BB, amitriptyline topiramate
IF aura- cant use OCP
topiramate = teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Symptoms of cluster headache

A
  • Unilateral pain around the eye
  • Watery./bloodshot eye
  • Clusters of headaches followed by pain free periods for months or years
  • 15 mins> 3hrs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Management for cluster headaches

A
  • Oxygen 12L/min 100% for 15 mins?
  • Sumatriptan - acute
  • verapamil - prevent
50
Q

Symptoms of Trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • Unilateral face pain in V3 distribution

very severe, electric shock pain for a few seconds

51
Q

Treatment of Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Carbamezapine (lamotrogine, phenytoin, gabapentin)

- microvascular decompression

52
Q

Symtoms of a tension headache

A
  • 30 mins> 7 days
    • Photophobia OR phonophobia
    • Bilateral, pressing, mild/moderate
      NOT AGGRAVATED BY EXERCISE
53
Q

Symptoms of GCA

A

Tired, achy jaw when eating and curtains drop down over eyes- amaurosis fugax

  • shaving, change in temp
  • Raised CRP
  • temporal artery biopsy = neg
54
Q

GCA management

A
  • steroids > prednisolone 60mg
  • PPI
  • bisphosphonates
55
Q

Important things about subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • Thunderclap headache (max severity in seconds)
  • star shape on CT, rupture of berry aneurysm (associated with PKD, coarctation of the aorta, Ehlers-Danlos)
  • 12 hours after- lumbar puncture- xanthchroma
56
Q

Treatment of SAH

A
  • nimodipine (CCB)- prevent artery spasm
  • drainage
  • saline
57
Q

Important things about a subdural haemorrhage

A
  • head injury > vein rupture, latent period - crescent on CT (8-10 wks later clot breaks down and ICP raises)
  • headache, drowsiness, confusion
  • chronic- dark blood, acute white blood
  • at risk- elderly, alcoholics, shaken babies
    Tx- surgical removal
58
Q

Important things about a extradural haemorrhage

A

trauma to temporal bone > bleed form middle meningeal artery

  • egg shape (biconvex) - CT
  • needs immediate surgical drainage
  • lucid period
  • GCS drops suddenly
  • accurate symptoms
59
Q

What to do in intracerebral haemorrhage

A
  • Check warfarin INR, consider reversal with vit K
    (too much warfarin INR^, vit K decreases INR)
  • if platelets are low, do platelet infusion
60
Q

What percentage of strokes are ischaemic vs haemorrhagic

A

ischaemic 85%

haemorrhagic 15%

61
Q

Risk factors for stroke

A
  • HTN, smoking, DM, heart diease:valvular,ischaemic,AF, periperhal vascular disease, prev TIA, COCP, alcohol use, hyperlipidamia, clotting abnormalities
62
Q

Features of a stroke

A
  • LOC
  • seizure activity
  • new acute onset of: asymmetric facial, arm, leg weakness, speech disturbance, visual field defect
63
Q

Treatment of an ischaemic stroke

A

Stabilise, 300mg aspirin

thrombolysis <4.5hr (alteplase)

64
Q

Secondary prevention of stroke

A
  • Modify risk factors: HTN, statin, smoking, weight loss
  • Clopidogrel 75mg (aspirin or dipyridamole if not tolerated)
  • Carotid endarterectomy
65
Q

Define TIA

A
  • Stroke symptoms lasting <24 hours
66
Q

What is the risk score for TIA

A

ABCD2- risk of a stroke following a TIA

  • Age >60yrs
  • Blood pressure >140/90
  • Clinical features of the event( unilateral weakness, speech disturbance without weakness, other)
  • Duration of symptoms (over 60 mins, 10-59 mins, less than 10 mins)
  • Diabetes
67
Q

Management of TIA

A
  • Conservative (reduce BP, cholesterol, control diabetes, diet and exercise, DVLA- can’t drive for 1 month)
  • Clopidogrel 75mg or aspirin or dipyridamole if not tolerated
  • Carotid endarectomy if >70% occlusion
68
Q

S&S of anterior and middle cerebral artery infarct (total anterior circulation infarct)

A
  • Unilateral and/or hemisensory loss
  • Homonymous hemianopia
  • Dysphasia/dysarthria
69
Q

S&S of posterior circulation infarct

A
  • Vestibulbobasilar arteries
  • Cerebellar syndromes
  • Loss of consciousness
  • Homonymous hemianopia
70
Q

S&S of lacunar infarct

A
  • Perforating arteries (supplying internal capsule and basal ganglia)
  • Pure sensory or pure motor or pure sensorimotor
  • Ataxic hemiparesis
71
Q

What is Weber’s syndrome?

A
  • Ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral weakness
72
Q

What happens when there is a lesion on basilar artery

A
  • Locked in syndrome

- Paralysed but higher thought functioning is normal

73
Q

What is amaurosis fugax

A
  • Retinal artery > embolism

- Curtain coming down over vision

74
Q

Causes of seizures

A
  • Epilepsy
  • Febrile convulsions
  • Alcohol withdrawal seizures
  • Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures
  • Brain injury
  • Infection
  • Trauma
  • Metabolic disturbance
75
Q

When to start treatment of seizures

A
  • Anti-seizure treatment usually started after 2nd seizure

- Or after 1st if neurological deficit, structural abnormality, positive EEG, risk of a further seizures is unacceptable

76
Q

Treatment of generalised seizure

A
  • Sodium valproate (teratogenic)

- 2nd line- Lamotrigine, carbamazepine

77
Q

Treatment of partial/focal seizures

A
  • Carbamazepine

- 2nd: leveritacetam (keppra)

78
Q

Treatment of absence seizures

A
  • Sodium valproate or ethosuximide

- CARBAMAZEPINE CAN WORSEN ABSENCE SEIZURES

79
Q

What medication should pregnant women avoid

A
  • Sodium valproate > can cause neural tube defects
  • Phenytoin > can cause cleft palate
  • instead use lamotrigine, carbamazepine
80
Q

Describe a complex partial seizure

A
  • A disturbance of consciousness or awareness
81
Q

Describe a generalised seizure

A
  • Widespread seizure activity in both hemispheres

- can be absence, tonic clonic, myoclonic, atonic

82
Q

Describe a focal/partial seizure

A
  • Seizure activity is limited to a part of one hemisphere

- Focus= site in brain where seizures began

83
Q

Describe an absence seizure

A
  • Brief episode where patient appears blank/staring
84
Q

Describe a tonic clonic seizure

A
  • Muscle rigidity followed by repeated contraction and relaxation (shaking)
85
Q

Describe a myoclonic seizure

A
  • Brief, rapid, muscle jerks
86
Q

Describe an atonic seizure

A
  • Drop attacks

- Lose muscle tone and drop to ground

87
Q

What causes multiple sclerosis

A

T cell mediated immune response, causing demyelinated plaques in the CNS

88
Q

Visual symptoms of MS

A
  • Optic neuritis (unilateral eye pain on movement and loss of central vision)
  • Optic atrophy
  • Uthoff’s- worsening of visual symptoms when body temp is high
89
Q

Other symptoms of MS

A
  • Numbness, tingling, trigeminal neuralgia
  • Lhermittes syndrome: paraesthsia in limbs on neck flexion
  • Spastic weakness
  • Cerebellar signs (ataxia, diplopia, intention tremor)
  • Urinary incontinence
  • Sexual dysfunction
  • Intellectual deterioration
90
Q

Who does MS tend to affect

A
  • Woman
  • 20-40
  • Temperate climate (low vit D)
91
Q

What is needed for a diagnosis of MS

A
  • 2 lesions disseminated by time and space - McDonald criteria
  • MRI- demyelinated plaques
92
Q

Types of MS

A
  • Relapsing-remitting (85%)
  • Primary progressive (10%)
  • Secondary progressive
93
Q

Management of MS

A
  • Reduce stress
  • Vit D
  • Methylprednisolone for 5 days (shorten acute relapses)
  • DMARDs (beta interferon- reduces number of relapses)(azathioprine)(glatiramer acetate) treats spasticity, bladder dysfunction
94
Q

What is Huntington’s Disease

A
  • Autosomal dominant (50% inheritance chance)- gene on chromosome 4
  • Neurodegenerative
  • Progressive
  • Incurable
  • Degeneration of cholinergic and GABA neurones in striatum of basal ganglia
95
Q

Features of HD

A
  • Personality changes (irritability, apathy, depression)
  • Lack of coordination, unsteady gait
  • Chorea (overshooting, unintentional movements)
  • Dystonia/hypotonia
  • Intention tremor
  • Saccadic eye movement
  • Fits
  • Intellectual impairment
  • Progressive dementia
96
Q

Management of HD

A
  • No curative treatment
  • MDT approach (genetic counsellors, SALT, dietician, PT, OT, palliative care, psychologists)
  • Symptom control
  • Dopamine antagonists eg tetrabenazine for chorea
97
Q

Prognosis of HD

A

Usually die within 20yrs after symptoms develop. Usually from pneumonia, heart disease, suicide, choking, malnutrition

98
Q

What is Motor Neurone Disease

A
  • Degenerative condition that affects motor neurones: motor cortex (UMN), cranial nerve nuclei (UMN/LMN), anterior horn cells (LMN)
  • SOD2 gene mutation- rare familiar cause
99
Q

Subtypes of MND

A
  • ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis)
  • Progressive bulbar palsy (rare)
  • Progressive muscular atrophy
  • Primary lateral sclerosis
100
Q

What is not affected in MND

A
  • No sensory involvement or cerebellar signs

- Never affects eye movement

101
Q

MND: ALS S&S

A
  • 40+
  • LMN- progressive limb weakness (often upper limn), wasting of thenar/tibialis anterior, fasciculation’s
  • UMN- hypertonia, brisk reflexes, upgoing plantars, spasticity
  • Loss of motor neurones in motor cortex and anterior horn cells
102
Q

MND: Progressive bulbar palsy S&S

A
  • Muscles of talking, chewing and swallowing affected
  • Absent jaw jerk (LMN)
  • ## Tongue paralysed, no fasciculation’s, increased jaw jerk and pharyngeal reflex (UMN)
103
Q

MND: Progressive muscular atrophy S&S

A
  • Purely LMN
  • Wasting, often in small muscles of hand
  • Distal muscles affected first
  • May be unilateral start > bilateral
104
Q

MND: Primary lateral sclerosis

A
  • Affects purely UMN
105
Q

Investigations for MND

A
  • Nerve conduction studies (exclude peripheral neuropathy/myopathy)
  • Electromyography
  • MRI- exclude cervical cord compression, MS and myelopathy
106
Q

Management of MND

A
  • Feeding and respiratory support > overnight non-invasive ventilation
  • MDT approach> OT, SALT, PT, dieticians, MND specialists nurses
  • Riluzole: prolongs survival by a few months
  • Hyoscine: for drooling
  • Baclofen: for spasticity
  • Anti depressants
107
Q

What causes Guillain-Barre syndrome

A
  • Immune mediated demyelination fo the peripheral nervous system
  • Infection a couple weeks prev (classically campylobacter)
108
Q

Features of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A
  • Ascending weakness (proximal muscles affected first, affecting lower limbs before upper)
  • prev infection couple weeks before
  • Little sensory disturbance
  • Arreflexia
  • Cranial nerve dysfunction > diplopia
  • Autonomic dysfunction > sweating, tachycardia, arrhythmias, urinary retention
109
Q

Investigations of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A
  • Nerve conduction studies= slow
  • CSF: raised protein, normal WCC
  • Anti-GM1 antibodies (in 25% of patients)
110
Q

Management of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A
  • IV immunoglobulin for 5 days (IVIg)
  • Plasma exchange (IVIg could be contraindicated so do this)
  • 85% will make full recovery
111
Q

What is Miller-Fisher syndrome

A
  • A varient of Guillain-Barre
  • Opthalmoplegia, ataxia, arreflexia (eyes affected first)
  • Descending paralysis
112
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis

A
  • Autoimmune disease
  • Fatiguability due to fewer available AChRs at NMJ
  • You would find Ach-R and MuSK
113
Q

Features of MG

A
  • Female, 30-50
  • Other autoimmune diseases
  • Increasing muscular fatigue
    On order- extra ocular (ptosis, diplopia), bulbar (swallowing, chewing, dysphonia), face, neck, limbs(proximal), girdle, trunk
  • Normal tendon reflexes > a brisk, one off muscle contraction is possible in normal and MG
114
Q

Signs of MG

A
  • Peek sign- after 30 secs of forced eyelid closure, the patient is unable to keep the lids fully closed
  • myasthenic snarl- May be observed when patient tries to smile,
115
Q

Investigations of MG

A
  • Antibodies: anti-AChR, MuSK
  • CT thorax > thymus
  • Ice test > ice applied to affected lid and ptosis improves
  • Tensilon - + result shows improvmentn in muscular strength after administration
116
Q

Treatment of MG

A
  • Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors > slow down re-uptake of Ach eg pyridostigme, neostigme. (cholinergic s/e- ^parasympathetic activation, ^salivation, lacrimation, sweats, vomiting, miosis)
  • Immunosuppressants for relapses eg prednisolone, azathioprine, methotrexate
  • Thyectomy
117
Q

What is a myasthenic crisis

A
  • weakness of resp muscles
  • may need intubation and ventilation
  • treat with plasmapheresis/ IVIg
  • Treat trigger > infections, medications, post op
118
Q

Causes of depression

A
  • Drugs eg BB, opioids
  • metabolic eg anaemia, B12/foalte def, cancer
  • Infective eg post viral, UTI
  • Infalmmatory eg temporal arteritis
  • intracranial eg post stroke, parkinsons, delirium, dementia
119
Q

Tx of depression

A
  • Antidepressants eg SSRIs- vascular depression often responds poorly to htis
  • talking therpies
    social inclusion and community support
    ECT
120
Q

Blackout differentials

A
  • vasovagal syncope
  • cardiac syncopee
  • non epileptic attacks
  • intermittent hydrocephalus (rare)
  • migraine (if no loss of awareness)