Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards studying > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Which nerve root:
Innervates part of hamstring via tibial protion of sciatic nerve
Is responsible for the achilles tendon reflex
Has a dermatome that includes the lateral part of the foot

A

S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the nerve roots for the femoral nerve?

A

L2-L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What action does the femoral nerve perform?

A

Knee and hip extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the nerve roots for the obturator nerve?

A

L2-L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the obturator nerve do?

A

Hip adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What nerve root is responsible for the patellar reflex?

A

L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the dermatome of L4?

A

Medial aspect of the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the deep peroneal nerve do?

A

Dorsiflexion of the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the root of the deep peroneal nerve

A

L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What vessels are torn in a subdural hematoma?

A

Cerebral bridging veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the radiographic findings of a subdural hematoma?

A

Crescent shaped
Doesn’t cross midline but can involve the falx
Crosses many suture lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does meningeal vessel damage result in?

A

Epidural hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the radiographic findings of an epidural hemorrhage?

A

Biconvex appearance, never dips into the falx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the cushing reflex?

A

Hypertension and bradycardia in response to changes in cerebral perfusion pressure.

CPP= MAP-ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Guillan Barre syndrome?

A

Acute idiopathic inflammatory polynueropathy that usually follows a URI or GI infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Guillan Barre

A

Autoimmune attack of myelin in peripheral nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does loss of the extensor plantar reflex indicate?

A

UMN lesion involving contralateral motor cortex or cortical spinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does rupture of the MMA result in?

A

Epidural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What can be a complication of MMA rupture and why?

A

Anisocoria since the MMA goes through the foramen spinosum, which is near where CNIII exits the skull in the middle cranial fossa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the cells and molecule primarily responsible for MS plaques? Are there axons left?

A

Demyelination but preservation of axons. Th1 cells that secrete interferon gamma cause the demylination by activating macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CNVII nuclei damage results in what?

A

Whole side of face drooping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cortex damage controlling face expression results in what? Why?

A

Only lower side of face drooping since upper facial muscles can get signals from both hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What nucleii can be damaged in lateral medullary syndrome? What does this result in?

A

Vestibular and cochlear resulting in nausea and vomiting (Vestibular nuclei)
Dysphagia from nucleus ambiguus (X)
Loss of pain/temp in ipsilateral face (V)
Loss of pain/temp in contralteral body (spinothalamic tract)
Horner syndrome (loss of sympathetic innervation to the eye-miosis/ptosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What artery is frequently occluded to give lateral medullary syndrome?

A

PICA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where does intraparenchymal hemorrhage often affect?

A

Basal ganglia/internal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What goes through the foramen ovale?

A

Mandibular nerve which is responsible for mastication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where does the auriculotemporal nerve sense?

A

Anterior half of the external ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where does the auricular branch of vagues sense?

A

Posterior half of external ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where does the greater auricular nerve sense

A

Lower part of auricle

30
Q

Where does the lesser occipital nerve sense on the ear?

A

Upper part of auricle

31
Q

What are the 5 places that CN IX affects?

A

1) somatic sensation from posterior pharynx
2) Taste/somatic sensation from posterior 1/3 of tongue
3) Afferents from carotid body/sinus
4) Motor efferents to stylopharyngeus
5) Parasympathetic efferents to parotid gland

32
Q

Where does the olfactory bulb project to?

A

Piriform cortex

33
Q

What happens if the thyroglossal duct proximal end doesn’t regress?

A

Thyroid cyst lesion on midline of the neck

34
Q

Pilocytic astrocytoma: kids or adults?

A

Kids/young adults

35
Q

Pilocytic astrocytoma: location?

A

Posterior fossa

36
Q

Pilocytic astrocytoma: IHC

A

Rostenthal fibers, immunostaining with GFAP

37
Q

Sensory and motor fibers, wrist and elbow flexion, elbow extension, arm abduction. Sensation over deltoid and first 3 digits. Which nerve root?

A

C6

38
Q

Lens opacification is seen in what disease process?

A

Cataracts

39
Q

Imipramine is what?

A

TCA that blocks serotonin, NE re-uptake

40
Q

HIV encephalitis shows what histologically?

A

Multi-nucleated giant cells

41
Q

What muscles do the superior gluteal nerve innervate?

A

Gluteus medius and minimus

42
Q

Where does the superior gluteal nerve exit the greater sciatic foramen?

A

Upper border of the sciatic foramen

43
Q

What muscle does the inferior gluteal nerve innervate?

A

Gluteus maximus

44
Q

Where does the inferior gluteal nerve exit the greater sciatic foramen?

A

Lower border of the sciatic foramen

45
Q

What does the pudendal nerve innervate?

A

The perineum

46
Q

Where does the pudendal nerve exit the sciatic formaen?

A

The lower border.

47
Q

What does the sciatic nerve innervate?

A

The posterior compartment of the thigh and leg (hip and knee flexion), the plantar foot muscles.

48
Q

Where does the sciatic nerve exit the greater sciatic foramen?

A

The lower border.

49
Q

What muscles does the obturator nerve innervate?

A

Adductors and medial rotators of the thigh.

50
Q

Where does the obturator nerve exit the greater sciatic foramen?

A

It doesn’t, it exits via the obturator canal.

51
Q

What is the common presentation of retinoblastoma?

A

Mutlifocal or bilateral tumors in the eye.

52
Q

What is the genetic abnormality underlying familial retinoblastoma? What chromosome is it on? What other cancers is it associated with?

A

Loss of Rb tumor suppressor, which normally prevents the cells from exiting G1, allowing tumor growth. It’s located on chromosome 13. Also associated with osteosarcoma

53
Q

What would be the presentation of sporadic retinoblastoma?

A

Unilateral

54
Q

What is the IHC of retinoblastoma?

A

Neruoepithelial cells that form rosettes.

55
Q

What is the first step in catecholamine synthesis?

A

Conversion of tyrosine to dopa by tyrosine hydroxylase (rate limiting step)

56
Q

How is dopa converted into dopamine?

A

By dopa decarboxylase

57
Q

Where and how is dopamine converted into norepinepherine?

A

In terminal vesicles, dopamine beta-hydroxylase acts on dopamine to produce norepinepherine.

58
Q

How is epinepherine made?

A

NE is converted to epinepherine by the enzyme phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase (PNMT), which is induced by cortisol during periods of stress. SAM is the methyl donor. This enzyme exists in the cytoplasm and can act make epi if NE diffuses out of terminal vesicles. Epi can be repackaged into vesicles and then secreted.

59
Q

You see apatient with difficulty extending the left thigh and flexing the knee. He aslo has pain in the posterior thigh, the lateral leg and foot. What does he have?

A

Compression of the sciatic nerve (sciatica).

60
Q

What are the clinical findings that differentiate diffuse lewy body disease from parkinsons? (name 3)

A

1) Dementia is more common with diffuse lewy body disease than in Parkinsons Disease (but PD patients can have dementia)
2) Involvement of cortical regions is more common in diffuse Lewy Body disease
3) Lewy Body disease has extrapyramidal symptoms and visual hallucinations.

61
Q

What is the treatment of choice for OCD?

A

SSRIs (fluoxetine) are treatment of choice.

Clomipramine is a TCA that also can be used to treat OCD

62
Q

What are cells that derive from the neural crest (7)?

A

Pseudounipolar cells of spinal and cranial ganglia

Autonomic ganglia

Schwann cells

Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla

Odontoblasts

Melanocytes

Meninges (pia and arachnoid)

63
Q

What is arnold chiari type I malformation?

A

Cerebellar tonsils herniate through the foramen magnum. Usually asymptomatic, but can have headache and neck pain

64
Q

What is arnold chiari type II malformation?

A

Hindbrain, cerebellar vermis and fourth ventricle herniate into the foramen magnum.

65
Q

What other condition is associated with Arnold-Chiari type II?

A 
Meningomyeloceles
Hydrocephalus (due to CSF obstruction)
Brainstem dysfunction (poor swallowing
66
Q

How does benign essential tremor usually present?

A

Progressive bilateral, postural tremor usually not associated with other neurologic symptoms.
Usually a 6-12 Hz tremor primarily affecting the arms

67
Q

How do you treat benign essential tremor?

A

Antagonist of beta adrenergic receptors

68
Q

How do benzo’s work?

A

Increase the frequency of GABAa channel opening

69
Q

What is status epilepticus? How does it present? What are the drugs of choice?

A

30 min + of continuous seizure activity or repetitive seizures while in a continuus unconscious state. Patient usually falls to the floor. Benzos are the drugs of choice for this.

70
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

Autoantibodies against skeletal muscle nACh receptors

71
Q

How is myasthenia gravis treated?

A

With Achesterase inhibitors (neostigmine and pyridostigmine) which act by carbamylating Achesterase.

72
Q

What is used to treat migraines? What is the molecular target of these drugs.

A

The triptans: 5-HT 1D/B agonists

Boards studying (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions