COTE Flashcards

1
Q

What are risk factors for falls?

A
  • Motor problems: gait/balance
  • Sensory impairment
  • Cognitive/mood impairment: dementia, delirium
  • Orthostatic hypotension
  • Polypharmacy
  • Drugs (sedatives, alcohol))
  • Environmental hazards: poor lighting
  • Incontinence
  • Fear of falling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Causes of falling in the elderly

A
  1. Drugs (sedative, alcohol)
  2. MSK eg OA of the hip
  3. Syncope (vasovagal, cardiogenic, arrhythmias)
  4. Stroke/TIA
  5. Hypoglycaemia
  6. Visual impairment
  7. Dementia
  8. Poor environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is hyperactive delirium?

A

Characterised by being highly alert and uncooperative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is hypoactive delirium?

A

More common, you sleep more and become inattentive and disorganised with daily task you might miss meals or appointments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clinical features of delirium

A
  • Globally impaired cognition, perception and consciousness which develops over hours/days
  • Marked memory deficit
  • Disordered or disorientated thinking
  • Reversal of the sleep-wake cycle
  • Tactile or visual hallucinations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Risk factors of delirium

A

> 65

  • Dementia/previous cognitive
  • Impairment
  • Hip fracture
  • Acute illness
  • Psychological agitation (eg pain)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Causes of delirium

A
PINCH ME
Pain
Infection (systemic or intracranial) 
Nutrition (thiamine, nicotinic acid or B12 def) 
Constipation> Retention
Hydration
Metabolism/medication (uraemia, liver failure, Na, glucose) (withdrawal)
Environment
Surgery/post GA
Vascular (stroke, MI) 
Hypoxia (resp or cardiac failure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What tests do you do with someone you suspect to be delirius?

A

Look for cause (eg UTI, pneumonia, MI)

  • FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, ABG, septic screen (urine dipstick, CXR, blood cultures), malaria film, ECg, CT, EEG
  • Look for increased calcium
  • Haemantics (B12 and folate)
  • INR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Management of delirium

A
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Reorientate patient
  • Encourage visits from family and friends
  • Try no tot move around wards much
  • Monitor fluid
  • Mobilise and encourage activity
  • Practice sleep regime
  • Avoid or remove catheteres, IV cannula
  • Watch out for infection
  • Review medication
  • Avoid medication if possible, IM haloperidol, BDZ if needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 3 main features of Parkinson’s?

A
  • Resting tremor
  • Bradykinesia
  • Rigidity (cog-wheel)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the tremor like in Parkinson’s?

A
  • Pill rolling (slow)
  • Worse at rest
  • Asymmetrical
  • Reduced on distraction
  • Reduced on movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Underlying pathophysiology of Parkinson’s

A

Loss of dopaminergic neurones in substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What class of drugs is normally combined with L-Dopa to prevent peripheral side effects?

A
  • L-dopa carboxylase inhibitor (carbidopa or benzeraide)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Complications of L-dopa therapy

A
  • Postural hypotension on starting treatment
  • Confusion
  • hallucinations
  • L-dopa induced dyskinesias
  • On-off effect: fluctuations in motor performance between normal function (on) and restricted mobility (off)
  • Shortening duration of action of each dose (ie end dose deterioration, where dyskinesias become more prominent at the end of the duration of action
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define dementia

A

A chronic progressive illness, which is irreversible. There is preserved attention and consciousness with no underlying medical cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe delirium

A

Acute onset, fluctuating course, inattention, altered level of consciousness, usually reversible, associated with underlying medi al condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vascular Dementia

A
  • Step wise progression

- Caused by problems with the blood supply to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Alzheimer’s Dementia

A
  • Most common type, progressive
  • Loss of ability to learn, process and retain new information
  • Looks atrophic on CT/MRI
  • 5 ‘a’s- amnesia
    aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, apathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pathophysiology of Alzheimer’s Dementia

A
  • Neurofibrillary tangle
  • Loss of neurones
  • Aggregation of beta-amyloid plaques
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Management of Alzheimer’s

A
  • CT/MRI- atrophic
  • Supportive
  • AChE inhibitors (Donepezil, Rivastigmine, Galatine)
  • Memantine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a ‘Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment’ designed to do?

A
  • Identify health problems and establish a management plan in older patient with frailty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What domains are taken into account in the CGA?

A
  • Physical health
  • Mental health
  • Social aspects
  • Functional aspects
  • Environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who are involved in the CGA?

A
  • Geriatrician
  • Nurses
  • Pharmacist
  • OT
  • Physio
  • SALT
  • Dietician
  • Social worker
    etc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Complications of a long lie following a fall?

A
  • Pressure ulcers
  • Dehydration
  • Rhabdomyolysis - results from death of muscle fibres and release contents into blood stream- leads to kidney failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Investigations to do if you see a pressure ulcer

A
  • Risk score to assess risk of developing = Waterlow score
  • CRP, ESR
  • WCC
  • Swabs
  • Blood cultures
  • Xray for bone involvement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Management of pressure ulcer

A
  • Antibiotics
  • Wound dressing
  • Pain relief
  • Debridement if grade 3/4
27
Q

Define ‘osteoporosis’

A

Decreased bone mineral density due to imbalance between remodelling and resorption
T score less than -2.5

28
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis

A
  • Smoking
  • Early menopause
  • Steroid use
  • Underweight
  • Inactivity
  • Alcohol
  • ALL ELDERLY PEOPLE
29
Q

Most common fractures in those with osteoporosis

A
  • Hip
  • Spinal
  • NOF
30
Q

How is osteoporosis diagnosed?

31
Q

What does the FRAX score assess

A

The risk of a 10 yr fragility fracture

32
Q

How is osteoporosis managed?

A

Bisphosphonates

33
Q

Presentation of Vit C deficiency

A
  • Bleeding from gums

- Extensive bruising on legs (unrelated to falls)

34
Q

Management of Vit C

A
  • Correct the def > MDT approach to malnourishment
35
Q

How is Nutritional Status assessed?

A
  • Using the ‘MUST’ screening tool > Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool
36
Q

What is Refeeding Syndrome?

A
  • Metabolic disturbances as a result of reinstating nutrition to patients who are starved/severely malnourished
37
Q

Biochemical features of refeeding syndrome

A
  • Hypophosphataemia
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Thiamine deficiency
  • Abnormal glucose metabolism
38
Q

Complications of Refeeding syndrome

A
  • Cardiac arrhythmias
  • Convulsions
  • Cardiac failure
39
Q

How should you manage Refeeding Syndrome

A
  • Monitor blood biochemistry

- Commence re-feeding with guidelines

40
Q

What are the four ‘I’s of Geriatrics Giants

A
  • Immobility
  • Incontinence
  • Incompetence
  • Impaired homeostasis
41
Q

What is receptive aphasia

A

Difficulty comprehending

- Wernicke’s area

42
Q

Expressive Aphasia

A
  • Difficulty producing language

- Broca’s area

43
Q

Lewy body dementia

A
  • Day-to-day fluctuating cognition
  • Visual hallucinations
  • Sleep disturbance
  • Recurrent falls
  • Parkinsons
    DON’T PRESCRIBE NEUROEPILEPTIC DRUG AS MAKES PATIENT WORSE
44
Q

Vascular dementia

A
  • No atherosclerotic risk factors; multiple cerebral infarcts
  • Step wise deterioration in cognition
  • Can get focal neurology
  • Fits
  • Nocturnal confusion
45
Q

What is Pick’s disease and what are the symptoms

A
  • A type of front-temporal dementia
  • Disinhibition
  • Antisocial behaviour
  • Personality changes
  • Knife-blade atrophy
46
Q

Symptoms of Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

A
  • Wet, whacky, wobbly
  • Urinary incontinence
  • Dementia
  • Gait disturbance
  • Due to increased CSF, b ut ventricles dilate
47
Q

Name some cognitive assessment tools

A
  • MMSE
  • Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination tool III (ACE-III)
  • Montreal cognitive assessment (MOCA)
  • Abbreviated mental test score (AMT)
  • 6-item cognitive impairment test (6-CIT)
  • General practitioner assessment of cognition (GP COG)
48
Q

What is involved in a septic screen

A
  • Urine dipstick
  • CXR
  • Blood cultures
  • ABG- lactate
  • Bloods- infection?
  • Lumbar puncture
  • ECG
49
Q

What is involved in a CGA for discharge planning

A

Medical assessment: diagnosis and treatment, co-morbid conditions and disease severity review- doctor/consultant
Functional assessment: ADL, gait, balance- OT, physio
Physiological assessment: cognition, mood- nurse, psychiatrist
Social assessment: care resources, finances- social workers
Environmental assessment:- home safety team

50
Q

What is the bone profile in osteoporosis

A
  • Normal
  • Calcium, phosphate, and alk phos are all normal
  • Bloods can help identify cause/risk factors for osteoporosis
51
Q

Define osteopenia

A
  • Precursor to osteoporosis

- T score -1 to -2.5

52
Q

What is osteomalacia

A
  • Softening of bones due to impaired bone metabolism from inadequate levels of calcium, phosphate and vit D
53
Q

What does parathyroid hormone do?

A
  • Increases osteoclast activity- release calcium and phosphate from bones
  • Increases calcium reabsorption but decreases phosphate reabsorption from the kidneys
  • Active vit D production is increased- increases calcium absorption from the gut and decreases phosphate
54
Q

What is the role of vit D

A
  • increases calcium absorption from the gut
55
Q

Metabolite changes in muscle breakdown cause what?

A

Increased: potassium, phosphate, myoglobin, creatinine kinase
Myoglobin is harmful to kidneys as it causes acute tubular necrosis
Increased potassium- increased risk of arrhythmias- do an ECG

56
Q

What is Rhabdomyolysis

A

Skeletal muscle breaks down due to traumatic, chemical or metabolic injury

57
Q

What causes Rhabdomyolysis

A
  • Crush injuries
  • Prolonged immobilisation following a fall
  • Prolonged seizure activity
  • Hyperthermia
  • Neuroepileptic malignancy syndrome
58
Q

Management of Rhabdomyolysis

A
  • Supportive
  • IV fluids
  • Correction of electrolytes
  • Renal replacement therapy
59
Q

What does hyperkalaemia look like on an ECG

A
  • Peaked T waves
  • Prolonged PR segment
  • Loss of P waves
  • ST elevation
  • Broad QRS
  • ST elevation
  • Sine wave pattern
  • Ventricular fibrillation
60
Q

Management of hyperkalaemia

A
  • Calcium glutinate (cardioprotective)
  • Bicarbonates
  • Insulin
  • Glucose (drives potassium into cells)
  • Kalayexalate ( bind K+ in the GI tract)
  • Diuretics- dialysis if kidneys are not okay
61
Q

Depression in the elderly

A
  • Some physical illness can give similar symptoms
  • Depression can make you think your long term illnesses are worsening even if they aren’t
  • Depression can affect your memory
  • Antidepressants in older people can lower amount of salt in blood- can make feel weak and unsteady
62
Q

What is the biggest cause of hypercalcaemia in older people

A

Hyperparathyroidism

63
Q

How do diuretics work in heart failure

A
  • In heart failure there is an increased preload and therefore decreased flow to kidneys
  • If you start on diuretics it will start looking like its damaging the kidneys as its dehydrating them
  • But really it is reducing the preload which then will increase the output and therefore in the long run increases the flow to the kidneys (Stalin model)