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Lifespan Patho Final > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What structures make up the CNS?

A

Brain

Spinal Cord

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2
Q

What makes up the PNS?

A

Cranial Nerves

Spinal Nerves

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3
Q

Name the 2 Peripheral Nerve Pathways.

A
  1. Afferent (ascending; Sensory)

2. Efferent (Descending; Motor)

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4
Q

What does the Somatic Nervous System do?

A

Regulates Voluntary MOTOR control

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5
Q

What does the Autonomic Nervous System do?

A

Regulates internal environment through Involuntary (Automatic) control via
Sympathetic and Parasympathetic systems

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6
Q

What is the Function of the Neuron?

A

Communication

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7
Q

What are Neurons?

A

Specialized cells used for Communication

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8
Q

What feature is unique to Neurons?

A

They utilize Glucose (but do not require Insulin for uptake) for fuel.

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9
Q

Name the 3 components of a Neuron

A
  1. Cell body (Soma)
  2. Dendrites
  3. Axons
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10
Q

Where is the Soma (cell body) located?

A

CNS

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11
Q

What do Dendrites do?

A

Carry nerve impulses “Rite” toward the cell body

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12
Q

What do Axons do?

A

Carry nerve impulses Away from the cell body

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13
Q

Axons are covered by?

A

Myelin Sheath-protective layer

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14
Q

What does the Myelin Sheath do?

A

Speeds conduction of nerve impulses

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15
Q

What are Synapses?

A

Spaces between Neurons where they convey signals

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16
Q

What causes impulses to transmit across Synapses?

A

Chemical conduction by NT’s

Electrical conduction by Change in Membrane Potential

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17
Q

What are the Nodes of Ranvier?

A

The little link between the “sausages” (bundled Axons)

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18
Q

What does binding of NT’s a the Synapse do?

A

Changes Membrane Potential

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19
Q

What 2 responses are caused by Changes in Cell Membrane Potential due to NT’s?

A
  1. Excitatory Response (excitatory post-synaptic potential)

2. Inhibitory Response (inhibitory post-synaptic potiential)

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20
Q

What does Summation mean?

A

The Effect of the NT depends on the # and frequency of potentials
(many NT’s collect and effect the neuron)

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21
Q

Name the 3 areas of the Brain

A

Cerebrum (Forebrain)
Brainstem (Midbrain)
Cerbellum (Hindbrain)

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22
Q

What structures is the Cerebrum (Forebrain) made up of?

A

R/L Hemispheres
Telencephalon (Cerebral Cortex)
Diencephalon (Thalamus, Hypothalamus)

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23
Q

Is there functional crossover between areas of the brain?

A

Yes.

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24
Q

What is CNS Plasticity?

A

It is the brain’s ability to adapt.

AKA “fluidity”

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25
Q

What Lobes of the brain make up the Telencephalon (cerebral cortex) of the Cerbrum?

A

Frontal Lobe
Parietal Lobe
Occipital Lobe
Temporal Lobe

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26
Q

What are the functions of the Frontal Lobe of the Telencephalon?

A

Goal-directed Behavior
Memory, Thought
Broca’s Motor Fxn of Speech

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27
Q

What are the functions of the Parietal Lobe of the Telencephalon?

A

Sensory Input

AKA “Pre-motor” Lobe

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28
Q

What are the functions of the Occipital Lobe of the Telencephalon?

A

Visual Cortex

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29
Q

What are the functions of the Temporal Lobe of the Telencephalon?

A

Wernicke’s Interpretation Fxn of Speech

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30
Q

What area of the brain is effected if someone has trouble saying words?

A

Broca’s Area of the Frontal Lobe of the Telencephalon

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31
Q

What area of the brain is effected if someone can not understand/receive words?

A

Wernicke’s Area of the Temporal Lobe of the Telencephalon

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32
Q

What structures make up the Diencephalon of the Cerebrum (Forebrain)?

A

Epithalamus
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Subthalamus

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33
Q

What does the Epithalamus secrete?

What is it’s function?

A

The Pineal body secretes Melatonin
Regulate Sleep cycle
*the Epithalamus also connects to the Limbic system-Emotion

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34
Q

What does the Thalamus do?

A

Relays signals to the Cortex (Telencephalon)
(Connects aspects of Afferent (ascending) impulses)
Involved in Taste, Sound

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35
Q

What does the Hypothalamus do?

A

Maintains internal environment

Involved in Endocrine Fxn and Pituitary control

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36
Q

What is the Subthalamus part of?

What does it do?

A

It is part of the Basal Ganglia

It is important for Extra-pyramidal movements

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37
Q

What is the Limbic System involved in?

A 
Primitive Behavioral Responses:
Emotion
Eating
Biologic Rhythms
Sense of Smell
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38
Q

Is the Limbic System 1 area of the brain?

A

No, many areas.

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39
Q

Can the Cerberal Cortex (Telecephalon) inhibit the Limbic System (Diencephalon)?

A

Yes

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40
Q

The Brain stem (Midbrain) contains the ____ and ________ ___________.

A

Pons

Medulla Oblangata

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41
Q

What is the the fxn of the Midbrain?

A

Extraoccular Movement

Motor activities A/W hearing

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42
Q

What does the Pons do?

What CN’s innverate it?

A

Controls Respirations

CN 5-7

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43
Q

What does the Medulla Oblangata do?

What CN’s inntervate it?

A

Controls Reflex activities:
HR, RR, B/P, Cough, Sneeze, Swallow, Vomit

CN 9-12

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44
Q

Can a person be “brain dead”, be an organ donor and still be breathing?

A

Yes, because they have brainstem activity

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45
Q

The Cerebellum (Hindbrain) is responsible for….

A

Conscious and Unconscious muscle synergy for balance and posture
(smoothness of movement/coordination)

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46
Q

What structure connects the CNS to the PNS?

A

Spinal Cord

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47
Q

What signals/reflexes does the Spinal Cord conduct?

A

Somatic and Autonomic

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48
Q

The Spinal Cord provides _______ pattern _______ centers

A

Motor

Control

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49
Q

The Gray matter mostly _______ signals

A

Receives

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50
Q

The White matter mostly ______ signals

A

Relays

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51
Q

The Spinal Cord has _________ and ________ pathways

A

Afferent (sensory) and Efferent (motor)

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52
Q

Where are Upper Motor neurons contained?

A

CNS

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53
Q

Where are Lower Motor neurons contained?

What direct influence do they have?

A

Cranial and Spinal Efferent neurons

Effect Muscle

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54
Q

What is a Reflex Arc?

A

Basic Nerve unit that response to Stimuli

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55
Q

What structures are necessary for a Reflex Arc?

A

Receptor
Afferent Neuron
Efferent Neuron

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56
Q

What protects the CNS?

A

Cranium
Meninges
Verterbral Column

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57
Q

Name the 3 layers of the Meninges

A
  1. Dura Mater (outer most)
  2. Arachnoid (middle)
  3. Pia Mater (inner most)
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58
Q

Describe the Dura Mater

A

Thick, Ridgid membrane

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59
Q

Describe the Arachnoid

A

Filmy, WEB membrane

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60
Q

Describe the Pia Mater

A

Very thin, Adheres to Brain and Spinal Cord surface

Provides Support for Vessels, Contains some vessels that supply the Brain

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61
Q

Where is the Subdural Space located?

A

Between Duramater and Arachnoid

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62
Q

Where is the Subarachnoid Space located?

A

Between Arachnoid and Pia Mater

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63
Q

Between each Verterbrae is a _____.

A

Disc

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64
Q

Each Intervertebral Disc contains (2 things)?

A 
Annulus Fibrosis (firmer)
Nucleus Pulposus (water-filled, easily compressed)
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65
Q

What is common source of back problems?

A

Disc problems (herniated, slipped, etc)

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66
Q

When Discs slip out, what happens?

A

Stress on the Spinal Cord or Nerve Roots

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67
Q

What % CO does the brain receive?

A

20% (1/5th)!

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68
Q

What is the primary regulator for CNS blood flow?

A

CO2. It is a potent vasodilator.

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69
Q

What connects the internal arteries of the brain?

What do these allow for?

A

The Circle of Willis

Collateral Blood Flow/Compensation for Blockage of main blood pathway

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70
Q

______ ______ _________ is a capillary bed and membrane with tight junctions that is very selective about what can and can not go through.

A

Blood-Brain-Barrier

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71
Q

The PNS contains what kind of nerves?

A

Mixed-Sensory + Motor

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72
Q

What are Fasicles?

A

Bundles of Myelinated Axons in the PNS

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73
Q

What is a Rami?

A

Bundles of Nerves coming from the Vertebral Column

There are Anterior and Posterior Rami

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74
Q

What come from the Posterior Rami?

A

Dermatomes

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75
Q

What do the Rami form?

A

Plexuses

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76
Q

The Brachial Plexus goes to?

A

Neck and Shoulder

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77
Q

The Lumbar Plexus goes to?

A

Lumbar Area

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78
Q

The Sacral Plexus goes to?

A

Sacral Area

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79
Q

Do the Thoracic Vertebae have Plexuses?

A

No

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80
Q

What do the Plexuses of the Anterior Rami do?

A

They are further bundled down to supply a Large portion of the body.

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81
Q

What are Dermatomes?

A

Skin Innveration (areas of sensation) of the Spinal Nerves

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82
Q

Is the ANS broken down into Afferent and Efferent pathways?

A

No, because they are involuntary/Automatic

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83
Q

Is the ANS is part of the CNS and the PNS?

A

Yes

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84
Q

The ANS is broken down into what 2 parts?

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

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85
Q

Name the collection of nerve fibers that deliver information to the body about stress.

A

Sympathetic (paraverterbral) Ganglia

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86
Q

The Sympathetic NS receives information from what region?

A

Thoracic (thoracolumbar) region

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87
Q

The Parasympathetic NS receives information from what region?

A

Cranial and Sacral (craniosacral) region

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88
Q

What does Pre-Ganglionic mean?

A

From CNS to nerve Ganglia

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89
Q

What does Post-Ganglionic mean?

A

From Ganglia to Effector Organ

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90
Q

In Sympathetic Pre-Ganglionic and Parasympathetic Pre and Post-Ganglionic Fibers, what 2 NT’s receptors are there?

A
  1. Acetylcholine

2. Cholinergic

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91
Q

Sympathetic Post-Ganglionic Fibers have what 2 receptors?

A
  1. Norepinephrine

2. Adrenergic

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92
Q

What Ganglionic Fibers use Norepinephrine?

A

Sympathetic Post-Ganglionic Fibers

used to maintain b/p

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93
Q

What is Nocioception?

A

The perception of pain

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94
Q

What types of stimuli do Nociceptors detect?

A

Wide-range:
Chemical
Thermal
Mechanical

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95
Q

How is Neuropathic pain different?

A

It is caused by damage to the Actual Nerves

96
Q

Acute Pain has 3 types, name them.

A 
Acute Somatic (from body)
Acute Visceral (organ)
Referred pain (pain in a distant from point of origin)--same dermatome
97
Q

Define Chronic pain

A

Greater than 6 months

Hard to tx

98
Q

When are Nociceptors functional in the fetus?

A

20-24 wks GA

99
Q

What is the major clue an infant is in pain?

A

Inconsoability

100
Q

The elderly have increased pain threshold, why?

A

Peripheral Neuropathies

Skin thickness changes

101
Q

Temperature is regulated by?

A

Hypothalamus

102
Q

What does a Fever do?

A

Resets our “thermostat” at a new set point.
It is our body’s response to Pyrogens
-kills many organisms
-deprives bacteria of food

103
Q

Hypothermia does what to cells?

A

Preserves them

104
Q

Name 3 types of Proprioceptive Dysfunction

A
  1. Vestibular Nystagmus
  2. Vertigo
  3. Miniere’s Dz
105
Q

What is Nystagmus?

What is it’s cause?

A

Constant, involuntary movement of the eyball

Overstimulation of semi-circular canal

106
Q

What is Vertigo?

A

Dizziness/sense of spinning

107
Q

What causes Vertigo?

A

Labrynthitis, Vestibular problems, Benign Positional Vertigo, Migraine, Meniere’s Dz, Brain tumors

108
Q

What is Meniere’s Dz?

What causes it?

A

Vertigo + (hearing loss, tinitus)
Idiopathic Vestibular D/O
Otoconia crystals are “off”-they deteriorate w/age. They give our sense of position in space.

109
Q

What are Seizures?

A

Disruption in the balance of excitation and inhibition. Sudden transient alteration in brain electrical function (discharge of electricity)

110
Q

What is the cellular reason for Seizures?

A
  1. Abrupt, explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons
  2. Resting potential instability (meds/genetics)
  3. Bursts of Action Potentials (hypersynchronization)
111
Q

What factors can precipitate seizures?

A 
Lights
Fever
Fatigue
Stress
Hypoglycemia
Hyponatremia
Noises
112
Q

Do all seizures have a Prodroma?

A

No

113
Q

With a Generalized seizure, is there loss of consciousness?

A

Yes-usually bowel and bladder too

114
Q

What are Partial (focal) seizures?

A

Limited to 1 hemisphere, although can become generalized through hypersynchronization

115
Q

What is Status Epilepticus?

A

Prolonged seizure or recurrent seizure before regain of consciousness

116
Q

How long is a typical seizure?

A

~5 min

117
Q

What are the side-effects of seizures?

A

Increase in ATP consumption
Increase cerebral O2 consumption
Increase cerebral blood flow
Available O2 and glucose are depleted

118
Q

What can happen w/Severe Seizures?

A 
More ATP consumed than produced
Lactate accumulates in brain
Hypoxia, Acidosis, Lactate accumulation
Progressive brain tissue injury/destruction
Cellular exhaustion and destruction
119
Q

What is Alzheimer’s Dz?

A

A progressive form of Dementia

120
Q

What is seen in all forms of Alzheimer’s (on Autopsy)?

A

Neurofibrillary Tangles

Senile Plaques

121
Q

What are Clinical Manifestations of Alzheimer’s?

A

Insidiousness Onset of: Forgetfulness, Emotional Upset, Disorientation, Confusion, Lack of Concentration, Decline in Abstraction, Problem-Solving, and Judgement

122
Q

How is Dx of Alzheimer’s made?

A

R/O other causes Dementia

123
Q

What is Parkinson’s Dz?

A

A form of Dementia from:

Severe degeneration of the Basal Ganglia (corpus striatum) involving the Dopamine secreting pathway

124
Q

What S/S would you see in a pt with Parkinson’s Dz?

A 
Rigidity
Bradykinesia
Tremor
Postural Abnormalities
Autonomic Dysfunction
Cognitive-affective Symptoms
125
Q

In Parkinson’s Dz, is Depression Situational or Pathological?

A

Pathological ~50% cases

126
Q

Excessive daytime sleepiness is noted in what condition?

A

Parkinson’s Dz

127
Q

What type of D/O is Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

A

Neurodegenerative D/O

128
Q

What is the other name for ALS?

A

Lou-Gehrig’s Dz

129
Q

What does ALS affect?

A

Diffuse Upper and Lower Motor Neurons of cerebral cortex, brain stem, and spinal cord

130
Q

In ALS, progressive weakness leads to what?

A

Respiratory Failure, Death

131
Q

Does someone with ALS have normal intellectual and sensory function?

A

Yes

132
Q

What is Brain trauma?

A

Traumatic insult to the brain.

133
Q

What changes can traumatic insult to the brain cause?

A 
Physical
Intellectual
Emotional
Social
Vocational
134
Q

Who is at most risk for TBI?

A

*everyone who is not 35-70 y/o
Men are 1.5 x’s
Live in higher crime area

135
Q

Name the 2 types of Brain Trauma

A

Blunt (closed, nonmissile) trauma

Open (penetrating, missile) trauma

136
Q

Name a type of Blunt brain trauma

What type of injury is usually sustained?

A

Concussion from strike to the head

Focal or diffuse

137
Q

Name a type of Open brain trauma

What type of injury is usually sustained?

A

GSW

Usually focal injury

138
Q

What is the #1 reason for Brain Injury?

A

Falls, then MVA’s

139
Q

What is the Hallmark of Severe Brain Injury?

A

LOC greater than 6 hrs

140
Q

What is Focal Brain Injury?

A

Specific, grossly observable lesions/injuries

141
Q

What does the Force of a Focal Brain Injury typically produce?

A

Contusions

142
Q

What can a Focal Brain Injury cause?

A

Hemorrhage:
Extradural (epidural Hemorrhage/Hematoma)
Subdural and Intracerebral Hematoma

143
Q

What is Coup and Contrecoup?

A

In Focal Brain Injury-the connections between the brain and skull get damaged. Can happen all around head even if only 1 part was hit

144
Q

What is an Extradural (Epidural) injury?

A

Arterial bleeding between the Dura and Skull.
Most severe. Serious, Life-Threatening
90% have skull fracture

145
Q

What vasculature is in the Subdural area?

A

Veins

146
Q

What is significant about an Intracerebral Hematoma?

A

Can be small

Many times is r/t increased B/P

147
Q

What is a brain Contusion?

A

Blood leaking from an injured vessel.

severity depends on impact.

148
Q

What are the S/S of a brain Contusion?

A

Increased ICP, Infarction, Necrosis, Multiple Hemorrhages, Loss of consciousness, Transient Apnea, changes in Attention, Memory, Executive Fxn, Affect, Behavior

149
Q

Name an example of Repeated Contusion.

A

Shaken Baby Syndrome

150
Q

What is the most common site for Extradural hematoma?

A

Temporal fossa

151
Q

What are Clinical Manifestations A/W Extradural (Epidural) Hematoma?

A

Unconscious–>Lucid–>Unconscious–>Dead

*there’s no where for blood to go except to squeeze the brain

152
Q

What is the most common Brain Hematoma seen?

What is the most common cause?

A

Subdural Hematoma (venous)

MVA

153
Q

What are the Clinical Manifestations of Subdural Hematoma?

A 
Headache (most prominent symptom)
Drowsiness
Restlessness
Agitation
Slowed cognition
Confusion
154
Q

Can a Subdural Hematoma be Chronic?

A

Yes, and can be managed and be ok.

155
Q

What happens in a Subdural Hematoma?

A

The veins tear causing a Hematoma to develop. Not as Rapid as an Extradural (Epidural) Hematoma.

156
Q

When does an Acute Subdural Hematoma develop?

A

w/in 48 hrs

157
Q

When does a Chronic Subdural Hematoma Develop?

A

Days to weeks

158
Q

What is an Intracerebral Hemorrhage A/W?

A

MVA and Falls, can also from Burst Aneurysm

159
Q

When do Intracerebral Hemorrhages appear?

A

3-10 days after head injury

160
Q

What are the Clinical Manifestations of Intracerebral Hemorrhage?

A

Focal Neurological Deficit
Headache, Vomiting
Decreasing Level OC (not loss)
Pupillary dilation (as it gets worse)

161
Q

What is a Mild Concussion?

A

Temporal Axonal disturbances causing

attention and memory deficits but no LOC

162
Q

What is the grading of a Mild Concussion?

A

1-4
1 and 2 = no LOC
3 = Any LOC

163
Q

What is a Classic Cerebral Concussion?

A

Grade 4; LOC up to 6 hrs
Involves physiological and neurologic dysfunction without substantial anatomic disruption
either: Uncomplicated/No focal injury = No bleeds/fxs OR
Complicated/Focal injury = bleed/fx

164
Q

What is CTE?

A

Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy

165
Q

What causes CTE?

A

Repeated Insults (i.e. football players)

166
Q

What 2 things does Spinal Cord Trauma cause?

A
  1. Neurogenic Shock

2. Autonomic Hyperreflexia (dysreflexia)

167
Q

What is Neurogenic Shock?

A

From Cervical or Thoracic cord Injury
Loss of Sympathetic Outflow:
Vasodilation, Hypotension, Bradycardia, Hypothermia

168
Q

Is Neurogenic Shock Fixed or Transient?

A

Either

169
Q

What is Autonomic Hyperreflexia (dysreflexia)?

A

Usually in early stages of Spinal Cord injury - above T5/T6

Massive Uncompensated cardiovascular response to stim. of SNS

Continual Stim. of Sensory receptors below level of injury–>activates thoracolumbar sympathetic nerves

170
Q

What are the S/S of Autonomic Hyperreflexia (dysreflexia)

How do you relieve it?

A

Severe HTN
Headache
Flushing (fight/flight)

Remove the stimulus, i.e. cath the bladder

171
Q

Name the 2 type of Stroke Syndromes (CVA)

A
  1. Thrombotic Stroke

2. Embolic Stroke

172
Q

What is a Thrombotic stroke?

A

Arterial occlusions caused by Thrombi formed in Arteries

173
Q

What usually causes Thrombotic Stroke?

A

Atherosclerosis

174
Q

What is an Embolic stroke?

A

A thrombus that broke away and traveled

175
Q

What is key with stoke tx?

A

Reverse the blood flow problem before build up of oxidative stress in the brain

176
Q

What is a Cerebral Infarction?

A

Area of brain that loses blood supply and becomes ischemic (from either thrombotic or embolic stroke)

177
Q

What is Hemorrhagic stroke (ICH)?

A

Spontaneous bleeding in the brain

178
Q

What causes Hemorrhagic stroke (ICH)?

A

Hypertension, Ruptured Aneurysms

179
Q

Name the 4 types Intracranial Aneurysm

A
  1. Saccular (berry) aneurysm
  2. Fusiform (giant) aneurysm
  3. Mycotic aneurysm-from bacterial inf.
  4. Traumatic dissecting anurysm
180
Q

What are Aneurysms?

A

Weakening of the wall of the vessel and bleeding (hematoma, and decreased blood flow r/t occlusion, etc.)

181
Q

Name the 2 primary Headache syndromes

A
  1. Migraine

2. Cluster

182
Q

Which type of Headache is more common in women?

A

Migraine

183
Q

Which type of Headache is more common in men?

A

Cluster

184
Q

Do Primary headaches have underlying pathology?

A

No. (structural or chemical)

185
Q

What are some triggers for Migraines?

A

Caffiene
Stress
Allergies
Menstrual Cycle

186
Q

Is an Aura always present with a Migraine?

A

No, Most Do NOT

187
Q

What is a Cluster Headache?

A

A subset of Migraine

Have several attacks/headaches in a day followed by long period without

188
Q

What are S/S of cluster Headaches?

A

Usually Unilateral, Tearing, Burning, Eye Watering on Affected side, Temporal Pain (severe)

189
Q

Does 100% O2 tx Cluster headaches or Migraines?

A

Cluster, relieves them right away

190
Q

Can Tension headaches and Migraines overlap?

A

Yes

191
Q

What type of headache is r/t stress?

A

Tension

192
Q

What is Meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the Meninges

193
Q

What are the 3 types of Meningitis?

A

Bacterial
Viral
Fungal

194
Q

What type of Meningitis is more common in Men?

A

Bacterial

195
Q

What is Bacterial Meningitis?

A

Bacterial infection of the Pia and Arachnoid Mater

196
Q

Which is LESS severe, Bacterial, Viral, or Fungal Meningitis?

A

Viral

197
Q

Who is more susceptible to Fungal Meningitis?

A

People with impaired immune function: CA, HIV, etc.

198
Q

What is Encephalitis?

A

Infection of the Brain

199
Q

Encephalitis is usually _________ in origin

A

Viral w/Nervous System involvement

200
Q

The most common forms of Encephalitis are caused by what 2 things?

A
  1. Arthropod-borne viruses (from Mosquitoes)

2. From HSV

201
Q

What is Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

A

A Progressive, Inflammatory, Autoimmune, Demyelinating D/O of the CNS

202
Q

What happens in MS?

A

The Myelin sheath in CNS neurons (Brain) Degenerates

203
Q

What types of MS are there?

A

Mixed (general)
Spinal-Limb weakness and numbness
Cerebellar-nystagmus and ataxia

204
Q

Who does MS typically effect?

A 
Women more than Men
Age onset usually 20-40 y/o
People w/Vitamin D deficiency
Wide range of debilitation
See scattered, white lesions on MRI
205
Q

What is Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

A PNS Demyelination D/O
Aquired inflammatory Dz, causes Demyelination of Peripheral nerves with sparing of axons
Acuite onset, Ascends from feet up
NOT PROGRESSIVE, reversible
Auto-immune reaction initiated by infection
There is a Sensory-only version of this

206
Q

What is Schizophrenia?

What Neuroanatomic Alterations are seen?

What Neurotransmitter Alterations are seen?

A

The best understood psych D/O.

Neuroanatomic Alterations: Enlargement of Lateral and 3rd ventricles, widening of Frontal cortical fissures and Sulci

Neurotransmitter Alterations: Brain Dopamine pathways altered (over-expression)

207
Q

Are Females or Males affected more by Schizophrenia?

A

Neither, they are equally affected

208
Q

What are the Clinical Manifestations of Schizophrenia?

A

Hallucinations
Delusions
Disorganized Behavior, Speech, Hygiene
Affective (near absence) of emotion or expression
Anhedonia (loss of pleasure)
Alogia (poor speech)
Avolition (loss of goal-directed behavior)

209
Q

What is Mood?

A

Sustained emotional state

210
Q

Affective states are?

A

Brief emotional feelings-sadness, euphoria, joy, surprise, fear, etc.

211
Q

What is Depression?

What causes it?

A

States such as Sadness become Prominent

Neurochemical dysregulation
Neuroendocrine dysregulation
Neuroanatomic and functional abnormalities

212
Q

Name the 2 categories of Mood D/O.

A
  1. Unipolar- Major Depression
  2. Bipolar- Depression and Mania
    (w/Mania=excess Dopamine and Serotonin)
213
Q

What is the Neurochemical dysregulation hypothesis for Depression?

A

The most widely accepted theory that Dopamine and Serotonin deficits cause Depression

214
Q

What is the Neuroendocrine dysregulation cause of Depression?

A

HPA system dysregulation–increased stress (increased Cortisol),Chronic activation of HPA; Atrophy of neurons

Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Thyroid system dysregulation–blunted thyroid response (blunted affect in hypothalmic pts)

215
Q

What is the Neuroanatomic and functional abnormalities that cause Depression?

A

Decrease in actual Serotonin Receptors

216
Q

What do MAO Inhibitors do?

A

Prevent degradation of Serotonin and Norepinephrine

217
Q

What do Tricyclics and SSRI’s do?

A

Reduce the Uptake of NT’s at the Pre-synaptic Neuron, making them available for uptake in Post-synaptic Neuron.
*fewer side-effects than MAOI’s

218
Q

What is General Anxiety D/O?

A

Excessive and persistent worries
Norepinephrine and Serotonin abnromalities
GABA-BZ receptor alterations

219
Q

What does Panic D/O respond to?

A

80% respond to Cognitive Behavioral Therapy and/or Antidepressants

220
Q

What medications do Anxiety D/O’s respond well to?

A

Tricyclics and SSRI’s

221
Q

Do Anxiety and Depression go together?

A

Yes

222
Q

What causes Neural Tube Defects?

A

Arrest of the normal development of brain and spinal cord

223
Q

NTD’s have a strong A/W what in fetus?

A

Fetal Death (effectively reducing the # of NTD’s at birth)

224
Q

What cause is NTD’s A/W?

A

Maternal Folate Deficiency

225
Q

Preconception Folate intake reduces NTD risk by _____%

A

70%

226
Q

What is the most common NTD?

A

Spina Bifida

227
Q

What is Anencephaly?

A

Missing part of the brain/skull

228
Q

What is Encephalocele?

A

Brain and Meninges are in the defect-located at base of neck posteriorly

229
Q

What is a Meningocele?

A

Meninges through spinal defect

230
Q

What is a Myelomeningocele?

What is it most often A/W?

A

Meninges, spinal cord, spinal fluid through defect

Arnold-Chiari malformation

231
Q

Name 2 Acute Encephalopathies

A
  1. Lead Poisoning
  2. Meningitis
    * 1/2 of all bacterial Meningitis cases are in those less than 18 y/o
232
Q

What is Static Encephalopathy?

A

Have a wide-range of effects, includes Cerebral Palsy

233
Q

What is Cerebral Palsy?

A

A diverse group of nonprogressive syndromes that affect the brain and cause motor dysfunction beginning in early infancy

234
Q

What causes Cerebral Palsy?

A

Hypoxia
Vascular Abnormalities
Birth Trauma
*Head cooling and MgSO4 have helped incidence

235
Q

What are types of Cerebral Palsy?

A

Spastic
Dyskinetic
Ataxic
*Affects gait and fine motor movement

236
Q

What do nodes of Ranvier do?

A

They form spaces on either side of the Schwann cells of the PNS

237
Q

What is Delerium?

A

A confusional state

Lifespan Patho Final (3 decks)

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