Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

5-HT3 antagonists? MoA & exams;e

A

ct in the chemoreceptor trigger zone area of the medulla oblongata.

chemotherapy-related nausea

ondansetron

prolonged QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Types of aphasia

A

Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia - superior temporal gyrus. Comprehension is impaired

Broca’s (expressive) aphasia- inferior frontal gyrus. comprehension intact. speech = non-fluent and halting. Repetition is impaired

Conduction aphasia. arcuate fasiculus - the connection. comprehension intact. speech = fluent. Repetition is impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ataxia telangiectasia features

A

Autosomal recessive - DNA repair enzyme defect

an inherited combined immunodeficiency disorder - IgA deficiency resulting in recurrent chest infections

presents in childhood (1-2) w abnormal movements. Cerebellar ataxia.

Telangectasia

increased risk of haematological malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Frederick’s ataxia features

A

autosomal recessive, trinucleotide repeat disorder (but unusually no anticipation)
Late childhood presentation (10-15)

spinocerebellar tract degeneration
Gait ataxia - cerebellar ataxia

kyphoscoliosis

Neurological features
absent ankle jerks/extensor plantars

optic atrophy
HOCM
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bell’s palsy tx

A

oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset

eye care

if the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after 3 weeks, refer urgently to ENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Brachial plexus injuries

A

Erb-Duchenne paralysis
- damage to C5,6 roots
- winged scapula
- waiter dip deformity
- may be caused by a breech presentation

Klumpke’s paralysis
- damage to T1
- loss of intrinsic hand muscles - claw hand
- due to traction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Brain abscesses mx

A

CT scanning

IV antibiotics: IV 3rd-generation cephalosporin + metronidazole

surgery
a craniotomy & cavity debrided

intracranial pressure management: e.g. dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Brown-Sequard syndrome features

A

lateral hemisection of the spinal cord

ipsilateral weakness below lesion

ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration sensation

contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cluster headache mx

A

acute
- 100% oxygen (80% response rate within 15 minutes)
- subcutaneous triptan (75% response rate within 15 minutes)

prophylaxis
- verapamil
- potentially tapering dose of prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cerebellar syndrome symptoms

A

D - Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria (past-pointing), patients may appear ‘Drunk’
A - Ataxia (limb, truncal)
N - Nystamus (horizontal = ipsilateral hemisphere)
I - Intention tremour
S - Slurred staccato speech, Scanning dysarthria
H - Hypotonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

common peroneal nerve lesion

A

foot drop.

weakness
- foot dorsiflexion
- foot eversion
- extensor hallucis longus

(TIPPED
Tibial - inversion - plantarflex
Peroneal - eversion - dorsalflex)

  • sensory loss - dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg

wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles

(weakness of hip abduction is suggestive of a L5 radiculopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

DVLA neuro

A

first unprovoked/isolated seizure: 6 months off if no structural/ EEG abnormalities, otherwise 12mo

established epilepsy- 12 mo, after 5 years - till 70 license

withdrawing epilepsy meds - 6 mo after last dose

stroke or TIA: 1 month off driving, may not need to inform DVLA if no residual neurological deficit

multiple TIAs over short period of times: 3 months off driving and inform DVLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dystrophinopathies
inheritance

A

X-linked recessive

Duchenne - more sever due to frameshift mutation
Becker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Encephalitis Ix & mx

A

(HSV-1 )

Ix

CSF - lymphocytosis, elevated protein, PCR for HSV, VZV and enteroviruses

MRI
medial temporal and inferior frontal changes (e.g. petechial haemorrhages)

EEG

intravenous aciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Epilepsy tx

A

Generalised tonic-clonic
males: sodium valproate
females: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

Absence seizures (Petit mal)
first line: ethosuximide
second line: as per tonic clonic

Myoclonic seizures
males: sodium valproate
females: levetiracetam

Tonic or atonic seizures
males: sodium valproate
females: lamotrigine

Focal seizures
first line: lamotrigine or levetiracetam
second line: carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

weight loss!!
1. acetazolamide
2. topiramate

16
Q

Intracranial venous thrombosis ix & mx

A

MRI venography is the gold standard
- Sagittal sinus thrombosis - ‘empty delta sign’

anticoagulation
typically with low molecular weight heparin acutely (warfarin usually for long term)

17
Q

Medication overuse headache mx

A

simple analgesics and triptans should be withdrawn abruptly (may initially worsen headaches)

opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn

18
Q

Migraine: management

A

Acute treatment
first-line: offer combination therapy with
an oral triptan and an NSAID/paracetamol
( 12-17 years -nasal triptan)
(no triptan or NSAID in pregnancy)

Prophylaxis
1. propranolol / topiramate (CI in women) / amitriptylin
2. 10 sessions of acupuncture over 5-8 weeks’

( 5-HT receptor agonists are used in the acute treatment of migraine whilst 5-HT receptor antagonists are used in prophylaxis)

19
Q

MS mx

A

acute
High-dose steroids (e.g. oral or IV methylprednisolone) for 5 days

Prevention of relapse
natalizumab

Fatigue - amantadine, CBT
Spasticity - baclofen and gabapentin

Oscillopsia -

Bladder dysfunction - ultrasound first to assess bladder emptying, if significant residual volume → intermittent self-catheterisation
if no significant residual volume → anticholinergics may improve urinary frequency

20
Q

Myasthenia gravis mx

A

Mx
- long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitors - pyridostigmine is first-line

Management of myasthenic crisis
- plasmapheresis
- intravenous immunoglobulins

21
Q

neurofibromatosis features

A

AD

NF1
- chromosome 17
Café-au-lait spots
Axillary/groin freckles
Iris hamatomas (Lisch nodules)
Pheochromocytomas

NF2
- chromosome 22
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas

22
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome features & mx

A

antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs (such as levodopa) stopping

pyrexia
muscle rigidity
decreased reflexes
autonomic lability: typical features include hypertension, tachycardia and tachypnoea
agitated delirium with confusion

raised CK, AKI, leukocytosis

Mx
- stop antipsychotic
- dantrolene, IV fluids to prevent renal failure
- bromocriptine, dopamine agonist, may also be used

23
Q

Neuropathic pain

A

first-line treatment*: amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin
if the first-line drug

treatment does not work try one of the other 3 drugs
switched, not added

tramadol may be used as ‘rescue therapy’ for exacerbations of neuropathic pain

24
Q

Radial nerve damage

A

Triceps - Loss of elbow extension

forarm muscles (supinator, brachioradialis, etc..) - Weakening of supination

Wrist drop

25
Q

raised ICP mx

A

underlying cause
head elevation to 30º
IV mannitol may be used as an osmotic diuretic

controlled hyperventilation-> reduce pCO2 → vasoconstriction of the cerebral arteries → reduced ICP

removal of CSF,

26
Q

reflex & nerve roots?

A

ankle - s1 & 2
knee - L3 & 4
biceps - c5 & 6
triceps - c7&8

S1-S2 button my shoe
L3-L4 kick the door
C5-C6 pick up sticks
C7-C8 open the gate

27
Q

Restless legs syndrome (RLS) mx

A

bloods such as ferritin to exclude iron deficiency anaemia

dopamine agonists are first-line treatment (e.g. Pramipexole, ropinirole)

28
Q

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord features

A

(vitamin B12 & E deficiency)

  1. Bilateral spastic paresis
  2. Bilateral loss of proprioception and vibration sensation
  3. Bilateral limb ataxia
29
Q

Anterior spinal artery occlusion px

A
  1. Bilateral spastic paresis
  2. Bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
30
Q

Syringomyelia px

A
  1. Flacid paresis (typically affecting the intrinsic hand muscles)
  2. Loss of pain and temperature sensation
31
Q

Neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis) neuro px

A

Loss of proprioception and vibration sensation

32
Q

Ischemic stroke mx

A

non-contrast CT head scan - low density/ ‘hyperdense artery’

aspirin 300mg orally or rectally

thrombolysis- patients present with 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms

thrombectomy asap w/in 6 hours of symptom onset, together with intravenous thrombolysis (if within 4.5 hours)
- proximal anterior circulation

thrombectomy between 6 & 24 hrs:
- proximal anterior circulation & potential to salvage brain tissue

AF anticoagulant - 2 weeks after onset

secondary prevention
- 1. clopidogrel (2.aspirin plus MR dipyridamole)

33
Q

TIA mx

A

aspirin 300 mg

more than 1 TIA (‘crescendo TIA’) or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis:
discuss the need for admission or observation urgently with a stroke specialist

suspected TIA in the last 7 days:
arrange urgent assessment (within 24 hours)

TIA which occurred more than a week previously:
refer for specialist assessment as soon as possible within 7 days

carotid artery endarterectomy:
- carotid stenosis > 70%

34
Q

Tuberous sclerosis (TS) features

A

depigmented ‘ash-leaf’ spots

roughened patches of skin over
lumbar spine (Shagreen patches)

adenoma sebaceum (angiofibromas)

fibromata beneath nails (subungual fibromata)

café-au-lait spots

Neuro: developmental delay, epilepsy (infantile spasms or partial), intellectual impairment,

retinal hamartomas,
rhabdomyomas of the heart

35
Q
A