Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What are proprioceptors?

A

the type of sensor receptors that monitor the movements of our own bodies. They allow you to know where your body is and provide vital feedback information for the control of motor systems.

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2
Q

What do muscle spindles detect?

A

the stretch of muscle

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3
Q

What is the very basis of neurones and muscle fibres in motor control?

A

there is a single synapse to each of the muscle fibres. Each action potential in the motor neurone will produce one in each of the four muscle fibres, and they will then twitch.

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4
Q

Twitches are all or nothing events - how can the force of contraction be modified?

A
  1. change the frequency of action potential firing in the active motor units
  2. change the number of active motor units
  3. change the type of active motor units

This is how movements are ‘graded’.

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5
Q

What aspects may affect how much excitatory input needs to go to a cell to reach its action potential?

A
  • bigger cell body = bigger input

- small ‘red’ motor units are more easily excited, so they are recruited first

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6
Q

How do muscle spindles control posture?

A
  1. muscle contracting too little to overcome gravity
  2. spindle stretched, increasing afferent activity
  3. increased excitation of the motor neurone pool
  4. increased force of contraction
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7
Q

What is the structure surrounding gamma motor control?

A
  • fusiform capsule
  • intrafusal fibres inside the capsule
  • only have actin myosin contractile machinery at the ends
  • the afferents associated with the muscle spindle are associated with the stretchy middle bit and are only affected when it stretches
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8
Q

What happens in gamma motor control?

A
  1. muscle stretches as part of a voluntary movement
  2. intrafusal centres do not stretch, so afferent activity unchanged
  3. no excitation of motor neurone pool
  4. muscle doesn’t resist stretching

Muscle spindles also ensure accuracy of movement.

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9
Q

What happens in gamma motor control when you pick up something which is heavier than you expected?

A
  1. muscle shortens too slowly, but intrafusal ‘poles’ are not loaded so they shorten as intended
  2. intrafusal centres stretch, increasing afferent activity
  3. increased excitation of the motor neurone pool
  4. increased force of contraction ‘corrects’ the movement

Contraction can also be influenced by inhibition

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10
Q

What happens in inhibition of gamma motor control?

A
  1. muscle stretches as part of a voluntary movement
  2. descending control systems activate inhibitory interneurones
  3. reduced activity in the motor neurone pool
  4. muscle doesn’t resist stretching
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11
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition?

A
  • Ia afferents excite interneurons that directly inhibit antagonist motor neurones
  • these interneurones are glycinergic
  • they act through ligand-gated receptors on the motor neurone itself
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12
Q

What is presynaptic inhibition?

A
  • Ia afferents excite interneurones that inhibit release of neurotransmitter from antagonist Ia afferents
  • these interneurones are GABAergic
  • they act through metabotropic receptors (GABAb) on the axon terminals
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13
Q

What are lower motor neurone lesions?

A

In skeletal muscle, ‘lower motor neurone’ = alpha motor neurone

Lower motor neurone lesions denervate the muscle, causing FLACCID WEAKNESS

  • weakness
  • wasting
  • loss of reflexes
  • fasciculations and fibrillations
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14
Q

What are upper motor neurones?

A

An upper motor neurone carries signals from the brain to the spinal motor circuits.

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15
Q

How do upper motor neurones initiate and control movement?

A
  • controlling alpha motor neurones
  • controlling gamma motor neurones
  • controlling inhibitory interneurones

Motor neurones in the brain have axons which descend through the spinal cord which terminate where they can activate the inhibitory control.

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16
Q

What does loss of upper motor neurones result in?

A
  • weakness (brain can’t tell muscles to contracT)
  • increased muscle tone and reflects (brain can’t control reflex arcs)
  • no wasting (muscles remain active due to reflex input)
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17
Q

Where is an upper motor neurone lesion?

A

Upper motor neurones are in the brain, but an upper motor neurone LESION can be anywhere between the cell body and the LMN.

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18
Q

What two classes can the intrafusal muscle fibres be divided into?

A
  • ‘nuclear bag’ fibres are associated with ‘type Ia afferents’
  • ‘nuclear chain’ fibres are associated with ‘type II’ afferents (and type Ia to some extent)
  • group II afferents encode length of muscle
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19
Q

About group II afferents…

A
  • thinner, slower axons
  • mainly indirect connection to alpha motor neurones
  • response in proportion to length of muscle
  • important for maintaining limb position and posture, and for resting muscle tone

Loss of upper motor neurone input to group II reflexes causes hypertonia

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20
Q

How can hypertonia (from UMN lesions) be treated?

A
  • by suppressing the group II reflex

- boosting noradrenergic transmission helps (mechanisms uncertain): alpha 2 agonists (e.g. tizanidine) and L-DOPA

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21
Q

About group Ia afferents…

A
  • thicker, faster axons
  • monosynaptic connection to alpha motor neurones
  • responds to the rate of change in length (e.g. velocity of movement)
  • important for correcting rapid unintended movements e.g. perturbations of gait

loss of upper motor neurone input to group Ia reflexes causes a velocity-dependent increase in tone (spasticity)

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22
Q

How can spasticity (from UMN lesions) be treated?

A
  • need to damp down the group Ia reflex
  • this can be done by a non-specific increase in spinal inhibition: boost the effectiveness of GABAa receptors - benzodiazepines
  • or more specifically by mimicking the effect of presynaptic inhibition: activate GABAb receptors (baclofen)
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23
Q

In what circumstances are stretch receptors not always suppressed during voluntary movements?

A
  • they are ‘switched on’ at key moments during some stereotyped movements…
  • including a burst of activity in the afferents
  • which boosts muscle excitation when needed

e.g. adds force to the contraction of the flexor muscles as they life the foot off he ground during walking

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24
Q

What do golgi tendon organs do?

A

measure tension generated by active muscle contraction

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25
Q

How do golgi tendon organ (GTO) afferents control the strength of muscle contraction?

A

GTO afferents activate two pathways that control the strength of muscle contraction. Upper motor neurones control which is active at any moment.

The two pathways are GTO driven INHIBITION and EXCITATION

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26
Q

How is the boosting of excitation done in relation to GTO?

A

in dynamic situations (e.g. walking) a pathway via an excitatory interneurone is enabled. This is used to boost muscle contraction at key points in the gait cycle.

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27
Q

What are the two ways that the gold tendon organ can work?

A
  • loss of GTO driven inhibition will cause hypertonia in static situations (e.g. standing)
  • loss of GTO driven excitation will cause weakness in dynamic situations (e.g. gait)
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28
Q

What is the very basics of local anaesthetics?

A
  • act locally, as they are applied to discrete areas of the body
  • prevent perception of pain by CNS - block generation/conduction of action potentials (APs) by inhibiting voltage-gating Na+ channels
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29
Q

What is the importance of the pH of local anaesthetics?

A

local anaesthetics are weak bases (pKa of 7-9)

  • they act as proton acceptors at physiological pH (7.2) - more LA is in ionised/membrane impermeable form
  • act as proton donors in alkaline conditions (pH>7-9) - more in in non-ionised/membrane permeable form
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30
Q

Why does LA procaine have a shorter half life than than LA lignocaine?

A

Because ester bones are susceptible to hydrolysis, and procaine has an ester bond where lignocaine has an amide bond

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31
Q

How does the generation and conduction of action potentials occur?

A
  1. Resting membrane potential is ~ -75mV
    - high K+ inside cell ~140mM/low K+ outside cell ~6mM - due to Na+/K+ ATPase
    - membrane selectively permeable to K+ ions (so negative inside cell)
  2. during stimulation membrane depolarises to ~ -50mV
    - membrane depolarisation
    - reaches threshold of Na+ channels
    - opens channels and depolarisation (downstroke of APs)
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32
Q

What is the mechanism of action of local anaesthetics?

A

LAs block Na+ channels:

  • block generation and conduction of APs
  • no APs, no information sent to CNS, no perception of pain
  • local anaesthetics will block any voltage-dependent Na+ channel irrespective of the tissue
  • hence these drugs are given locally to reduce systemic effects
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33
Q

What is the effect of pH on local anaesthetics?

A

There is an interesting point with local anaesthetics:

  • action of LAs are increased in alkaline pH
  • but ionised LAs more effective at blocking Na+ channels
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34
Q

Why does pH have an effect on local anaesthetics?

A
  • LAs act on the part of the Na+ channel structure that is accessed from the inside of the cell
  • alkaline pH makes more drug into non-ionised form (LA), which can cross the ‘fatty’ myelin sheath and axonal membrane
  • inside the cell (pH 7.2), more drug becomes ionised into the LAH+ form, which blocks the Na+ channel - remember ‘ion trapping’
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35
Q

How do LAs block Na+ channels?

A

Mechanisms of blocking Na+ channels by LAs:

  • some block of closed state: unionised state
  • some block of open state: ionised state
  • substantial block of channels in inactivated state - ionised state
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36
Q

What are ‘use-dependent’ drugs?

A
  • LAs that only block Na+ channels in the inactivated state
  • only work when there is high activity
  • less side effects, low activity neurones not affected
  • principle of other drugs; anti-epileptic, class I cardiac anti-arrhythmic
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37
Q

Why are pain fibres blocked before other sensory or motor neurones, when all fibres use Na+ channels to generate and conduct APs?

A
  • LAs block small diameter axons before large ones
  • LAs usually block unmyelinated before myelinated fibres
  • nociceptive impulses are conducted in Adelta fibres (small diameter myelinated axons) and C fibres (unmyelinated axons)
  • pain sensation is lost first - increasing concentration/time LAs block all axonal conduction causing local paralysis (remember loss of movement after injection of LA at dentist)
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38
Q

What are some unwanted effects of LAs on the CNS?

A
  • if LAs enter the brain, this leads initially to stimulations (tremor, agitation and may produce convulsions)
  • subsequent CNS depression, respiratory problems
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39
Q

What are some unwanted effects of LAs on the CVS?

A
  • decreased cardiac output due to LAs blocking cardiac Na+ channels which leads to decreased Ca2+ influx and decreased force of contraction
  • increased vasodilation, due to inhibition of sympathetic nerve activity innervating blood vessels - decreases vascular tone
  • both these actions will cause a decrease in blood pressure –> potentially effect blood flow to vital organs
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40
Q

What are possible bought of administration of LAs?

A
  • SURFACE ANAESTHESIA: applied to mucosal surface e.g. bronchial (bronchoscopy), nose, cornea - LAs do not cross skin very well
  • NERVE BLOCK: LA injected close to sensory nerve e.g. dentistry
  • SPINAL ANAESTHESIA: LA injected into subarachnoid space between second and fifth lumbar vertebrae enters straight into CSF, e.g. surgery when inappropriate to use general anaesthetic, hip replacement in elderly
  • EPIDURAL: LA injected into epidural space, outside meninges, where it diffuses to and blocks nerve roots e.g. childbirth
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41
Q

What happens when LAs are administered with adrenaline?

A

LAs can be administered with adrenaline. Adrenaline produces vasoconstriction by acting on alpha1 adrenoceptors on vascular smooth muscle cells within the walls of blood vessels.

Vasoconstriction keeps the LA localised to the area of injection. Vasoconstriction inhibits absorption of the LA from the extracellular spaces into the blood - reduces possibility of systemic toxicity.

It also prolongs the LA action.

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42
Q

What do you need to beware of when administering adrenaline with LAs?

A
  • local hypoxia

- absorption of adrenaline –> arrhythmia

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43
Q

Where is the primary motor cortex?

A

The pre central gyrus of the frontal lobe, just anterior to the central sulcus.

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44
Q

What does the primary motor cortex control?

A

voluntary movement of the opposite half of the body. Also called the motor strip, or M1.

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45
Q

Where is the premotor cortex and what does it do?

A

Immediately infront of the motor strip and it is involved in movement planning and preparation.

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46
Q

Where is the primary somatosensory cortex?

A

Just behind the motor strip, in the post central gyrus of the parietal lobe.

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47
Q

What does the primary somatosensory cortex do?

A

received ascending (sensory) projections for all sensory modalities including light touch, joint position sense, pain, temperature etc.

It is also called the sensory strip, S1

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48
Q

What is the homunculus?

A

Motor cortex: size of cortical representation of each body part in proportion to precision of motor control

Sensory: amount of cortex devoted to each body part is proportional to tactile sensitivity

In both areas the hands, face and tongue have disproportionately large representations.

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49
Q

What parts do the upper/lower body occupy in the primary motor and sensory areas?

A

In primary motor and sensory areas there is an orderly point-to-point representation of the opposite half of the body.

The lower part of the body including the lower limbs occupies the medial surface of the hemisphere.

On the convexity, the upper limb and hand areas are superior and the face/tongue areas or inferior.

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50
Q

What are the two parts of the primary motor pathway?

A
  1. the corticospinal tract
  2. the corticobulbar pathway

sometimes referred to collectively as the pyramidal tract or pyramidal motor system as the corticospinal component passes through the pyramids of the medulla.

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51
Q

What does the corticospinal tract do?

A

projects from the motor and premotor areas of the frontal love to all levels of the spinal cord. It controls voluntary movements of the contralateral (opposite) limbs/trubnk and consists of approximately one million axons each side.

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52
Q

What does the corticobulbar pathways do?

A

It is the voluntary motor supply to the brain stem (the motor cranial nerve nuclei) and therefore controls movements of the jaw, face tongue, larynx and pharynx. The word ‘bulb’ is an old fashioned term for the lower brain stem.

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53
Q

Where do the fibres of the corticospinal tract originate?

A
  • About 2/3 of the fibres originate from the motor and premotor areas of the frontal lobe
  • axons project to anterior horn of spinal cord grey matter (influence spinal motor neurones)
  • the remaining 1/3 arise from parietal lobe
  • project to dorsal horn of spinal cord, helping to ‘filter out’ sensations generated by movement
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54
Q

What is the pathway of the fibres of the corticospinal tract?

A
  • leave the cerebral cortex to enter subcortical white matter
  • pass through corona radiate first before entering the posterior limb of the internal capsule
  • internal capsule is an anatomical bottleneck so the arrangement of motor fibres is contact so even tiny amount of damage can lead to paralysis
  • continues to descend through anterior part of brain stem
  • pass in turn through CRUS CEREBRA, BASILAR PONS and then the PYRAMIDS OF THE MEDULLA
  • crosses the midline at the lowermost border of the medulla (approx at foramen magnum)
  • 90% of fibres cross posteriorly and laterally to enter lateral column of spinal cord as the lateral corticospinal tract
  • remaining 10% continue in the anterior part of the cord on either sid elf the midline and become the anterior (uncrossed) corticospinal tract.
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55
Q

What is involved in voluntary movement?

A

involves a two-neutron cain between the motor cortex and skeletal muscle. The first neurone has its cell body in the motor/premotor cortex of the frontal lobe and an axon that contributes to the corticospinal tract. These cells are referred to as UMN. upper motor neurones which make up the corticospinal tract extend the full length of the spinal cord and synapse on LMNs.

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56
Q

What is the difference in the symptoms of damage to the corticospinal tract in the brain or brain stem and in the spinal cord?

A

in brain/brain stem: weakness on opposite side of body

spinal cord: weakness is ipsilateral

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57
Q

What are the two most important somatosensory pathways?

A
  • dorsal column pathway

- spinothalamic tract

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58
Q

What are the similarities between the dorsal column pathway and spinothalamic tract?

A
  • first neuron lies within the dorsal root ganglion
  • the second neurone crosses the midline and ascends to the thalamus
  • the third neurone lies in the ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus and project to the primary somatosensory cortex.

The main different is the position of the second neurone and therefore the point of crossing.

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59
Q

What is the dorsal column pathway to do with?

A

fine, precisely located (or discriminative) touch, joint position sense, proprioception and vibration sense.

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60
Q

Where does the dorsal column pathway originate form?

A

from low threshold mechanoreceptors and nerve impulses are transmitted to the brain via large diameter fibres that are thickly-myelinated and have high conduction velocities of up to 120m/s

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61
Q

How is the dorsal column pathway best tested?

A

using a high amplitude, low frequency thing fork applied to bony prominences

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62
Q

What is the spinothalamic tract to do with?

A
  • pain and temperature sensation

- usually tested using sterile neurological examination pins or volatile spray producing a cold sensation

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63
Q

Where does the spinothalamic tract originate?

A

from nociceptors and thermoreceptros. Pain and temperature impulses are transmitted to the brain via thinly-myelinated A-delta fibres and unmyelinated c-fibres, both of which are of comparatively small diameter and have relatively slow conduction velocities.

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64
Q

What is neurylation?

A

The folding of the neural plate into neural tube. This process is triggered by growth factors released from notochord.

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65
Q

How does the neural tube begin?

A

Begins as a single layer of neuroepithelial cells which divide symmetrically to increase in number, and then asymmetrically forming neuroblasts which can migrate.

This is triggered by MCPH1

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66
Q

What is the growth of the neural tube dependent on?

A

The type of growth is dependent on the morphogen gradient:
BMP, wnt - dorsal aspect of developing brain
Sonic hedgehog - ventral brain

Where they are in the neural tube triggers the chemical signals around and determines what they will become eventually.

This is all dependent on chemical guidance signals.

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67
Q

What are example of chemical guidance signals in the neural tube?

A

Reelin: outwards - produced in marginal zone
Neuregulins: dorsally
Semaphorin slits: ventrally

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68
Q

How are the cells laid down in the neural tube?

A

in an inside out fashion - the layer build up from the inside out. This is controlled by changing chemical signals.

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69
Q

what determines the way that axons grow?

A

Our neuritis need to fid connection. The growth cone consists of lamellopodia and filopodia. These grow in relation to positive/negative (attractive/repulsive) signals.

The axons travel according to signalling proteins via way points.

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70
Q

What happen in synaptogenesis?

A
  • axons look for potentially useful cells
  • relies on complementary adhesion molecules
  • this triggers the formation of pre- and post-synaptic structures –> IMMATURE SYNAPSE (e.g. neurexin and neuroligin)
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71
Q

what happens if surface molecules in synaptogenesis are not complementary?

A

When the surface molecules are not complementary, the connection fails. The filopodia retract as a result - e.g. alpha motor neurones and antagonist muscles

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72
Q

What is the function of specific pathways (as opposed to modulatory pathways)?

A

sensory, motor, cognitive ‘processing’

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73
Q

What is the function of modulatory pathways?

A

controls the state of the system

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74
Q

What are the types of neural responses in specific pathways (as opposed to modulatory pathways)?

A

highly specific, event-related, information rich

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75
Q

What are the types of neural responses in modulatory pathways?

A

non-specific, linked to sleep-wake cycle, behavioural state

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76
Q

What is the synaptic transmission like in specific pathways?

A

fast, time dependent

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77
Q

What is the synaptic transmission like in modulatory pathways?

A

slow, imprecisely timed

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78
Q

What is the primary receptor type in specific pathways?

A

ionotropic

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79
Q

What is the primary receptor type in modulatory pathways?

A

metabotropic

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80
Q

What is the anatomy of specific pathways like?

A

precisely located (e.g. topographic)

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81
Q

What is the anatomy of modulatory pathways like?

A

diffuse

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82
Q

What happens in sleep-wake cycles?

A
  • the thalamus relays information to the cortex
  • when we are awake, sensory information is relayed to the cortex, via the thalamus.
  • inputs are ignored when we are asleep - due to the inhibitory interneurone –> the cortex instead received synchronised information - regular impulses are put into it.
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83
Q

What happens during REM?

A

during REM, the thalamus doesn’t follow a typical sleep pattern. the brain changes a bit so an EEG becomes more random - the brain is making up its own sensory inputs.

During REM sleep the muscles become paralysed and this is when you dream.

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84
Q

What happens when someone has an REM disorder?

A

Their muscles don’t become paralysed and so they enact their dreams.

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85
Q

About Acetylcholine?

A
  • one of the first NTs described
  • roles in ANS and PNS
  • in CNS; 2 long axon projections:
  • -> pontomesencephalic tegmenjtum: thalamus
  • -> Basal forebrain: neocortex and hippocampus
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86
Q

About serotonin?

A

aka 5-HT

  • indolamine
  • appetite, mood, sleep, aggression
  • 2 pathways: rostral group-away from brain, caudal group-towards brain
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87
Q

About norepherine?

A
  • attention and arousal
  • ANS - fight/flight
  • multiple systems
  • be aware of the locus coeruleus system
  • projects diffusely
  • alertness, increased responsiveness, memory
  • defects can cause anxiety
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88
Q

About dopamine?

A

2 pathways:
NIGROSTRIATAL PATHWAY: projection to the basal ganglia, initiation of voluntary movement
MESOLIMBIC PATHWAY: ventral tegmentum, projects to amygdala and ventral striatum - wakefulness, reward and reinforcement

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89
Q

What can happen as a result of defective mesolimbic pathway?

A

schizophrenia

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90
Q

About histamine?

A
  • projects to thalamus and cortex

- excites wake promoting cycles

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91
Q

What is falling asleep associated with?

A

Increased GABAergic activity

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92
Q

What happens as a result of suppression of the modulatory systems?

A

circadian rhythm, tiredness –> adenosine build up, illness

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93
Q

What increased during REM sleep?

A

There is an increase in activity from the pontomesencephalic tegmentum - desynchronising thalamic cells

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94
Q

About the frontal lobe…

A
  • primary motor cortex
  • contains BROCAS AREA - production of speech
  • PREFRONTAL REGION: dorsolateral-executive function, orbitofrontal-personality, social behaviour
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95
Q

What is Broca’s aphasia?

A
  • reduced verbal output

- difficulty in speech

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96
Q

About the parietal lobe…

A
  • the post central gyrus contains the primary somatosensory cortex
  • DOMINANT: goal directed movement
  • NON-DOMINANT: understand special relations
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97
Q

About the occipital lobe…

A
  • primary visual cortex
  • V1: hemianopia
  • V2, V3: akinetopsia, achromatopsia
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98
Q

About the temporal lobe…

A
  • primary auditory cortex: hearing

- contains Wernicke’s area: language comprehension

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99
Q

What is Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

fluent, non-sensical, meaningless speech

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100
Q

What is included in the limbic system?

A

hippocampus
amygdala
anterior thalamic nuclei
limbic cortex

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101
Q

About the hippocampus…

A
  • knowing where you are/navigations (taxi driver)

- bilateral damage causes profound anterograde amnesia - can’t form new memories

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102
Q

About the amygdala…

A
  • evaluates significance of events
  • detects anger
  • facilitates social interactions
  • learning and memory

Input: cortical inputs, olfactory inputs
Output: toward hypothalamus (efferent) initiates response in ANS ‘FFF’

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103
Q

What can defects in the amygdala cause?

A
  • anxiety
  • phobias
  • depression
  • autism
  • epilepsy
  • schizophrenia
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104
Q

What is the limbic lobe concerned with?

A

motivation, mood and memory

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105
Q

What does the limbic lobe include?

A

cingulate and parahippocampal gyri

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106
Q

Lesions of what can impair memory formation?

A

cingulate gyrus

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107
Q

What are the responses to stimulation of the limbic lobe?

A

stimulation of the anterior aspect: painful response, pupils dilate, CV changes

stimulation of posterior: emotional content of visual and tactile sensations

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108
Q

What is controlled by the corticospinal system?

A

trunk and limb muscles

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109
Q

What is controlled by the corticobulbar system?

A

head and neck (mouth and throat) - speaking and swallowing

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110
Q

What are the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts known as collectively and where do they originate?

A

pyramidal tracts

they originate in the cerebral cortex and carry motor signals to the spinal cord and brain stem

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111
Q

What does the corticospinal tract control?

A

skilled, voluntary movements

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112
Q

What does damage to the corticospinal tract cause?

A

contralateral paralysis or weakness (contralateral because it crosses over)

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113
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract originate?

A

the primary motor cortex, infront of the central sulcus

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114
Q

What is the pathways of the corticospinal tract?

A

pre central gyrus
corona radiate
internal capsule (posterior limb)
enters the crus cerebra of midbrain and passes through ventral portion of pons
subtotal decussation to caudal medulla and oblongata
lateral and anterior corticospinal tracts

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115
Q

Which sides of the body to upper motor neurone lesions affect?

A

Above the motor decussation: opposite side affected

Below the motor decussation: same side affected

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116
Q

What is the cerebellum responsible for?

A

planning movements as well as execution

compares the movements planned with those actually carried out

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117
Q

What are the motor advisors?

A

The basal ganglia and the cerebellum

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118
Q

What is the comparison done in the cerebellum known as?

A

feed forward comparator

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119
Q

Where does feedback come from to the cerebellum?

A

ear, eyes, vestibular nuclei, proprioceptors

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120
Q

What is the feed forward comparator?

A

cerebellum takes in all the feedback and modifies the action the second time

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121
Q

What is the spinocerebellum responsible for?

A

regulating muscle tone and posture

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122
Q

What is the cerebrocerebellum responsible for?

A

high level planning movements, cognitive functions - pontine nuclei afferents and BL thalamus efferents

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123
Q

What is the vestibulocerebellum responsible for?

A

maintaining balance and eye movements

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124
Q

What kind of neurones are lower motor neurones?

A

second order neurones

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125
Q

What are symptoms of UMN lesions?

A
  • pyramidal weakness
  • no wasting of muscles
  • spasticity, clasp knife response, clonus
  • hyperreflexia
  • positive Babinski reflex, extensor planter response
  • absent abdominal relfexes
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126
Q

What are the symptoms of LMN lesions?

A
  • weakness (paralysis or paresis)
  • wasting of individual muscles
  • hyporeflexia
  • hypotonic or flaccidity
  • fasciculations
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127
Q

What is proprioception?

A

the sense of the relative position of neighbouring parts of the body - including rate and trajectory of body movements

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128
Q

What are the two types of muscle spindle fibres?

A

Type Ia afferents associated with nuclear bag fibres –> encode velocity of stretch

Type 2 afferents - associated with nuclear chain fibres –> encode length of muscle

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129
Q

What is the difference in contractility of extrafusal and intrafusal muscle fibres?

A

extrafusal muscles contract

intrafusal muscles have contractile edges innervated by gamma motor neurones, but the middle portion is elastic not contractile.

The afferents fire when they are stretched in the middle.

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130
Q

What happens in the muscle fibres during voluntary movement?

A
  • alpha motor neurones fire when voluntary movements occur
  • gamma motor neurones simultaneously fire keeping the middle bit taught and unchanged as both contract a corresponding amount
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131
Q

What happens in the muscle fibres in involuntary movement?

A

afferent firing activating alpha motor neurones so contracts more and get more stretch - e.g. muscle more stretched than expected when something is heavier than you thought

this is the stretch reflex

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132
Q

What is the role of muscle spindles?

A

if the muscle is voluntarily stretched - central portion unchanged = no excitatory activity. Descending control systems also inhibit contraction so that the muscle doesn’t resist stretching.

Posture - if the muscle contracts too little to overcome gravity - central portion is stretched and the muscle contracts more.

if an unexpected load causes a movement to be inaccurate, same process as above takes place

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133
Q

What are the two types of inhibition (proprioceptors)?

A
  • reciprocal inhibition

- presynaptic inhibition

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134
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition (proprioceptors)?

A

antagonist motor neurone inhibited by Ia afferent of contracting muscle

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135
Q

What is presynaptic inhibition (proprioceptors)>

A

contracting Ia afferent inhibits release of NT from antagonist Ia afferent (so there is no stretch in the antagonist muscle)

eg as soon as afferent fires saying bicep is contracting, inhibitory efferent will stop the triceps contracting at the same time

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136
Q

What is an UMN lesion?

A

anywhere between cell body and LMN causing loss of regulation of reflexes and conscious control

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137
Q

What is an LMN lesion?

A

the alpha motor neurone lesion causes loss of innervation to muscle

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138
Q

What is the role of golgi tendon organs?

A

measure tension generated by contraction (stretching doesn’t usually cause much tension)

they are within the tendon

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139
Q

What states does the UMN control whether the muscle is in?

A

inhibited: static situations
excited: dynamic situations

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140
Q

When do afferents fire in relation to golgi tendon organs?

A

when the tendon squeezes - when these fire there are UMN and upper control systems that decide what happens - they can either activate an excitatory pathway or an inhibitory pathway

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141
Q

What is an example of a dynamic situation (golgi tendon organs)?

A

Walking

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142
Q

What is an example of a static situation (golgi tendon organs)?

A

standing still

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143
Q

what might the loss of the golgi tendon organ pathway cause?

A

weakness in gait, or hypotonia - can’t stand still

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144
Q

What are possible types of injury in the CNS?

A
  • developmental
  • trauma
  • ischaemic
  • hypoxic
  • inflammatory
  • neurodegenerative
  • infection
  • tumours
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145
Q

What is a direct response to brain injury?

A

inflammation and oedema

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146
Q

About stroke…

A
  • acute loss of blood supply damages the region supplied by the blocked artery
  • it takes 6-8 minutes of blood supply interruption (ischaemia) to cause neuronal cell death (infarction)
  • most cerebral vascular occlusions will reopen spontaneously within 24 hours, but for the neurones this is too late
  • during this time it has been calculated you lose 2 million neurones per minute
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147
Q

What is hypoxic brain injury?

A

reduction of whole brain oxygenation - preferentially affects the most metabolically active parts of the brain –> grey matter: cerebral cortex, basal ganglia

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148
Q

What is the series of events in multiple sclerosis?

A

inflammation
demyelination
neuronal dysfunction

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149
Q

What happens as a consequence of axon death?

A
  • upstream: the cell body may die via apoptosis (retrograde degeneration)
  • downstream: the distal axon dies via Wallerian degeneration (anterograde degeneration)
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150
Q

What are the consequences of denervation for the target neurone?

A
  • from subtle changes e.g. transmitter hypersensitities in spinal cord injury resulting in spasticity
  • to transneuronal atrophy or degeneration eg visual and auditory systems
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151
Q

What is meant by anterograde?

A

directed forwards in time

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152
Q

What is the definition of retrograde?

A

Directed or moving backwards

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153
Q

What is retrograde degeneration?

A
  • depending on site there may be rapid degeneration of the projecting neurone
  • eg cortical stroke leads to rapid degeneration of thalamic neurone that project to the cortex
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154
Q

What are mechanisms of spontaneous recovery in the CS?

A
  • glial scarring
  • neurogenesis
  • regeneration
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155
Q

What is glial scarring?

A
  • glial scar formation (gliosis) is a reactive cellular process involving proliferation of astrocytes and microglia after injury to the CNS
  • this is a mechanism to protect any part of the healing process
  • in the context of neuronal injury however, formation of a glial scar has been shown to have both beneficial and detrimental effects
  • regenerates a tissue barrier after blood-brain barrier compromise and promotes revascularisation of injured brain
  • in particular, neuro-developmental inhibitors are secreted by astrocytes that prevent axon regrowth and regeneration
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156
Q

What is neurogenesis?

A
  • the birth of new neurones
  • nervous system could repair itself if it could grow new neurones
  • occurs in many non-mammalian vertebrates e.g. amphibians, songbirds
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157
Q

Where is there evidence for significant neurogenesis?

A
  • hippocampus (dentate gyrus)
    near the lateral ventricles (subventricular zone), supplying the olfactory bulb
  • both important for memory, so perhaps memory does’ grow’
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158
Q

What happens in regeneration?

A
  • regrowth of severed axons
  • occurs in non-mammalian vertebrates
  • occurs effectively in mammals peripheral nervous system only
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159
Q

Why is myelin critically important (and in regeneration)?

A
  • provides a guide tube for the sprouting end of a severed neurone to grow through
  • extending axon guided to its destination during development
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160
Q

What happens with regeneration in the human CNS?

A
  • true regeneration of axonal projections rare
  • developmental loss of regenerative ability –> down regulation of growth related genes
  • due to micro environment –> trophic factors vs inhibitory factors –> glial scars - chemical/physical barrier
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161
Q

What are treatments that can modulate recovery of incurable neurological diseases?

A

Neurorehabilitation: the clinical specialty that is devoted to the restoration and maximisation of functions that has been lost due to nervous system injury from whatever cause

capitalises the way the brain normally learns to relearn lost function

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162
Q

What is neural plasticity?

A

the ability of the brain to change structurally and functionally as a result of input from the environment

  • this is a normal phenomenon underlying brain function
  • reorganisation of neuronal processes resulting in functional and structural rearrangement
  • widespread: sensory, motor, visual, language systems at all levels of neuroaxis
  • plasticity occurs on a variety of levels, ranging from cellular changes due to learning, to large scale changes involved in cortical remapping in response to injury
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163
Q

What is somatotopy?

A

point-for-point correspondence of an area of the body to a specific point in the CNS.

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164
Q

What do discrete areas of the cortex do?

A
  • control motion of specific small groups of muscles
  • receive sensation from specific areas of the body
  • subserve vision from specific areas of the visual field
  • subserve audition for specific pitches of sound
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165
Q

Are specific area son the brain specific to certain functions?

A
  • functions are also shared and to an extent degenerate
  • flexible and subject to neural plasticity - can be changed by:
    peripheral and central injury
    electrical stimulation
    learning and experience
  • eg cortical representation of left hand finger movements is expanded in violinists –> the homunculus is not fixed
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166
Q

How do you fix the brain is you can’t grow new neurones?

A
  • COMPENSATION: having one brain area take over the functions damaged in another area, simple neural recovery: uninjured tissue takes over functions of lost neurones
  • presynaptic neurons sprout more terminals: form additional synapses with their targets and postsynaptic neurones, also add more receptor cells
  • REORGANISATION: a more dramatic form of neural recovery, can involve major brain areas
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167
Q

What is reorganisation of neurones?

A

stimulation continues to shape synaptic construction and reconstruction throughout the individuals life –> experience is critical

  • a shift in connections that changes the function of an area of the brain
  • much of the change resulting from experience in the mature brain involves reorganisation
  • in some cases (not all) can lead to cortical remapping
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168
Q

What are examples of neural plasticity after brain injury?

A
  • hemispherectomy in young children: outcome can be surprisingly good, language reorganisation and relative intellectual preservation
  • in deaf people portions of visual cortex may be used for reading braille and other non-visual function
  • recovery of function after stroke
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169
Q

What are putative mechanisms?

A

Neural plasticity can be expressed as activity dependent modifications int eh efficacy of existing synapses:

  • unmasking (removal) of inhibitory pathways
  • long term potentiation
  • synaptogenesis
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170
Q

Briefly about adult stem cells?

A
  • pluripotent
  • limited tissues (bone marrow, muscle, brain)
  • -> discrete populations of adult stem cells generate replacements for cells that are lost through normal wear and tear, injury or disease
  • umbilical cord/placenta
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171
Q

What are the ‘bystander’ effects of stem cell transplantation?

A
  • intrinsically neuroprotective
  • anti-inflammatory
  • delivery of trophic factors
  • overcome natural inhibitors
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172
Q

What is the CPG?

A

responsible for the collection of neurones which makes movements happy. This is all controlled by the spinal cord and doesn’t require the brain.

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173
Q

What happens if you lose the anterior horn cell?

A

you are paralysed as it is the final connection to the muscle

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174
Q

About the phrenic nucleus…

A

supplied phrenic nerve

  • C3, C4, C5
  • supplies diaphragm
  • breathing
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175
Q

About the spinal accessory nucleus…

A

up into skull and back down

  • C5, C6
  • supplies sternocleidomastoid, trapezius
  • head turning, shoulder shrugging
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176
Q

About Onus’s nucleus…

A

sacral canal, where parasympathetic fibres come out

  • S2, S3, S4
  • supplied external urethral and anal sphincters
  • continence
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177
Q

What does the amount of grey matter in the spinal cord depend on?

A

muscle bulk at that level

i.e. there is lots at the locations of the arms and legs, less as you go down

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178
Q

What types of movements are there?

A
  • reflexes: stereotypes (automatic, simple reflex arcs, triggered by proprioceptors)
  • rhythmic movements: breathing, walking, sometimes automatic sometimes voluntary (semi-automatic, involving brain stem and spinal cord. Do not necessarily require attention, can be controlled voluntarily)
  • voluntary actions: motor neurone direct connection form spinal cord, corticospinal tract (least automatic, e.g. writing, playing piano, speaking, goal-directed, dependent upon cerebral cortex)
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179
Q

What is the flexor/withdrawal reflex?

A
  • polysynaptic (several segments)
  • cutaneous reflex
  • elicits limb withdrawal
  • triggered by nociceptors
  • leads to limb flexion
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180
Q

What is the crossed extensor reflex?

A
  • triggered at the same time
  • causes contralateral limb extension
  • supports body weight

eg stand on a pin and pull one leg away but straighten the other to support weight

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181
Q

How is an action potential reached in the sensory system?

A
  • external event/stimulus
  • sensory receptor cell detects and converts the energy in the stimulus into an electrical potential (transduce)
  • depolarisation of membrane
  • if gets afferent up to threshold
  • action potential
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182
Q

What are possible answers to damaged/lost receptors (e.g. hearing)?

A
  • transplantation of surviving receptors
  • production of new receptors from stem cells
  • gene therapy to make other retinal cells photosensitive
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183
Q

What allows for one detail/discriminative touch?

A

receptive fields which are very small and close together, allowing the brain to reconstruct the afferent of the singles sent on the brain pad.

if you have a small receptive field then you need lots of afferents to innervate that field - small receptive field require high innervation density

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184
Q

Why is temporal resolution limited?

A

spatial resolution is limited, temporal resolution is limited. the two signals produce tapping in one little area right on top of each other and will probably feel like a single tap.

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185
Q

what is the action potential threshold?

A

the membrane potential at which action potentials are triggered. this is a function of the vgNa+ channel and can be treated as a constant

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186
Q

What is the ‘activation’ threshold?

A

the minimum stimulus strength that will depolarise a receptor enough to generate action potentials. sensory systems use receptors with a range of different activation thresholds.

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187
Q

What is ‘perceptual’ threshold?

A

the minimum stimulus strength that will generate enough action potentials to be detected.

perceptual threshold is the bit we can most easily test in a clinical environment

this is the limit that someone can reliably detect the stimulus - this will change depending on how long the subject is attending to the stimulus - if they get bored it will shrink

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188
Q

What is activation a measure of?

A

the sensitivity of the axon.

189
Q

How do sensory systems adapt to constant stimuli?

A

in the periphery the signals get stripped of a lot of redundant information. pressing against receptive ending gently, more strongly ad then more strongly again (more and more lines firing)

gently there is a bit of depolarisation and low frequency action potentials firing, and this gets more as you press harder.

this only works over a short period of time and is varied form receptor to receptor. virtually every receptor in every pathways adapt. this means that when you have a stimulus lasting longer than a few ms the initial response is to how hard you press, but if you maintain this pressure then the receptor will reset itself to its original, so now it can respond equally strongly to a new change, avoiding the receptor reaching its maximum frequency of firing and can’t respond anymore. otherwise the system would saturate.

190
Q

Why do receptors adapt?

A
  • different receptor adapt at different rates
  • adaptation means that receptors respond to changes in stimulation one time
  • adaptation allows much greater sensitivity while avoiding saturation
  • saves the expense of unnecessary action potentials

this highlights salient moments when something changes - there is great sensitivity without saturating.

191
Q

What is lateral inhibition?

A

When you touch skin, more than one afferent fires up to the brain stem. if the pressure against the skin is exactly the same they will all be activated to the sam extent, and each will damp down their firing rate.

if there is any bit where the stimulation is stronger than elsewhere then the afferent will be different. the only one responding well will get stronger, and will be damped down in other location to get a really clean signal through

192
Q

Why do we have lateral inhibition?

A
  • one of many forms of inhibition that ‘sculpt’ sensory signals
  • means that sensory systems respond to changes in stimulation from place to place
  • allows much greater sensitivity while avoiding saturation
  • saves the expense of unnecessarily APs

allows receptors to encode a he range of stimulus contrasts between locations without the danger of saturation - it controls sensory systems and is one of the most important forms of inhibition.

193
Q

What is ADAPTATION?

A

damps down responses to homogenous temporal information highlighting times when stimulus strength changes

194
Q

What are examples of the brain getting perception very wrong?

A
  • pain
  • phantom limbs
  • synaesthesia (auditory input forms colour processing)
  • epileptic activity
195
Q

What are nociceptors?

A

primary afferents with sensory nerve ending in the periphery. they are part of the somatosensory system. they differ from touch receptors as their axons terminate in the spinal cord and don’t go to the brain stem

196
Q

What are the two classes of nociceptors?

A
  • Adelta

- C

197
Q

What are Adelta nociceptors?

A
  • reasonably fast
  • responds to a variety of things
  • primary mechanical trauma or noxious heat
  • synapse in spinal cord with secondary afferents
  • the stabbing pain you feel when you are first injured
198
Q

What are C nociceptors?

A
  • this second class has C fibres which have think non-myelinated axons
  • they re very slow and don’t send the warning signal
  • reporting on going situations
  • eg intese pressure, noxious cold or heat
  • wide rang elf inflammatory mediators
  • produce the throbbing, aching, long term pain that persists until the injury is healed
199
Q

How do nociceptors respond to inflammation?

A
  • C fibres are pro inflammation
  • can release a variety of substances from their terminals, including substance P
  • destroyed cells release their contents into extracellular space, particularly potassium
  • this depolarises any near by nerve cells including C fibres
  • the potassium triggers inflammation via inflammatory mechanisms
  • in the process of this you see the release of histamine, bradykinin and prostaglandins
  • prostaglandins make the cells more responsive to the other substances
  • depolarisation spreads to the other terminals which will release pro inflammatory peptides such as substance P
  • this will depolarise overlapping C fibre territories also
  • the initial cut ends up being surrounded by an extended region with swelling, tenderness and redness
  • this is good because it means the initial injury is surrounded by a hypersensitive region, which prevents you using it, and exposing it to further injury, therefore it is protected
200
Q

How do nociceptors contribute to inflammation?

A

Note in particular increases in histamine release and prostaglandin production, as well as recruitment of immune cells, vasodilation and extravasation.

nociceptors release chemicals that recruit immune cells and cause inflammation

201
Q

What is the difference between sensation and perception?

A

Sensation: awareness that an event has occurred

Perception: what is it? where is it? what does it mean? what should i do? localisation and discrimination of pain

202
Q

What is referred pain?

A
  • each organ has a characteristic pattern of referred pain
  • this is why the homunculus doesn’t have viscera
  • pain dissent up to the cortex in referred pain e.g. heart attack - NOT sent down to the hand
203
Q

What are the types of subconscious signals that the CNS controls?

A
  • control of movement
  • autonomic responses
  • emotional and behavioural responses
204
Q

What happens in medial pain pathways?

A
  • control of attention, arousal and autonomic systems

- someone that is hurt will suddenly be very alert, fast heart rate, sweating etc

205
Q

In what ways is arousal affected in modulatory pathways?

A
  • sleep and wakefulness
  • focussing attention
  • switching attention
206
Q

How does ‘normal’ pain result?

A

from tissue damage stimulating nociceptors

207
Q

What is sensitisation of pain?

A

nociceptive pain may be increased by sensitisation but this is only normal provided that it fades

208
Q

What is neurogenic pain from?

A

neurogenic pain may be triggered by injury, but becomes independent of tissue damage. we sometimes continue to feel pain long after the injury has gone away - his is neurogenic pain

209
Q

How could long term potentiation contribute to chronic pain states?

A

you can get this in adults. if you cut or injury a nerve it will start firing. High frequency activation - long term potentiation.

Anticonvulsants ana be used as a treatment for chronic pain, and this is becomes some can reduce the effectiveness of potentiated synapses.

210
Q

What does it mean that aberrant activity can become self-sustaining?

A

aberrant activity in one location can generate aberrant activity elsewhere.

211
Q

Why is pathological pain associated with abnormal cerebral cortical activity?

A
  • cortical responses to mildly painful stimuli can be detected via fMRI
  • activity levels correlate with reported pain
  • both are increased in pathological pain states
212
Q

What is the difference between nociceptive pain and neuropathic pain?

A

Nociceptive: tissue damage

Neuropathic: brain/nerve damage

213
Q

What are some examples of major analgesic drugs?

A
  • opioids
  • NSAIDS
  • tricyclic antidepressants
  • anti-convulsants (Na+ channel blockers)
  • Ca2+ channel blockers
  • cannabinoids
214
Q

What are opiates?

A

substance from poppy somniferum (sleep producing) e.g. morphine, codeine

215
Q

What are opioids?

A

endogenous/synthetic compounds that produce morphine-like effects

216
Q

Where do opioids act?

A

at G-protein-coupled-receptors - all linked to Gi/G0

subtypes: MOP, DOP and KOP

217
Q

About MOP receptors…

A

MOP receptors are often associated with actions of morphine. MOP receptor is most prominently linked to analgesia.

Receptors can couple with each other (not just MOP) and with other GPCRs. They are very complex.

218
Q

What do opioids do?

A

opioids reduce synaptic transmission - very different to NSAIDS

decreased VGCCs –> decreased NT release
K+ efflux –> hyper polarisation decreased neural firing

both mechanisms reduce nociceptive conduction

219
Q

What are euphoric effects of opioids?

A

euphoria - give a powerful sense of ‘well-being’ and relief of stress - this is a very important analgesic tool and patients are often anxious and distressed.

This is thought to be due to increased dopamine neurotransmission. this is caused by disinhibition of GABAnergic interneurones in ‘reward’ areas

220
Q

What are respiratory effects of opioids?

A

Respiratory depression

opioid receptors are found in respiratory areas of the brain: pre-botzinger complex, brain stem and medullary nuclei chemoreceptors

this causes suppression of the respiratory pattern and the chemoreceptors are less sensitive to PCO2

arterial increase in PCO2 - normally would increase the ventilation rate but this cannot occur due to the presence of the opioid

opioid-induced respiratory depression is not linked to CVS complication - so is better tolerated than other drugs that effect both respiration and CVS e.g. barbiturates

–> respiratory failure is the commonest cause of death in opioid overdose

221
Q

What are other effects of opioids?

A
  • cough
  • vomiting
  • pupillary constriction
  • GI increase in tone, constipation
  • histamine release from mast cells
  • tolerance/dependence
222
Q

What are examples of commonly encountered opioids?

A
  • codeine
  • methadone
  • diamorphine (heroin)
  • –> morphine

(morphine goes into morphine-3-glucuronide (inactive) and morphine-6-glucuronide (active)) which is then excreted by the kidneys

223
Q

What is naloxone?

A

blocks all opioid receptors, reverses morphine-induced symptoms, used to reverse overdose problems

224
Q

What is buprenorphine?

A

long duration of action, heroin on top induces little effects, treatment of heroin addiction.

225
Q

How can the primary motor cortex be identified on the brain?

A
  • part of frontal lobe
  • inverted omega sign on superior surface of brain (river thames sign)
  • can find central sulcus just behind it

in MRI/CT scans it is often easier to see on the left side, perhaps because most people are right handed and so their left side is dominant - backwards door knob

226
Q

How an you find the central sulcus on a midsagittal brain surface?

A
  • follow cingulate sulcus posteriorly
  • when it deflect upwards forms eh corpus callous os the marginal part (pars marginalis)
  • central sulcus immediately infront, sloping down and back at right angles
227
Q

What is the prefrontal region?

A
  • non-motor
  • includes entire orbital region
  • 3/4 of frontal cortex
  • 30% of total cortical surface area

Broca’s area is in this region

eg Phineas Gage

228
Q

What is the prefrontal region responsible for?

A
  • cognition
  • goal orientate behaviour
  • social interactions
  • intelligence
  • creativity

eg Phileas Gage

229
Q

what are the two main regions of the prefrontal cortex?

A

DORSOLATERAL PREFRONTAL CORTEX

ORBITOMEDIAL PREFRONTAL CORTEX

230
Q

What is the dosrsolateral prefrontal cortex?

A
  • cognitive funcitons
  • “executive functions”
  • takes part in basal ganglia loops that pass through the caudate nucleus
  • regulation of normal thinking
  • abnormally active ein OCD patients

Also contains frontal eye fields which control gaze and attention - which can be affected in frontal lobe damage.

231
Q

What is the orbitomedial prefrontal cortex?

A
  • regulation of behaviour, personality and social conduct

- lesions: rude, disinhibited and inappropriate. Decision making and judgement severely impaired.

232
Q

What is the strutter of the parietal lobe?

A
  • posterior to central sulcus, above lateral sulcus
  • lateral parietal region contains post central gyrus/primary somatosensory cortex (immediately behind the motor strip)
  • map of body corresponding to tactile sensitivity and discriminative touch
  • the res tis divided into superior and inferior parietal lobules by intraparietal sulcus
233
Q

What are the functional areas of the parietal lobe?

A

POSTCENTRAL GYRUS/SENSORY STRIP

POSTERIOR PARIETAL CORTEX

POSTERIOR PARIETAL REGION

234
Q

What is the postcentral gyrus/sensory strip?

A
  • somatic sensation

- termination point for ascending somatic sensory pathways

235
Q

What is the posterior parietal cortex?

A
  • behind sensory strip
  • somatosensory association cortex
  • visuospatial representation of objects in the extra personal space - localisation and movement
  • receives projections forms he visual pathway (“where” pathway) telling where objects are and how they’re moving
  • also important for object interaction
236
Q

What is the posterior parietal region?

A
  • in cooperation wit the frontal lobe
  • daily activities (walking, knife and fork, dressing)
  • damage affects these functions
  • identifies interesting objets in the environment
  • projection to frontal eye fields controlling visual attention and voluntary gaze
  • posterior parietal strokes and lesions can cause attentional problems including neglect of half of the world - some patients may be unaware f the problem and think they are fine - this is called ANOSOGNOSIA
237
Q

What are praxes?

A

semi-automatic motor sequences (e.g. scissors, shoelaces). these are stored in the prefrontal cortex and selected b the posterior parietal lobe.

difficulty with this is called APRAXIA.

238
Q

What is Gerstmann Syndrome?

A

in posterior parietal region the left hemisphere is dominant/verbal

it is involved in symbolic representation, concepts of number, maths and physical ability and reading and writing

lesions cause problems with this and this is gerstmann syndrome

239
Q

What is the PRECUNEUS?

A

in te medial part of the parietal lobe between the paracentral lobule and the cuneus of the occipital lobe

there is increased blood flow to this area during day dreaming, quiet contemplation, meditation, recalling personal (episodic) memory and visualising in the ‘minds eye’

240
Q

What is the anatomy of the occipital lobe?

A
  • posterior to the parieto-occipital sulcus and pre occipital notch
  • medial, lateral and inferior surfaces
  • concerned entirely with vision
241
Q

what is the medial occipital lobe?

A
  • divided by the calcimine sulcus into wedge shapes cuneus and tone shaped lingual gyrus
    0 primary visual cortex in calcimine sulcus
  • most of exposed surface consists of visual association cortex
  • visual information relating to forma dn colour passes inferiorly to the temporal lobe in the temporal love visual stream (“what” pathway)
  • informations integrated by lateral and inferior temporal cortex to identify and categorise objects –> failure to do so is AGNOSIA
242
Q

What is the temporal lobe?

A
  • below lateral sulcus
  • posterior boundary is the pre occipital notch
  • composed of superior, middle and inferior temporal gyro, defined by superior and inferior temporal sulk
  • the superior surface is flat and hide in the lateral sulcus

contains the primary auditory cortex which receives the central auditory pathways. the surrounding cortical territories the auditory association cortex which is responsible for recognition of speech sounds in the language dominant hemisphere.

the lateral temporal region is involved in recognition of objects and in categorisation

243
Q

What are the two language areas?

A

Brocas area and Wernickes area

surrounding areas in the inferior parietal lobe are involved in the understanding of written language/reading

244
Q

What is Broca’s area?

A
  • in the inferior frontal gyrus
  • “motor” language area
  • production of speech and language
245
Q

What is Wernicke’s area?

A
  • in the posterior third of the superior temporal gyrus
  • “sensory” language area
  • recognition of speech sounds and understanding spoken language
246
Q

What is the arcuate fasciculus?

A
  • arc shape white matter bundle
  • connects anterior and posterior language areas- begins at the frontal lobe and passes posteriorly and sweeps down into the temporal lobe
247
Q

In general terms what is dysphasia?

A

an acquired disorder of spoken and written language

248
Q

What happens as a result of anterior hemispheric lesions in the region of broca’s area?

A
  • non-fluent dysphasia: slow, disjointed, hesitant speech
  • patient becomes frustrates
  • comprehension relatively preserved (multi-step task test)
249
Q

What happens as a result of posterior hemispheric lesions in the region of wernicke’s area?

A
  • fluent dysphasia: fast, flowing speech but nonsense
  • patient often unconcerned and unaware
  • comprehension severely affected
250
Q

What is conduction aphasia?

A

patient has normal expression and comprehension but a selective difficulty with repeating phrases. often due to a lesion in the arcuate fasciculus which is said to disconnect the sensory and motor language areas

251
Q

What is global dysphasia/aphasia?

A

both language areas are affected and there is a sever deficit in language expression and comprehension

252
Q

What is the homologue of Brocas area?

A

it is in the non-dominant hemisphere

important for non-verbal aspects of speech e.g. rate, rhythm, tone, gestures and facial expressions

253
Q

What is the homologue of Wernicke’s area?

A

in the non-dominant hemisphere

important for understanding subtlety of tone e.g. recognising sarcasm

254
Q

What is the definition of hypertension?

A

sustained elevation of systolic and diastolic blood pressure >140/90 mmHG

255
Q

What are the causes of hypertension?

A

primary (idiopathic/essential): no identifiable cause

secondary to: renal disease, adrenal tumours, aortic coarctation, steroid reaction

256
Q

What damage can hypertension do to blood vessels?

A

contribute to all aspects of hypertensive organ damage. blood vessels themselves undergo atheroma and aneurysm formation in large vessels, elastic reduplication in small vessels

257
Q

What damage can hypertension do to the heart?

A

left ventricular hypertrophy, left heart failure (LHF)

258
Q

What damage can hypertension do to the lungs?

A

pulmonary oedema due to LHF

259
Q

What damage can hypertension do to the kidneys?

A

nephrosclerosis, renal failure

260
Q

What damage can hypertension do to the eye?

A

retinal capillary damage, haemorrhages, exudates

261
Q

What damage can hypertension do to the brain?

A

micro aneurysms and stroke ischaemic cortical atrophy/dementia

262
Q

What is hypertensive heart disease?

A

increased load causes concentric left ventricular hpertrophy

263
Q

What is hypertensive nephropathy?

A

granular cortical atrophy due to nephrocsclerosis - loss of a glomerulus causes atrophy of the nephron

264
Q

What is hypertensive retinopathy?

A

can be mild, moderate or late chronic (‘malignant’ acute)

MILD: nicking of retinal veins by overlying arterioles, normally they run alongside

MODERATE: straightened, wider capillaries - flame shaped haemorrhages - ‘cotton wool’ spots - (later) ‘hard’ exudates around macula

LATE CHRONIC: papilloedema, haemorrhage

265
Q

How are the blood vessels involved in hypertension?

A

BP controlled by the arterioles, especially the latter - they e resistance vessels which can constrict of relax to alter the peripheral resistance.

change sin the luminal diameter of the arterioles are the most important component in regulating systemic arterial BP. the resistance of flow is equivalent to the fourth power of the diameter. therefore, a 50% decrease in the lumen results in a 16-fold increase in the pressure

266
Q

What changes occur to the blood vessel in hypertension?

A
  • resistance arterials show elastic duplication
  • ‘hyaline arteriosclerosis’ damages arterioles as plasma exudes into the intimate and deeper layers of the wall, sometimes out of the smaller vessels - glassy pink appearance on histology
  • endothelium is subject to damage by shearing forces applied y the high pressure cardiac output: atheroma is likely to develop at sites of endothelial damage due to hypertension
  • atheroma tends to affect larger blood vessels, so does not increase peripheral resistance sufficiently to cause hypertension, however the two disease are often encountered together
267
Q

What is the blood pressure equation?

A

BP = CO x TPR

268
Q

What stimulates vasodilation or constriction in the blood vessels?

A

baroreceptors in the carotid sinus are sensitive to stretching of the artery and signal BP alterations to the brain stimulating vasoconstriction or dilation

chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies and aortic bodies respond to decreased oxygen tension, increased CO2 and increased H+ ions

in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system the kidney juxtaglomerular complex releases renin in response to low renal blood flow/low blood Na+/sympathetic NS stimulation

269
Q

What is the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?

A

renin cleaves angiotensinogen in the blood to angiotensin I. lung capillary cell enzyme ACE forms angiotensin II from I.

270
Q

How does angiotensin II increase BP?

A
  • peripheral vasoconstriction of resistance vessels
  • stimulating aldosterone release by the adrenal cortex = increases water reabsorption by the kidney
  • stimulates ADH secretion by posterior pituitary = increases water reabsorption by the kidney
  • stimulated thirst = increased blood volume
  • stimulates cardiac hypertrophy
  • thanes sympathetic nervous system stimulation by increasing noradrenaline release and decreasing reuptake at sympathetic nerve endings
  • negative feedback is by NATRIURETIC PEPTIDES (ANP and BNP), released by the heart
271
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A

a bulge in the wall of a blood vessel

272
Q

What is a true aneurysm?

A

when the entire wall of the vessel bulges - sometimes part of the wall is cut or torn, usually by trauma and the inner layers urge through he tear - some people would term this a false aneurysm because not all the layers are affected

273
Q

What is a false aneurysm?

A

occur if the artery wall is punctured and blood tracks out int adjacent tissue, but it contained locally by scar tissue. this expands as further blood is pumped out of the vessel wall

274
Q

What are examples of types of aneurysm?

A
  • berry (saccular) aneurysms
  • micro aneurysms
  • abdominal aortic aneurysms
  • stretched aortic ring
275
Q

What is a berry aneurysm?

A

typically occur at the bifuratons of the arteries in tech circle of willis. their rupture usually causes subarachnoid haemorrhage

276
Q

What are micro aneurysms?

A

typically occur in cerebral arteries in patients with hypertension. their rupture cause intracerebral haemorrhage

277
Q

What are abdominal aneurysms?

A

usually secondary to atheroma and may rupture casing intraperitoneal haemorrhage and death, or throw odd thromboembolic causing ischaemia and gangrene

278
Q

What is stretched aortic ring aneurysm?

A

can be due to aortic dissection (‘dissecting aneurysm’) or symphilitic aneurysm. both develop due to weakening of the media and may rupture, causing haemopericardium an cardiac tamponade

279
Q

Where do aneurysms often occur?

A

often occur at points of weakness

  • usually due to atheroma
  • sometimes due to inflammatory image
  • occasionally due to connective tissue abnormalities
  • sometimes follow trauma
280
Q

What do aneurysms look like?

A
  • most are secondary to atheroma and are fusiform (spindle shaped)
  • saccular aneurysms often occur after focal damage to a vessel
  • berry aneurysms are saccular and are due to focal vessel wall weakness at the point of bifurcation
281
Q

What are possible complications of aneurysms?

A
  • rupture
  • thrombosis
  • thromboembolism
282
Q

What is aortic dissection - ‘dissecting aneurysm’?

A

typical of an elderly person with medial degeneration or marfan’s syndrome - a congenitally weak media

scenario:

  • tear in intimate,typically aortic root, allows blood to enter the aortic wall and form a parallel track
  • this may rupture back into the aortic or rupture through the adventitia, causing death by cardiac tamponade or exsanguination
283
Q

What is ischaemic stroke?

A
  • 80% of stroke cases
  • thromboembolic: sources include thrombus over atheroma at carotid bifurcation; mural thrombus from heart
  • primary occlusion of intracerebral artery/arteriole
  • lacunar: occlusion of single penetrating artery ~1/4 of ischaemic strokes fall into this category. tiny lesions 0.2-15mm diameter, can be silent, associated with white matter lesions and ‘vascular’ dementia, or catastrophic e.g. brainstem
284
Q

What is haemorrhage stroke?

A
  • 20% of cases

- most commonly due to rupture of cerebral micro aneurysm secondary to hypertension

285
Q

What is the ischaemic penumbra?

A
  • the core of an infarct will undergo irretrievable and irreversible necrosis
  • the adjacent territory is only relatively ischaemic, as there may be a degree of compensation from nearby blood supplies
  • if arterial perfusion can be stored within 3 hours, much of the ‘penumbra’ territory may be salvaged. some benefit to treatment up to 6 hours later
  • ischaemic damage to endothelium may render newly perfused vessels leaky, so restoration of function may not be as good as hoped and bleeding may occur
286
Q

What do the clinical effects of a stroke depend on?

A
  • site
  • size
  • speed of restoration of circulation/evacuation of blood clot
287
Q

What are the acute and chronic features of stroke?

A

ACUTE: headache/neurologicla deficit, confusion, coma, death

CHRONIC: site dependent

288
Q

What is a space occupying lesion (SOL)?

A

A massive bleed acts as a SOL in the brain and can cause herniation of the brain and death due to coning - the squeezing of the brain and brainstem through the foramen magnum as a result of swelling. It may lead to a loss of basic cardiorespiratory function.

289
Q

What are the three main sites at which herniation of the brain can occur in response to a SOL in the brian?

A
  • beneath the FALX CEREBRI
  • through the TENTORIUM CEREBELLI
  • through the FORAMEN MAGNUM
290
Q

What is liquification necrosis in the brain?

A

cerebral lesions due to strokes are soft due to liquification necrosis o the brain tissue, which i a type of necrosis which results in transformation of the tissue into a liquid viscous mass.. When this s cleared by macrophages, cystic spaces remain in the brain.

Near by gloss is the brains equivalent to scarring.

291
Q

What are lacunar artefacts?

A
  • typically seen in diabetes and or hypertension, usually with extensive small vessel atheroma
  • affect deep penetrating arterioles - typically to basal ganglia, brainstem, thalamus and deep white matter, small lesions 2-15mm
  • not space-occupying lesions
  • tiny cystic infarcts may be devastating e.g. if internal capsule is involved, a 2mm infarct mat cause a dense hemiplegia, if white matter can be clinically silent but contribute to vascular dementia
  • minimal additional symptoms due to small calibre vessels involved
292
Q

What is TIA?

A

Transient Ischaemic Attack

  • neurological deficit lasting 1 hour, diabetes
  • indication for immediate investigation and intervention
293
Q

What are methods of stroke management?

A

anti platelet therapy: aspirin, clopidogrel, dipyridamole

thrombolysis (best within 3 hours may have functional benefit up to 6 hours later)

evacuation of clot

294
Q

What are methods of stroke prevention?

A
  • smoking cessation: tax++ on cigarettes
  • aspirin for those at risk
  • decrease salt intake
  • treat atrial fibrillation: warfarin, and new direct anticoagulants developed
  • fast recognition of TIA
295
Q

What is subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

often considered together with occlusive or haemorrhage strokes.

SAH is not a stroke on technical grounds, since is involves vessels which are external to the brain itself. however, SAH can induce spasm in cerebral arteries, on reason for the high mortality and morbidity in this condition.

296
Q

What are types of intracranial haemorrhage other than stroke?

A
  • extradural haemorrhage
  • subdural haemorrhage
  • subarachnoid haemorrhage
  • cerebral contusions
  • multiple petechial haemorrhages
297
Q

What is extradural haemorrhage?

A

typically parietal due to rupture of middle meningeal artery, often acute. ‘lucid interval’ common after initial consciousness because tough dura takes time to stretch

298
Q

What is subdural haemorrhage?

A

eg rupture of wins crossing subdural space; may be acute (post trauma, similar to extradural) or chronic - typical in dementia as shrunken bean renders shearing injury more likely

299
Q

Why are cerebral contusions?

A

trauma - may be ‘contra-coup’ injury

300
Q

What are multiple petechial haemorrhages?

A

obstruction of small arterioles and capillaries e.g. falciparum malaria, DIC. Capillary obstruction causes multiple tiny infarcts but because the disease is not primarily of cerebral blood vessels and disseminated through the body, this is not a stroke

301
Q

What are the meninges?

A

dura mater: thick layer adherent to skull

pia-arachnoid: fused delicate membrane which follows the contours of the brain

302
Q

Subarachnoid vs subdural haemorrhage?

A

subarachnoid: often follows ruptured berry aneurysm, blood is confined beneath pia/arachnoid and follows the brain contours
subdural: formation is the result of trauma, blood clot lies between the arachnoid and dural meninges

303
Q

Why are most infarcts pale and solid?

A

due to coagulation necrosis eg splenic or renal infarcts

304
Q

What are watershed zones?

A

regions of the body that receive dual blood supply from the most distal branches of two large arteries, such as the splenic flexure of the large intestine

305
Q

What is watershed zone infarction?

A

ischemia, or blood flow blockage, that is localized to the border zones between the territories of two major arteries in the brain

306
Q

Why does watershed zone infarction occur?

A

due to hypo perfusion at the boundaries of arterial territories: brain, colon, heart

if BP suddenly drops profoundly, e.g. following profuse haemorrhage, tissue at the periphery of adjacent arterial territories mat be starved of oxygen and undergo infarction

307
Q

What are typical examples of watershed zone infarction?

A

the splice flexor of the colon and the watershed zones of the cerebral arteries making up the circle of willis

308
Q

What water shed zone infarction would affect the brain?

A
  • anterior cerebral artery territory
  • middle cerebral artery territory
  • posterior cerebral artery territory

leaves a watershed zone

309
Q

What special requirements does cerebral circulation have?

A
  • neuronal cell bodies (grey matter) make up 40% of brain tissue and are intolerant of hypoxia - without O2 neuronal damage occurs in several minutes. Therefore the primary requirement of the brain is a constant O2 rich blood supply.
  • for proper function the brain has a very high O2 consumption, so constantly requires a high blood flow (100 ml/min/100g grey matter)
  • local functioning within the bran requires constant changes in local blood flow
310
Q

In what ways does the brain adapt for the special requirements of cerebral circulation?

A
  • high O2 consumption/size
  • high proportion of cardiac output/size
  • high resting O2 extraction of 35% (body average is 25%)
311
Q

What structural special features does the brain have regarding cerebral circulation?

A

to achieve constant high flow of O2 rich blood to the brain, the circulation has developed the circle of willis. an anastomosis..

to achieve high O2 delivery/extraction to neurones, capillary density is very high (3000-4000 per mm^2) - ficks law: J= -DA ∆C/

Blood brain barrier: formed of very tight endothelial junctions

312
Q

What arteries are in the circle of willis?

A
  • anterior cerebral artery
  • internal carotid artery
  • middle cerebral artery
  • posterior cerebral artery
  • posterior communicating artery
  • vertebral artery
  • basilar artery
313
Q

What are the functional special features of the brian in terms of cerebral circulation?

A
  • the brain controls the CVS to safeguard its own blood supply by: carotid sits baroreceptors which monitor cerebral perfusion pressure (BP) and controlling heart/peripheral vasculature through reflexes
  • cerebral resistance vessels are spared from baroreceptor reflex-induced vasoconstriction
  • auto-regulation is extremely well developed (myogenic response)
  • local metabolic vasodilation is well developed
  • tight blood-brain barrier controls the access and outflow solutes
314
Q

What is the system of nervous control of cerebral arteries?

A
  • cerebral arteries ‘outside’ the brain receive dense innervation from sympathetic nerves
  • cerebral arterioles ‘within’ the brain have little innervation
  • little involvement of cerebral vasculature in baroreceptor reflex
  • 5-HT (serotonin) is abundant in perivascular nerves around cerebral arteries
  • perivascular sensory fibres (nociceptors) mediate the pain of vascular headaches in strokes and the later phase of migraine
315
Q

What happens at the blood brain barrier?

A

There is a scanty vesicular transport system

  • continuous tight junctions
  • O2, CO2 and general anaesthetics can go across as they are all lipid soluble
  • carrier-mediated transport (facilitate diffusion) of glucose and amino acids
316
Q

What is the function of the BBB?

A

KEEP OUT: circulating neuro-active chemicals that would interfere with neuronal signalling e.g. catecholamines

KEEP IN: neurotransmitters - otherwise they would be continuously washed out of brain due to the high blood flow

317
Q

In what areas is the BBB detective to allow access of signalling molecules?

A
  • area postrema of brainstem: emetic molecules (vomiting centre), angiotensin II (sympathetic stimulation)
  • sub-fornicular organ of hypothalamus: angiotensin II (thirst sensation)
  • periventricular osmoreceptors (hypothalamus): plasma osmolarity (ADH secretion)
318
Q

What are special problems of the cerebral circulation?

A
  1. postural hypotension
  2. cerebral artery vasospasm
  3. cerebrovascular accidents or ‘strokes’
  4. encasement in rigid cranium – cerebral tumours or haemorrhage cause a SOL rain gin intracranial pressure = Cushings reflex (increased BP and reflex bradycardia)
319
Q

What is postural hypotension exacerbated by?

A
  • warmth
  • bed rest
  • zero gravity
320
Q

What is vasospasm due to?

A

local vasoconstrictor agents

  • 5-HT from peripheral nerves - prodromal phase of migraine
  • neuropeptide Y from perivascular nerves
  • endothelin-1 from vascular endothelium - vasoconstriction
  • K+ ions from damaged cells - excitability of vascular tissue
321
Q

What is vasospasm reduced by?

A
  • Ca2+ channel blockers (acting on vascular smooth muscle)

- Eta receptor blockers

322
Q

What is vasospasm?

A

sudden constriction of a blood vessel, reducing its diameter and flow rate.

323
Q

What types of cerebrovascular accidents (CVAs, ‘strokes’) are there?

A

OBSTRUCTION 80%

  • cerebral artery thrombosis/embolism
  • due to atheroma
  • small arterial emboli shed from atheromatous carotid artery/vertebral artery cause repeated ‘transient ischaemic attacks’ (TIA) which resolve in hours between episodes

HAEMORRHAGE 20%

  • sub-arachnoid/intra-cerebral
  • rupture of berry aneurysm (younger adults)
  • neurological damage is due partly to the triggered vasospasm - not just lots of blood flow
324
Q

How does a SOL lead to Cushing’s reflex?

A
  • SOL
  • increased sympathetic vasoconstrictor activity
  • increased TPR
  • increased BP
  • baroreflex and bradycardia
325
Q

What does the neural retina do?

A

detects light and contains efferents which go out and form the optic nerve, carrying signals back to the thalamus

326
Q

What is the different role of rods and cones?

A

Cones: daylight (‘photopic’) vision
Rods: night time (‘scotopic’) vision

327
Q

How does the retina send information to the brain?

A

we have afferents wit ganglion cells. axons run across the surface of the retina. the gap is bridged by interneurones in the inner nuclear layer.

bipolar cells form bridges between photoreceptors and underlying ganglion cells. these are connected to overlying cones.

328
Q

What is the receptive field?

A

the bit of the visual image focussed onto the overlying cones

329
Q

Why is light scattered as it passes through the first few layers of the eye?

A

because they are translucent. this is a weakness in he design of the eye, as the light becomes ‘blurred’ as a result of this.

this causes poor sampling so the light is sampled by cones which are scattered /separated by large numbers of rod photoreceptors.

330
Q

Why does resolution get poorer as you go further out of the visual field?

A

the input from these two ganglion cells is convergent and they all converge into a single ganglion cell. these get larger and larger the further out you go of the visual field, and so resolution gets poorer and poorer

331
Q

Why is the peripheral retina only capable of coarse vision?

A
  • the visual image is optically blurred
  • the cone photoreceptors are large and widely spaced (separated by larger number of rods)
  • the signals from many cones converse onto single ganglion cells
332
Q

Where is the exception to the fovea having no overlying blood vessels?

A

the centre of the retina, and this is why we don’t have really poor vision. round the very centre is the optic nerve had and this is what we mean when we talk about central vision.

333
Q

What is the macula lucida?

A

an area with yellow pigment near the centre of the retina - it is the blind spot

334
Q

What is the fovea?

A

a small, central pit composed of closely packed cones in the eye. It is located in the center of the macula lutea of the retina

335
Q

Why is there a foveal pitch?

A

there is a small region where the ganglion cell layer and interneurone later is pushed aside, leaving a pit which exposes the photoreceptors. light coming in through here doesn’t have to pass through all the layers and this is the one part of your eye where the image is well focussed.

the ganglion cells connecting here don’t have convergence. the sampling isn’t blurred by convergence. input form those cones kept separate all the way back to the primary visual cortex.

336
Q

How is the fovea specialised for high resolution?

A
  • overlying layers and blood vessels are absent, so the image is well focussed
  • it contains only cone receptors
  • which are narrow and closely packed
  • the signals form the photoreceptors are kept separate
337
Q

Why do we not have colour vision on the outer edges of the retina?

A

the wiring between the rods and the ganglion cells isn’t specific enough to pull out the individual differences.

the further out of the periphery you go, the worse it gets.

338
Q

What are the various things that can happen to the light entering the eye?

A
  • hit the transparent corey and pass straight through
  • stopped by the iris
  • pass through the pupil and be brought into focus on the retina by the optics of the eye
339
Q

What parts of the eye bend the light to bring it into focus?

A

the cornea does this most. we need the lens as well though which is weaker but is adjustable, whereas the cornea is fixed.

the lens allows near and far focus and so it accommodates for different distances of vision.

340
Q

What does the pupil do?

A

the pupil allows light through. the visual system can adapt to a huge range of light levels and the pupil size change isn’t predominantly responsible for this.

the bigger the pupil, the more blue in the image because you get more light rays going through and so more bending. however, the pupil can never be a single pin prick in size because we need to allow enough light in for the image to be useful.

341
Q

What des the sphincter papillae do?

A

it is a ring muscle - when this muscle contracts the pupil gets smaller.

342
Q

What are the short ciliary nerves?

A

part of the sympathetic nervous system and use Ach, hence atropine will make the pupil engaged for examinations.

343
Q

What is the preganglionic pathway?

A

The preganglionic pathway is driven from the retina itself.

CNIII with ciliary ganglion at the end of it, the ganglion cell in the retina is activated if the retina is illuminated.

the signal is sent back to other places such as the brain stem to the nucleus.

the pretectal nucleus activates the edinger westphal nucleus, which activates the ciliary ganglion.

these reflex pathways allow the pupil to contract when light becomes brighter in that eye.

344
Q

What does the pretectal nucleus do?

A
  • activates edinger westphal nucleus (which activates cilia ganglion)
  • feeds to both sides so both sides of retina are activated and so both pupils will contract at the same time
  • bilateral from front to back because of the afferents and efferents
  • both eyes will react in the same way at the same time
345
Q

What do we look for in pupil examinations and why?

A

We look for both pupils reacting in the same way at the same time. We want to see this because the pathways of the preganglionic fibres running through CNIII are very sensitive to raised intercranial pressure, which if raised stops them from functioning, and one will respond more slowing and then you know there is something badly wrong.

346
Q

What is the ciliary muscle?

A
  • also ring shaped
  • ring controls the lens (NOT the iris)
  • when the muscle contracts the ring gets smaller and the ring of suspensory ligaments that connect the end to this ring of muscle becomes slack, allowing the lens to get fatter in shape
  • if it is pulled flat by the sensory ligaments, when it contracts and relaxes the ligaments, it becomes round
  • a round lens has stronger refractive power. this is how the lens accommodates to different distances of vision
347
Q

What is the dilator papillae?

A
  • a radial muscle
  • when it contracts it pulls the pupil open
  • this is driven by the long ciliary nerves which are part of the sympathetic nervous system, releasing noradrenaline
  • when you see it suddenly dilate this is not always in response to light - it is due to a strong emotional drive - for example dear or love, and it is not controlled by light
348
Q

In what way are the optics of the normal eye matched to the length of the eyeball?

A

if you have perfect vision the length of the eye is perfectly matched to the strength of your optics.

the light rays will enter the eye basically parallel and only need a little bit of extra power in the lens. When getting closer, you need more refractive power and fatten up the lens and it all works out and the image is in focus.

349
Q

What does it mean if the eye is myopic?

A
  • if the optics are too strong for the length of the eye
  • if you are looking at something close the image will focus in front of the retina
  • this is short sighted
  • image is focussed by resetting the eye into distance vision, reducing the power of the eye and so we can get something close into focus
  • however this means we can’t then see far away because we ant flatten the lens any further
350
Q

How do you fix a myopic eye?

A
  • negative lens
  • diverges the light rays, weakening the power of the natural and artificial optics
  • the glass lens makes things smaller
351
Q

What does it mean if the eye is hypermetropic?

A
  • long sighted
  • optics too weak for the eye
  • looking into the distance, the image will focus behind the retina
  • reset the eye for close vision and fatten the lens to bring image into focus
  • can’t then look at something close up as the lens can’t fatten anymore; run out of focal power
352
Q

How do you fix a hypermetropic eye?

A
  • positive lens
  • increasing power of optics bringing image into focus
  • can see far at distance but need glasses for close work
353
Q

Why does the lens have very little regenerative capacity?

A
  • because to be transparent needs to have very few organelles
  • by age 45 lens will have become fixed meaning it will have stopped being malleable and ti will have stopped responding to changes in ciliary muscle (if lucky it will fix at a useful distance and won’t need varifocals)
354
Q

What is cataract?

A

when the proteins in the lens degenerate and the lens becomes opaque.

this happens with age, and can only be fixed by removing the lens and replacing it with an artificial one

355
Q

What is the primary visual pathway?

A
  • what we use to describe the eye
  • have a pathway associated with reflexes
  • all nuclei involved in this kind of movement of the eye are down in the brain stem, the biggest and most prominent is the superior colliculus
  • the ganglion cells in the eye that project back have branches that go down to the brain stem to drive these processes
  • these structures aren’t involved directly in visual perception
  • these come form the lateral cells in the retina to the primary visual cortex which sits in the occipital cortex embedded in the calcimine tissue which has a deep sulcus in the inside of the cortex at that point
356
Q

What is meant by a retina topic map?

A

there is a sort of map laid out within the retina - neighbouring points within the retina project to neighbouring points within the cortex.

on the LHS of the cortex there is a map of the right, and on the RHS there is a map of the left.

the bits with many ganglion cells have a huge representation in the retina topic map. the macula of the retina takes up half of the visual cortex

357
Q

What is the rule that has to be learnt for the visual pathways?

A
  • LHS is on the right side of the brain
  • the right visual world is on the LHS of the brain
  • the left eye will cross the nasal part of the retina and the temporal half will stay on the same side

the same happen for the other half of the visual world - this can be worked out from the first principles

358
Q

What happens if you have damage infront of the optic chiasm?

A
  • the damage will be independent in the two pathways
  • might have blind spots in both eye, but they will be different and won’t match, as they will have occurred independently
359
Q

What will happen if you have damage behind the chiasm?

A

behind the chiasm, axons from a matching part of the 2 retinae lie close together, so any lesion will take out a matching part of the visual field that is being projected back from the 2 eyes.

if it matches in both eyes then you know it is from behind the chiasm

360
Q

How do we map the visual field?

A
  • vertical line on little cartoon = central axis of vision
  • area between 2 lines is the blind spot
  • nasal region always smaller than the temporal because the nose gets in the way
  • temporal region always about 90 degrees
361
Q

What are binocular visual fields?

A
  • about the same
  • binocular vision
  • two eyes used together
362
Q

What could visual field defects be caused by?

A
  • retinal injury
  • tumour
  • infection
  • metabolic disease
363
Q

What is the main target of the retinal output?

A

the dorsal lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus, which in turn projects to the primary visual cortex (area V1)

364
Q

What is the structure of the retina?

A
  • layered structure that lines the back of the eye
  • outermost part is pigmented epithelium, single row of melanin containing cells providing vital support for adjacent photoreceptors and absorb stray light rays
  • other layers formed of neurones which aggregate into nuclear layers (cell bodies and nuclei) and plexiform layers (nerve cell processes and synapses)
  • outermost neural layer contains photoreceptors; small cells without axons which synapse with other retinal cells in the outer plexiform layer
  • innermost layer: retinal ganglion cells, they have axons and therefore fire APs - the axons stream across the virtual (inner) surface of the retina and exit to form the optic nerve
  • photoreceptors and ganglion cells linked by bipolar cells
  • bipolar cells span the vertical depth of the retina, indirectly linked via horizontal and amacrine cells, which extend horizontally to link neighbouring parts of the retina
365
Q

Why are retinotopic maps distorted?

A

because the central retina is specialised for high acuity vision and is therefore massively over-represented in comparison to the peripheral

366
Q

Where do the projections from each eye go to?

A
  • temporal half of retina projects to ipsilateral side of brain
  • nasal half projects to contralateral side
  • the axons cross over the optic chiasm
367
Q

When is the normal pattern of connections to the visual cortex established?

A

during the ‘critical period’ in early development, as a result of competitive interactions between the 2 sets of afferents

if the vision in one eye is seriously compromised during that period then its afferents will lose the competition for synaptic site

the afferents from the normal eye take over more of the visual cortex than usual, leaving the compromised eye with little input to the cortical circuitry. even if the initial problem is cured at a later stage, the eye will remain ‘amblyopic’

368
Q

What happens in the visual response of transduction?

A
  • the stacked disks of membrane in the photoreceptor outer segment contain photopigment, a photosensitive molecule formed from a membrane-bound protein (ospin) an a derivative of vitamin A called ‘retinal’
  • light causes photo-isomerisation of the retina from the 11-cis to the all-trans form, which in turn triggers a G-protein mediated outline above, hyper polarising the cell and reducing the release of transmitter.
  • conversely, decreasing illumination permits the channel to open again - the photoreceptors are exited by dark objects in the visual scene and inhibited by light.
369
Q

What are photoreceptors vulnerable to?

A
  • mutations affecting the many proteins the visual cycle

- to conditions that compromise there oxygen supply

370
Q

How does the visual stymie identify colours?

A
  • there are 3 types of cone photoreceptor that respond most effectively to long, medium and short (red, green and blue) wavelengths respectively
  • this is because they contain photopigments with different light absorbing characteristics
  • the visual system needs to compare the responses of one type of cone with another in order to identify colours, so people lacking one or more cone types have difficulty distinguishing some or all colours
371
Q

What are the ways of light adaptation in the eye?

A
  • rods are exceptionally sensitive to light - a rod can produce a measurable response to a single photon
  • downside to this sensitivity is that their photopigments are totally ‘bleached’ by even dullest day
  • while cone photoreceptors need a lot of light to produce any response at all, they will continue to respond in even the brightest conditions
  • whereas each ganglion cell receives in put from one or very few cones, that same cell will receive input from many hundreds of rods the night vision pathway gains even greatest sensitivity, but at the expense of very poor resolution
  • thus people with defective cones can only see at all in very dim condition and even then they have very poor acuity
372
Q

What are large receptor voided sensitive to?

A

fiat or fast moving objects

373
Q

What does the fovea capture?

A

only cones

(especially slender ones)

there is no convergence - outside the fovea, the output of more than one cone converges onto each ganglion cell

374
Q

What range of frequency can humans hear?

A

20Hx - 20kHz

375
Q

What is the auditory part f the ear?

A

cochlea - contains a complex arrangement of membranes that are designed to vibrate in response to sound waves and by doing so activate sensory receptors (‘hair cells’)

376
Q

What do hair cells do?

A

in turn release glutamate onto the peripheral endings of primary afferent nerve cells, exciting them and generating a signal that is sent to the cochlear nucleus

377
Q

How is sound passed through the outer and inner ear?

A
  • sound captured and amplified by trumpet like outer ear
  • channeled towards the ‘tympanic membrane’
  • vibration of air causes membrane to vibrate
  • tympanic membrane is in contact with a chain of three middle ear bones (auditory ossicles), the last of which presses against a membrane-covered entrance (oval window) in the bone surrounding the inner ear
  • ossicles amplify the sound via a lever-like action, but they are primarily needed to ensure that the sound waves don’t simple echo back off the air-water interface
  • in this way sound waves are converted into vibrations of the inner ear fluid
378
Q

What in the inner ear?

A

a system of tunnels and spaces channelled into the petrous portion of the temporal bone

379
Q

What does the inner ear/bony labyrinth include?

A
  • cochlea (snail shaped auditory component)
  • central vestibule
  • semi-circular canals (3 looped tunnels extending out from the vestibule)
380
Q

What is perilymph?

A

an unexceptional sodium-rich extracellular fluid within the compartments of the inner ear

381
Q

What is the membranous labyrinth?

A

a smaller, membrane bound compartment within the inner ear/bony labyrinth which is filled with endolymph (a fluid low in sodium, rich in potassium)

composed of the cochlear duct, auricle and saccule (linked pair of central chambers, both enclosed within bony vestibule) and three semi-circular ducts

382
Q

What happens at the stria vascularis in the ear?

A

chemical and electrical gradients between the endolymph and the surrounding tissue are generated by ion pumps in the stria vascularis

383
Q

What is the endolymphatic duct?

A

A thin tube that exits the petrous bone via the vestibular aqueduct and terminates in contact with the dura as the endolymphatic sac

the duct and sac play a vital role in the control of endolymph volume

384
Q

Why does the volume of endolymph need to be carefully regulated?

A

Since an increase in pressure will create aberrant activity in the neural pathways and potential damage the receptors.

This happens in Meniere’s disease

385
Q

What is the structure of the cochlea?

A
  • spiral shape containing three chambers separated by membranes
  • chambers extend in parallel along the length of the spiral, from the base to the apex
  • the upper and lower chambers (scala vestibule, scala tympani) are filled with perilymph, while the middle chamber (cochlear duct) is filled wth endolymph
  • cochlear duct and scala tympani are separated by the basilar membrane
  • running along the inner edge of this membrane is the spiral organ (organ of Corti) which also extends from the base to the apex of the cochlea
  • the sensory hair cells are part of this structure –> they sit with their apical surface facing into the endolymph-containing cochlear duct
386
Q

What are the auditory receptors like?

A

small, axones cells that have one distinguishing feature –> their apical surface carries a tuft of microvilli (stereo cilia), which are arranged in neat rows of increasing height.

the tips of each row of stereo cilia are linked to their taller and smaller neighbours by fine-tip links formed of protein strands

387
Q

What are the hair cells arranged like?

A

The hair cells sit with their appeal surfaces in contact with the endolymph of the cochlear ducts. this has a very much higher electrical potential (more +ve ions) than hear cell intracellular fluid –> in the cochlea the endolymph is +80mV more positive than the rest of the extracellular fluid in the body

388
Q

How are the cation channels in the stereo cilia membrane opened?

A

when the stereo cilia are tilted in the direction of the tallest row, the tip-links are stretched puling the cartion channels open.

Conversely, when the stereo cilia tilt away from the longest one, the channels close, allowing the hair cells to hyper polarise and reducing the release of the transmitter

the key is to ensure that the hair cell stereo cilia tilt in response to sound

389
Q

What is the main cation in the endolymph?

A

K+ - therefore K+ ions are driven into the hair cell by the electrical potential gradient, depolarising the hair cells and increasing the release of transmitter from synaptic sites on their bases.

390
Q

How is it ensured that the hair cell stereo cilia tilt in response to sound?

A

by a clever arrangement of the fluid-filled passages and gelatinous membranes

vibration of the inner ear fluid is transformed into the tilting of the stereo cilia, allowing K+ entry and thus causing a receptor potential

391
Q

What is the tectorial membrane?

A

a gelatinous flap overlying the organ of Corti and attached to the stereo cilia of the outermost hair cells

the stereo cilia are trapped between the tectorial and basilar membranes and any vibration of these membranes will tilt them back and forth

392
Q

What does sound analysis and discrimination rely most heavily upon?

A

the single row of inner hair cells (IHC)

given that a human cochlea contains only about 3500 of these, hearing is entirely dependent upon a very small number of cells (compared to the retina which contains millions of photoreceptors!)

unfortunately hair cells are delicate. their numbers decline with age and they can be destroyed in many ways (ototoxic drugs, infections etc)

393
Q

Why do loud sounds lead to permanent hearing deficits?

A

the fierce vibrations can damage the fragile stereo cilia and lead to permanent hearing deficits - hair cells are not replaced when lost

394
Q

How can outer hair cells increase the strength of the inner hair cell responses?

A

they act as a cochlear amplifier

when outer hair cells are depolarised by sound waves they shorten. when they shorten they pull on the basilar membrane in such a way that they boost the size of the basilar membrane vibrations - like a swing, if you push at the right moment it goes higher

395
Q

How does the auditory system determine the loudness of a sound?

A
  • louder sounds cause a larger movement of the cochlear membranes and stereo cilia, leading to greater depolarisation of the hair cell and more transmitter release
  • thus, the louder the sound the more APs are fired by the afferent nerve bundle.
396
Q

How does the auditory system determine the pitch of sound?

A
  • structure of basilar membrane and associated hair cells varies along the length of the cochlea so different points along the membrane have a natural tendency to oscillate at different frequencies
  • therefore high frequency sounds activate hair cells close to the base of the cochlea and low frequency sounds activate those close to the apex
  • the outer hair cells amplify the basilar membrane vibrations in such a way that they boost this selectivity
  • much of the auditory system is organised ‘topotopically’ i.e. the pathway from the cochlea terminate in an orderly fashion, so that cells at one end of a nucleus or cortical area receive input from the base of the cochlea and are tuned to high pitch sounds, while those as the other end receive input from the apex and are tunes to low pitch sounds
  • the brain can therefore determine the pitch of a sound from the location of the cells that respond to it
397
Q

How does the auditory system recognise the origin of sound?

A
  • hair cells excited afferents that have their cell bodies in the spiral ganglion and axons that exit the bony labyrinth via the internal auditory canal
  • they join the afferents of the vestibular system to create the 8th nerve
  • the auditory afferents terminate in the brain stem, in the dorsal and ventral cochlea nuclei
  • the ventral nucleus project in turn to the superior olivary nuclei. Here cells can determine the source of a sound by detecting tiny differences between the loudness and the timing of sound waves reaching the 2 ears
398
Q

What do the schwann cells associated with the vestibular branch tend to do?

A

schwann cells associated with the vestibular branch tend to produce tumours within the confines of the canal, which cause compression damage to the 7th and 8th nerves.

they typically affect hearing in the first instance, and are therefore commonly known as ‘acoustic neurones’

399
Q

What does the dorsal cochlear nucleus project to?

A

projects to the central nucleus of the inferior colliculus which also receives input from the olivary nuclei.

  • the pathway then continues via the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus to the cortex
  • inputs form the 2 ears are kept separate within the cochlear nuclei but are combined thereafter to produce binaural responses
  • the complexity of the subcortical pathways and the fact that several different cortical areas receive geniculate input, means that cortical lesions rarely result in total deafness
  • however, they may destroy a patients ability to analyse complex sounds
  • in particular, lesions to Wernicke’s area seriously impair the ability to interpret spoken language
400
Q

What are the ‘subcortical motor controllers’?

A

The basal ganglia and the cerebellum - “regulate planning and execution of voluntary movement”

  • both receive cortical inputs, both project to motor cortex via thalamus
  • both needed for smooth movement and posture
  • lesions lead to positive and negative motor symptoms
401
Q

About the cerebellum generally…

A
  • 10% of brain volume, but >50% of brain neurones
  • has expanded during evolution
  • has 40X more input axons than output, most outputs are projected to motor areas, but NOT to the spinal cord.
402
Q

What are the three types of symptoms in cerebellar lesions?

A
  1. hypotonia: low muscle tone, uncoordinated muscle contraction
  2. postural ataxia: can’t keep stable posture, e.g. sway and fall, especially with eyes closed
  3. intention tremor: overshoot, oscillation of voluntary movement
403
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A
  • improves performance in future: motor learning

- rapid on-line refinement of a rapid (“ballistic”) movement

404
Q

How is the cerebellum a feedback comparator?

A

The CBM can programme motor commands. This is spaced over around 2 seconds, and may take place for example when picking up an object. This is too slow for a ballistic movement as it is not fast enough for the cerebellum.

  • ok for motor learning
  • too slow for on-line control
405
Q

How is the CBM a feed-forward comparator?

A

there is enough programming in the cerebellum in the adult so that one can tell how a movement will go.

this involves much more rapid feedback on how that set of motor commands will do.

we therefore only have to make very small adjustments and can make the adjustment before the movement has even started thanks to the cerebellum.

406
Q

What are the three anatomical functions/domains of the CBM?

A

SPINOCEREBELLUM: modulates descending motor systems in brainstem (via nuclear formation, vestibularnuclei)

VESTIBULOCEREBELLUM: regulates balance and eye movements (via vestibular nucleI)

CEREBROCEREBELLUM: high level planning of movement; regulates cortical motor programmes (via thalamus to cortex)

407
Q

What is the cerebra-cerebellar pathway?

A

from the primary motor cortex the motor commands descend to the spinal cord and the skeletal muscles and send a collateral copy of those commands to the cerebellum

this occurs via the pons via the inferior olive into the cerebellar cortex. this means that the action potential has less far to travel.

the thing to not is the loop: the command goes from the cerebral motor cortex to the cerebellum and back to the cortex, continually modifying the commands going out

408
Q

What does the motor planning loop do?

A

this helps to modulate the set of commands coming from the cortex

409
Q

What are the types of cells in the cerebellum?

A
cerebellar matrix (highly regular structure, basic circuit)
purkinje cells (huge neurones)
granule cells (very numerous, approx 10^11)
410
Q

What is the output of the CBM via?

A

purkinje cells (GABAergic, inhibitory) –> deep cerebellar nuclei (excitatory) –> thalamus –> hence cerebral cortex

411
Q

What causes a purkinje cell to fire?

A

There is a layer of dendrites.

The climbing fibre comes form the inferior olive and wraps around a given purkinje cell and makes multiple synapses.

When the climbing fibre finds and action potential, the purkinje cell fires.

412
Q

What are the two excitatory inputs into the purkinje cell?

A

CLIMBING FIBRES from the cerebral cortex –> inferior olive (there is one per P-cell and there are around 10 P-cells per C-fibre)

Mossy fibres from pons/brianstem –> PARALLEL FIBRES from granule cells (there are around 1 million parallel fibres per P cell and many P-cells per parallel fibre)

413
Q

What are the local inhibitory neurones of purkinje fibres?

A

basket, stellate and golgi cells

414
Q

What happens when the purkinje cell fires at the same time as it makes a movement?

A

mean that you learn the movement was good and you can remember how to do it again

415
Q

What is involved in cerebellar learning?

A
  • climbing fibres: very potent input to the P cell
  • produce long-term changes in responsiveness to parallel fibre input
  • modified synaptic strength in the circuit
416
Q

What is the difference between the CBM’s role in motor learning and as a feed-forward comparator?

A

MOTOR LEARNING: when movement is repeated, CBM gives corrective feedback

FEED-FORWARD COMPARATOR: CBM refines a rapid movement on-line

417
Q

What is the basal ganglia?

A

a collection of deep brain nuclei, comprised of the thalamus, thalamic nuclei, the globes pallid us and the putamen (lentiform nucleus).

418
Q

How does the basal ganglia lead to nice control of the motor cortex?

A

there are loops in the basal ganglia of inhibition balanced with stimulation which leads to the control of motor function.

419
Q

Where are the motor signals in the basal ganglia primarily coming from?

A

the primary motor cortex

the motor signal is started in the supplementary motor areas, to the motor cortex and to the basal ganglia. There are lots of steps which ensure it is a smooth motor programme

420
Q

What happens when the basal ganglia malfunction?

A

abnormal movements:

  • chorea
  • dystonia
  • tics
  • myoclonus
  • tremor
  • hemiballisimus
  • bradyknesia

psychiatric disturbances:

  • anxiety
  • OCD
  • depression
  • ADHD

can have both types of symptoms

421
Q

What are the signs of parkinson disease?

A
  • bradykinesia
  • rigidity
  • tremor
  • postural instability
  • reduced facial expressiveness
  • festinant gait
  • reduced arm swing
422
Q

What is the layout of nigral degeneration in PD?

A

presentation in PD is asymmetrical, so they present with the affected side being contralateral to where the substantial nigra is affected

423
Q

What are the causes of parkinson?

A
  • genetic factors: LRRK2 20-30% all cases
  • environmental:
  • less common in smokers
  • well water
  • insecticides
  • is it infectious? neurologists get it a lot!
424
Q

What NT is involved a lot in PD?

A

dopamine!

425
Q

How is a DAT scan used in PD diagnosis?

A

by looking at levels of dopamine associated transport (DAT). it binds to the substantial nigra, then buries it forward into the caudate nucleus.

the scan will show the substantial nigra lighting up very asymmetrically in patients with PD

426
Q

How are MPTP models used in PD?

A

dopamine is metabolised and this can be reconstructed in MPTP models. When MPTP is with MAOB it forms free radicals which cause cell death, which dopamine does too. We can use MAOB inhibitors.

427
Q

What is the difference between PD and MPTP treated common marmosets?

A

PD:

  • primary pathology in substantial nigra
  • loss of NA and 5-HT containing neurones
  • akinesia/bradykinesia, rigidity and tremor and postural abnormalities
  • lewy bodies
  • progressive
  • motor complications

MPTP treated marmosets:

  • selective nigral toxicity
  • no loss of NA and 5-HT
  • akinesia/bradykinesia, rigidity and postural abnormalities but no resting tremor
  • no lewy bodies
  • non-progressive
  • motor complications
428
Q

What was discovered in the MPTP models?

A

the problem is that they aren’t the same disease, but if the marmosets were given dopamine agonists they ended up not developing the motor complications.

This was tried in clinical trial and those treated with dopamine agonists developed less motor complications

429
Q

What are the red flags of PD?

A
  • wheelchair sign
  • non-response to L-DOPA
  • early falls in first year
  • symmetrical onset
  • vertical gaze palsy
  • autonomic failure
  • cerebellar/pyramidal signs
430
Q

What are the features of DLB (dementia with lewy bodies)?

A
  • fluctuating confusion
  • hallucinations
  • poor visuospatial function
  • psychotic features e.g. delusions of infidelity
  • severe typical neuroleptic effect
431
Q

What can drugs do to increase the dopamine in PD patients?

A

dopamine is broken down by MAO, so if we give drugs to inhibit these pathways we can boost the dopamine in the brain.

432
Q

What may you choose as treatment for PD in early disease?

A

Neuroprotection:

  • antioxidants
  • rasagaline
  • selegiline
  • amantadine: glutamate agonist which blocks receptors
  • anti-muscarinics eg benzhexol

Avoid L-DOPA because of possible complications if patient is young and PD is mild. These drugs don’t always lead to a huge improvement so it is good to try and go for drugs that are less toxic in the long term.

433
Q

What do you aim to do in advanced disease of PD?

A

it is important to find the right combination of treatments for patients, because everyone is different in their response.

you could use a combination of DOPA and agonists and there is a choice of DOPA regiments/preparations.

Amantidine can be used for dyskinesias - it is a COMT inhibitor for end of dose deterioration

atypical neuroleptics are used for psychosis/hallucinosis and acetyl-cholinesterase inhibitors can be used for dementia

434
Q

What is the nuclei accumbent involved in?

A

reward and addiction

435
Q

What part of PD treatment can lead to addiction problems?

A

dopamine agonists and dopamine itself can lead to impulse control disorders, 25% of male patients at high dose experience this.

this is due to a structural change involved in reward and addiction - the dendrites around the neurones involved become shrunken and there is less filament expression within the neurones.

436
Q

What does the limbic system involve?

A

deep structures and it runs through the hippocampus, limbic cortex/cingulate, septal area in the basal forebrain, the hypothalamus and the amygdala.

437
Q

What occurs in dopamine dysregulation syndrome?

A
  • addiction to dopaminergic stimulation
  • hyper sexuality
  • pathological gambling
  • punding

this happens in PD patients taking L-DOPA and can also happen as a result of chocolate or coffee addiction!

438
Q

What is the dopamine see-saw?

A

suppress stimulate

too little leads to parkinsonian signs, and too much leads to psychosis, dementia, dyskinesia etc

439
Q

What are future PD treatment possibilities?

A

DRUGS

  • dopaminergic and non dopaminergic
  • to treat symptoms/complcations
  • disease modifying e.g. isradipine, eventide, growth factors

GENE THERAPIES
- dopamine pathways, GFs, etc

CELL BASED THERAPIES
- stem cells (poss will be the main way)

440
Q

What are neuroleptic induced movement disorders?

A

ACUTE:

  • treatment: antimuscarinics
  • acute dystonia
  • oculogyric crisis
  • akathisia
  • neuroleptic malignant syndrome

CHRONIC:

  • parkinsonian
  • tremor
  • tardive dyskinesia
441
Q

What is tourette syndrome?

A

another basal ganglia disorder which can involve motor or vocal tics

442
Q

What is Segawa’s disease?

A

this is a disorder of dopamine metabolism, where not enough is produced.

tetrahydrobiopterin deficiency due to GTP cyclehydrase deficiency.

443
Q

About essential tremor…

A
  • 5% prevalence
  • familial
  • can be alcohol responsive
  • DRUGS: propranolol, some anticonvulsants (often ineffectivE)
  • thalamotomy/DBS

up to 60% family history

444
Q

What are treatment methods for essential tremor?

A
  • alcohol
  • propranolol
  • primidone
  • modern anti-epileptics
  • thalamotomy, deep brain stimulation
445
Q

Whats Wilson’s disease?

A

autosomal recessive, copper overload, serum caeruloplasmin, copper, 24 hour urinary copper

  • chorea
  • dystonia
  • neurological
  • psychiatric
  • copper metabolism tissue
  • leads to cirrhosis and liver disease
  • disabling
  • have eye features

if it is recognised early, it can be treated with copper collating agents and zinc.

446
Q

What is the vestibule-ocular reflex?

A
  • head turns and eyes move equal extent opposite direction to preserve vision
  • vestibular afferents excite the vestibular nuclei at the pinto-medullary junction
  • the degree of excitation is modulated by the flocculi-nodular lobe of the CBM, with additional input from the fastigial nucleus
  • vestibular nuclei project axons in the medial longitudinal fascicles to the oculomotor, trochlear and abducens nuclei. These nuclei excite extra ocular muscles —> the lateral rectus (abducens), the superior oblique (trochlear) and all the others (oculomotor)
447
Q

Why is the medial longitudinal fascicles susceptible to damage in multiple sclerosis?

A

it is heavily myelinated and is usually damaged between the VI and III nuclei

the shorter path from the vestibular nuclei to the abducens nucleus often survives, so contralateral abduction occurs, but the longer path to the oculomotor nucleus is lost, so ipsilateral adduction is impaired.

this results in a divergent squint (strabismus) and double vision (diplopia)

448
Q

What is the basic circuit of the vestibule-ocular reflex and why does it need to be modulated?

A

labyrinth –> through vestibulo-cochlear nerve –> to vestibular nuclei which excite the oculomotor, trochlear and abducens nuclei –? in turn exciting extra ocular muscles to produce compensatory eye movements

by itself, this basic circuit over-compensates so the eye moves too much - a feed-forward inhibitory circuit reduces the compensation

449
Q

How is cerebellar modulation of the vestibule-ocular reflex achieved?

A

the vestibule-cochlear nerve and vestibular nuclei send mossy fibres to the granule cells in the CBM. Parallel fibres from the granule cells excite purkinje cells, which inhibit the vestibular nuclei, reducing the vestibule-ocular reflex

this reduction is too great a third circuit corrects the over correction

450
Q

What is the third circuit correcting the initial modulation of the vestibule-ocular reflex?

A

retinal cells responding to movement of the optical image doe the retina project to the pretectal nuclei in the midbrain.

pretectal nuclei excite neurones in the olive. climbing fibres form the olive project to purkinje cells. excitation of climbing fibres open calcium channels in the purkinje cells, activating kinases that phosphorylate open receptors to active purkinje fibres

the phosphorylates receptors are depressed, reducing the excitation of the purkinje cells. this reduced cerebellar inhibition of the vestibular nuclei, allowing the vestibule-ocular reflex to regain some of its original amplitude.

451
Q

What is the medial vestibule-spinal tract?

A
  • as well as projecting rostrally int he medial longitudinal fascicles, some vestibular axons project caudally into the cervical segments of the spinal cord
  • these axons, within the ventromedial descending pathways, project bilaterally to motor neurones involved in turning the head and in redirecting reaching movements made by the upper limb
  • turning the head supplements eye movements made by the vestibule-ocular reflex
  • redirection of reaching movements allows the upper limb to change direction to compensate for rotation of the body relative to a non-rotating target
452
Q

What is the vestibular systems role?

A

serves the sense of balance/equilibrium

453
Q

What two components if the vestibular system divided into?

A
  • semi-circular canals
  • otolith organs

the hair cells in the semi-circular canals respond to angular movement of the head, and those in the otolith organs respond to both linear movements of the head and the position of the head with respect to gravity

this information is combined with the sensory input from muscles, joint and skin to create conscious awareness of the position of the body with respect to the outside world

it also plays a vital role in the control of motor activity, by providing reflexive control of posture and eye position and feedback guidance of voluntary movements.

454
Q

How are the semi-circular canals arranged?

A

they are designed to sense angular acceleration (i.e. turning) of the head

when the head it rotated in the plane of a canal, inertia causes the endolymph to lag behind the movement.

this causes a displacement of the fluid relative to the canal itself

455
Q

What is the structure of the semi-circular canals like?

A

At the base of each canal is an expanded region called the ampulla, within which there is a ridge called the crust ampullaris

the hair cells are located within the crust, arranged so that their stereo cilia stick out into the body of the ampulla. the stereo cilia bonding is enclosed within a gelatinous membrane called the scapula, that stretches across the duct and is sensitive to any displacement of the endolymph

456
Q

How are the hair cells arranged in the semi circular canals?

A

so that turning in one direction depolarises them, causing release of neurotransmitter and excitation of the afferent nerves, which turning in the other stops the release of NT

eg in the horizontal canal, movement of the copular towards the utricle causes excitation and vice versa

the canals are cunningly designed to ensure all possible planes and directions of angular movement are covered

457
Q

What is the arrangement of the ducts within the semi-circular canal?

A
  • the three ducts are approximately perpendicular to one another
  • each is paired with one of the canals in the opposite side of the head
  • the anterior duct on one side is approximately parallel to and paired with the parallel duct on the other
  • the 2 horizontal ducts likewise both lie approximately in the same horizontal plane and form the 3rd pair
  • each pair responds optimally to movements in one pain, although most natural movements will cause a mixture of activation from more than one pair
  • any movement that causes an increase i output from one of a pair will decrease the output the other and vice versa
458
Q

How is the rate and direction of turn of the head signalled in the vestibule-ocular system?

A

signalled by the difference in activity of the 2 members of a pair of ducts - hence anything that causes different in activity will be interpreted as a head turn
- this can happen if there is a pathological change in activity on one side and is the logic behind ‘caloric testing’

459
Q

When are the left horizontal canal receptors maximally excited?

A

when the head it turned left - those in the horizontal canal system are simultaneously inhibited

460
Q

When are the left anterior canal receptors maximally excited?

A

by a combination of nodding the head forward and tilting it to the left - those in the right horizontal canal system are simultaneously inhibited

461
Q

When is the left posterior canal system maximally excited?

A

by a combination of tilting the head back and to the left - the right anterior is simultaneously inhibited

462
Q

What is meant by the endolymph ‘catching up’?

A

if a turning movement continues at constant velocity for a several seconds then the endolymph will ‘catch up’ with the walls of the canal, at which point it will stop pressing on the cupula

conversely, the endolymph continues to move for a few seconds after movement of the head has stopped, generating a signal in the opposite direction

thus the semi-circular canal signal increases and decreases in the rate of movement (i.e. acceleration) rather than constant movement

463
Q

What tis the function of the otolith organs?

A

they are designed to respond to the linear movements of the head and the position of the head with respect to gravity

464
Q

What do the otolith organs consist of?

A

each consists of a patch of hair cells (the macula) on the inner wall of the membranous labyrinth

overlying them is a gelatinous membrane weighted down with small calcium carbonate stones –> the hair cell stereo cilia are embedded in this membrane and may be tilted by movement of the membrane

when the head moves in any direction, inertia causes the membrane to slip back in the opposite direction, tilting the stereo cilia

hair cells where this is the direction of the kinocilium will be depolarised, and for those which it is the direction away from the kinocilium will be hyperpolarised

465
Q

How do the hair cells generate a signal that can give information about direction of movement and rate of linear acceleration?

A

depolarising or hyper polarising the hair cells will change the pattern of activity in their afferents, generating a signal that carries information about the direction of movement and the rate of linear acceleration

466
Q

What is the saccular otolith organ?

A

is on a vertical wall of the saccule, lying in the sagittal plane.

it responds best to forwards-backwards and up-down movements.

there is also evidence that this organ detects very low frequency sounds

467
Q

What is the utricular otolith organs?

A

lies mainlyint he horizontal plane and will respond best to a range of side to side as well as forwards backwards movements

468
Q

Why is the output of the otolith organs sensitive to changes in the direction of gravity?

A

the membranes sag downwards under the influence of gravity so the out put of the otolith organs is sensitive to changes in the direction of gravity