Anaesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

When is a jaw thrust the preferred airway manoeuvre

A

cervical spine injury

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2
Q

oropharyngeal airway indications & pros

A

in an acute airway problem

as a bridging measure, before definitive airway

For v short procedures

pros: easy to insert & use. No paralysis required.

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3
Q

laryngeal mask airway indications, pros & cons

A

Commonly used, esp for day surgery

not suitable for high-pressure ventilation

(sits in pharynx and aligns to cover airway)

pros: easy to insert
cons: poor control over gastric reflux

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4
Q

Tracheostomy indications

A

Slow weaning from ETT

reduces work of breathing & dead space

percutaneous tracheostomy commonly used in ITU

cons: dries secretions, humidified air usually used in ITU

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5
Q

Endotracheal tube indications

A

optimal control of airway once cuff inflated

used for long/ short-term ventilation

higher ventilation pressures can be used

Cons: errors may lead to oesophageal intubation - detected with capnography

Paralysis required

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6
Q

ASA grades

A
  1. (healthy)
    non-smoker, minimal alcohol
  2. (mild systemic disease - i.e. no functional limitations)
    current smoker, social drinker, pregnancy, BMI 30-40, DM, HTN, mild lung disease
  3. (severe systemic disease- functional limitations)
    poorly controlled DM, HTN, COPD, BMI>40, end stage renal disease & regular dialysis, MI or CVA hx, alcohol dependence , etc.
  4. (severe disease constant threat to life)
    - recent (<3mo) MI or CVA, cardic ischemia, valve dysfunction, severely reduced EF, sepsis, ARD, ESRD w/out dialysis
  5. (not suspected to survive without operation)
    - AAA, massive trauma, intra-cranial bleed w mass effect, multi organ failure
  6. brain dead pt for organ harvest
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7
Q

Propofol indication, MoA, features

A

IV

Indication & pros - commonly used for sedation induction & maintenance, in ITU for ventilated pts, high risk vomiting pts - some anti emetic properties, rapid metabolism

MoA- potentiates GABA

cons - moderate myocardial depression, pain on injection, hypotension

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8
Q

Sodium thiopentone MoA, indication, cons

A

MoA- barbiturate, potentiates GABA

Indication- rapid sequence induction (v rapid onset) due to high lipid solubility

cons - laryngospasm, marked myocardial depression, metabolites build up, not for maintenance infusion, no analgesic effects

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9
Q

ketamine indication, moa,

A

moa - NMDA receptor antagonist,

indication - induction of anaesthesia, strong analgesic properties, little myocardial depression (good for those who are haemodynamically unstable- i.e. trauma )

cons - may induce state of dissociative anaethesia resulting in nightmares

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10
Q

Etomidate MoA, indication, cons

A

MoA - potentiates GABA

Indication - induction of anaesthesia, favourable cardiac safety profile w little haemodynamic instability

Cons - adrenal suppression (so not for Maintainance infusion!), post op vomiting is common, no analgesic properties

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11
Q

Volatile liquid anaesthetic examples, indication, MoA, cons

A

isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane

indication - indication & Maintainance

MoA- unknown but combination of GABA, glycine & NDMA

cons- myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, (halothane = hepatotoxic)

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12
Q

Nitrous oxide: examples, indication, cons

A

indication: Maintainance of anaesthesia and analgesia (e.g. labour)

adverse effects: may diffuse into gas filled area. Avoid in pneumothorax

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13
Q

Cannula colour/ size order

A

biggest - Orange 14G (lava)
Grey 16G (rock)
Green 18G (grass)
Pink 20G (flower)
Blue 22G (sky)

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14
Q

Local anesthetic toxicity can be treated with…

A

IV 20% lipid emulsion

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15
Q

Malignant hypothermia causes

A

halothane
suxamethonium
other drugs: antipsychotics (neuroleptic malignant syndrome)

susceptibility inherited in autosomal dominant fashion

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16
Q

malignant hyperthermia Ix and mx

A

(hyperpyrexia and muscle rigidity)

Investigations
CK raised
contracture tests with halothane and caffeine

Management
dantrolene - prevents Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

17
Q

Deporalising neuromuscular blocker adverse effects & CI

A

(suxamethonium a.k.a succinylcholine)

hyperkalaemia, malignant hyperthermia, fasciculation and lack of acetylcholinesterase

increases IOP so CI in pts w penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma

18
Q

nasopharyngeal airway indication & contraindication

A

ideal for seizure pts as you may not be able to put in OPA

CI - base of skull fractures

19
Q

causes of post op pyrexia

A

‘the 4 W’s’ (wind, water, wound, what did we do? (iatrogenic).

Early causes of post-op pyrexia (0-5 days) include:
- Physiological systemic inflammation (day1-2)
- - Pulmonary atelectasis (1-2)
- Urinary tract infection (d 3-5)
- Blood transfusion
- Cellulitis

Late causes (>5 days) include:
- Venous thromboembolism
- Pneumonia
- Wound infection
- Anastomotic leak
- iatrogenic (Abx or anaesthetic agents)

20
Q

Mx of postoperative ileus

A

check deranged potassium, magnesium and phosphate are not the cause

  • nil-by-mouth initially, may progress to small sips of clear fluids
  • nasogastric tube if vomiting
  • IV fludis to maintain normovolaemia
    & additives to correct any electrolyte disturbances
  • total parenteral nutrition
    occasionally for prolonged/severe cases
21
Q

Summary of diabetic control during surgery?

  • metformin
  • sulfonylurea
  • DPP IV inhibitors
  • GLP-1 analogues
  • SGLT-2 inhibitors
  • Once daily insulin (Lantus, Levemir)
  • twice daily biphasic or ultra-long acting insulins
A

If long fasting period w more than 1 missed meal/ poor diabetic control = variable rate IV insulin infusion

Otherwise, just change normal regime:

metformin- if taken TDS, omit lunchtime dose. otherwise normal.

sulfonylurea - omit on day of surgery. unless taking BD w morning surgery - only omit morning dose.

DPP IV inhibitors , GLP-1 analogues , SGLT-2 inhibitors -> take as normal

Once daily insulins (e.g. Lantus, Levemir) - reduce doses by 20% on the day before & day of surgery

Twice daily Biphasic or ultra-long acting insulins (e.g. Novomix 30, Humulin M3) - half morning dose, evening dose unchanged

22
Q

which nerve is most likely to be injured in posterior triangle lymph node biopsy

A

Accessory

23
Q

which nerve is most likely to be injured in Posterior approach to hip

A

Sciatic

24
Q

which nerve is most likely to be injured in

A
25
Q

which nerve is most likely to be injured when Legs in Lloyd Davies position

A

common perineal

26
Q

which nerve is most likely to be injured in Axillary node clearance

A

Long thoracic

27
Q

which nerve is most likely to be injured in Pelvic cancer surgery

A

Pelvic autonomic nerves

28
Q

which nerve is most likely to be injured in thyroid surgery

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerves

29
Q

which nerve is most likely to be injured in carotid endarterectomy

A

Hypoglossal nerve

30
Q

which nerve is most likely to be injured during upper limb fracture repair

A

Ulnar and median nerves

31
Q

WHO checklist 3 phases of an operation

A

1) Before the induction of anaesthesia (sign in)
2) Before the incision of the skin (time out)
3) Before the patient leaves the operating room (sign out)

32
Q

Before the induction of anaesthesia, the following must have been checked:

A
  • Patient has confirmed: Site, identity, procedure, consent
  • Site is marked
  • Anaesthesia safety check completed
  • Pulse oximeter on & functioning
  • known allergy?
  • difficult airway/aspiration risk?
  • risk of > 500ml blood loss (7ml/kg in children)?
33
Q

COCP changes before surgery?

A

Advise women to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill/hormone replacement therapy 4 weeks before surgery

34
Q
A
35
Q
A