neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What is the immediate management of stroke?

A

rule out hypoglycaemia
CT scan to rule out haemorrhage

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2
Q

What is immediately given if haemorrhagic stroke is ruled out?

A

aspirin 300mg stat
and continued for 2 weeks

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3
Q

What other medication can be given post CT scan in stroke?

A

alteplase if administered <4.5hrs

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4
Q

What is the management of a TIA?

A

aspirin 300mg daily, secondary prevention of CVD

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5
Q

What is the gold standard imaging tool for stroke?

A

diffusion-weighted MRI

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6
Q

What medications can be used for the secondary prevention of stroke?

A

clopidogrel
atorvastatin - not immediately

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7
Q

What surgical intervention can be used to prevent stroke?

A

carotid endarterectomy or stenting in patients with carotid artery disease

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8
Q

What are the typical presentations of intracranial bleeds?

A

sudden onset headache
seizures
weakness
vomiting
reduced consciousness

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9
Q

What score is used to assess level of consiousness?

A

glasgow coma scale (GCS)

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10
Q

What is the score in GCS based on?

A

eyes, verbal and motor response /15 points

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11
Q

How do subdural haemorrhages present on CT scan?

A

crescent shape, not limited by cranial sutures

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12
Q

What is the typical patient in which a subdural haemorrhage would occur?

A

elderly and alcoholic

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13
Q

What veins rupture to cause a subdural haemorrhage?

A

bridging veins in the outermost meningeal layer

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14
Q

What artery ruptures to cause an extra dural haemorrhage?

A

middle meningeal artery (in temporo-parietal region)

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15
Q

How does an extradural haemorrhage present on CT scan?

A

bi-convex shape (cant cross over sutures)

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16
Q

What is the typical patient to have an extradural haemorrhage?

A

young patient with traumatic brain injury

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17
Q

How does an intracerebral haemorrhage present?

A

similar to ischaemic stroke

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18
Q

What is the usual cause of a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

ruptured cerebral aneurysm

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19
Q

What are the typical presentations of a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

thunderclap headache (occipital region) during strenuous activity

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20
Q

What are subarachnoid haemorrhages associated with?

A

cocaine and sickle cell anaemia

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21
Q

What is a common complication of subarachnoid bleeds?

A

vasospasm

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22
Q

What medication is used to treat vasospasm?

A

CCB - nimodipine

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23
Q

What are the principles of management for intracranial bleeds?

A

CT head
FBCs and clotting factors
intubation, ventilation, ICU
correct hypertension but avoid hypotension

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24
Q

What are some of the causes of epilepsy?

A

idiopathic
cortical scarring
tumours
strokes alzheimers
alcohol withdrawal

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25
when should patients be referred after their first suspected seizure?
within 2 weeks
26
What are the types of seizure?
tonic-clonic focal atonic myoclonic absence
27
What are the typical symptoms of a focal seizure?
halluncinations deja vu memory flashbacks
28
What are the post-ictal symptoms?
confusion, headache, drowsiness, irritability, sore tongue
29
What is the main diagnostic tool for epilepsy?
EEG
30
What are the criteria for status epilepticus?
seizure that lasts longer than 5 mins or more than 3 in 1 hour
31
What medication should be given in status epilepticus in the community?
benzodiazepines - buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam
32
What should be given for status epilepticus in the hospital?
IV lorazepam 4mg
33
What is the first line treatment for tonic-clonic seizures, atonic and myoclonic?
sodium valproate
34
What is the first line treatment for tonic-clonic seizures in women of child-bearing age?
lamotrigine
35
What is the first line treatment for focal seizures?
lamotrigine
36
What is the first line management for absence seizures?
ethosuximide
37
What is the classic triad of features of parkinsons?
resting tremor rigidity bradykinesia
38
Explain the pathophysiology of parkinsons
the substantia nigra progressively fails to produce enough dopamine
39
What are the features of the parkinsons tremor?
asymmetrical 4-6Hz worse at rest improves with intentional movement no change with alcohol
40
Which synthetic dopamine medicine is given in parkinsons and is normally first line in patients with motor symptoms that impact QAL?
levodopa
41
What type of medications are given in parkinsons patients with motor symptoms that do not impede on their life?
dopamine agonists
42
Give an example of a dopamine agonist
bromocriptine, pergolide, carbergoline
43
What is levodopa given with to prevent its destruction before reaching the brain?
peripheral decarboxylase inhibitors
44
Give an example of a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor
benserazide carbidopa
45
What are the two main levodopa combination drugs?
co-benyldopa (beserazide) co-careldopa (carbidopa)
46
what are the main side effects of levodopa?
dyskinesias: dystonia chorea athetosis
47
What are the side effects of dopamine agonists?
pulmonary fibrosis adverse events: hallucinations, sleepiness, control/impulse disorder
48
What does monoamine oxidase do?
breaks down dopamine, serotonin and adrenaline
49
What are the two examples of a monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors?
seregiline rasagiline
50
What is the pathophysiology of Huntingtons?
loss of GABA so no inhibition of dopamine, thalamic stimulation, chorea
51
What genetic abnormality is present in Huntingtons?
expansion of CAG repeats >35 in HTT gene in chromosome 4
52
What are the typical symptoms of Huntingtons?
chorea dysarthria dysphagia incoordination dystonia cognitive decline
53
when do symptoms typically show in Huntingtons disease?
30-50 yrs
54
What feature of genetic inheritance can be present in Huntingtons?
anticipation
55
What medications may be used to manage chorea in Huntingtons?
benzodiazepines
56
What other medications may be used to manage symptoms of Huntingtons?
antipsychotics (olanzapine) SSRIs dopamine depleting agents (tetrabenzamine)
57
What is the most common cause of death in Huntingtons patients?
pneumonia
58
What is alzheimers associates with?
B-amyloid plaques (clump between neurones and effect function)
59
What is the main investigation for dementia?
MRI
60
What is the onset pattern of alzheimers?
progressive
61
What medications can be used to manage symptoms of alzheimer?
cholinesterase inhibitor
62
What is the onset pattern of vascular dementia?
sudden, stepwise deterioration caused by multiple infarcts
63
What area of the brain does lewy-body dementia effect?
occipito-parietal region
64
What are the typical presentations of dementia with lewy bodies?
fluctuating cognitive dysfunction, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism
65
What type of medication can be used in lewy body dementia?
cholinesterase inhibitors
66
What are of the brain does Pick's dementia effect?
frontotemporal
67
what are could be the cause of headache with photophobia, fever or neck pain?
encephalitis, meningitis
68
what could be the cause of headache that is worse when coughing/straining/standing?
raised ICP
69
What could be the cause of headache with new neuro symptoms, sudden onset or trauma?
haemorrhage
70
What could be the cause of headache with visual disturbances?
temporal arteritis, glaucoma
71
What examination can be used forICP?
fundoscopy - papilloedema
72
What are the normal features of a tension headache?
gradual onset and offset, no vision changes
73
What can cause secondary headaches?
infection, obstructive sleep apnoea, pre-eclampsia alcohol head injury CO poisoning
74
What is the usual cause of sinusitis?
viral infection
75
What can long term analgesic use cause?
analgesic headache
76
What causes a hormonal headache?
low oestrogen dues to: menopause, pregnancy, menstrual period
77
what are the symptoms of cervical spondylosis?
neck pain and headache, more severe with movement
78
What is trigeminal neuralgia associated with?
multiple sclerosis
79
What treatment may be used to manage symptoms of trigem neuralgia?
carbemazepine
80
What are the 4 types of migraine?
with aura without aura silent hemiplegic
81
what can trigger migraines?
chocolate hangovers orgasms cheese oral contraceptives lie ins alcohol tumult exercise
82
What are the 5 stages of migraines?
prodromal aura headache resolution postdromal
83
What medications can be used in the acute management of migraines?
NSAIDs/paracetamol triptans - sumatriptan antiemetic
84
What is the main recommended prophylaxis for migraines?
acupuncture
85
What medications can be used as prophylaxis for migraines?
propranolol, topiramate, amitriptylin
86
what supplementation may prevent migraines?
B2 - riboflavin
87
What are the typical presentations of cluster headaches?
rapid onset unilateral pain around eye watery/bloodshot eye facial flushing
88
what are the medicinal treatments of cluster headaches?
vaptans - sumatriptan
89
What are some of the preventative treatments for cluster headaches?
CCB - verapamil
90
What part of the CNS is demyelinated in MS?
CNS - oligodendrocytes
91
What is the inflammation mediated by in MS?
T cell mediated (type 4)
92
What are the potential causes of MS?
multiple genes EBV low vit D smoking obesity
93
What are the typical symptoms of MS?
Tingling Eyes - optic neuritis Ataxia - cerebellar and sensory Motor - paraparesis
94
What are the different disease patterns of MS?
clinically isolated syndrome relapsing remitting secondary progression (after relpasing/remitting) primary progression
95
how is MS diagnosed?
with clinical presentations
96
What imaging/invasive investigations can be done for MS?
MRI - identify lesions lumbar puncture - oligoclonal bands in CSF
97
What medication can be used to treat relapses in MS?
Methyl prednisolone
98
What medication can be used to help with neuropathic pain in MS?
amitriptyline
99
What medication can be used to treat urge incontinence in MS?
tolterodine (anticholinergic)
100
What medications can be used to treat spasticity in MS?
baclofen/gabapentin
101
What types of medications can be used to modify disease in MS?
biological therapies - target interleukins/cytokines/inflammation
102
What is the most common type of MND?
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
103
What is the second most common type of MND?
progressive bulbar palsy
104
What are the potential causes/risk factors of MND?
FH smoking exposure to heavy metals/pesticides
105
What are the signs of LMND?
muscle wasting reduced tone fasciculations reduced reflexes
106
What are the signs of UMND?
increased tone/spasticity brisk reflexes upgoing plantar reflexes
107
How is MND diagnoses?
by exclusion
108
What is one medicinal treatment that may extend life by a few months in ALS?
riluzole
109
What may be used at home to support breathing at night in MND?
Non-invasive ventilation (NIV)
110
What are some of the presentations of progressive bulbar palsy?
LMND + UMND dysphagia dysarthria
111
What autoantibody is responsible for 85% of cases of myasthenia gravis?
acetylcholine receptor antibodies
112
What are the other two antibodies responsible for myasthenia gravis?
muscle specific kinase (MuSK) low density lipoprotein receptor related protein (LRP4)
113
What do the antibodies do in myasthenia gravis?
block ACh receptors or interfere with production of them leading to inadequate ACh receptors
114
How do symptoms of myasthenia gravis change throughout the day?
worsen as the day goes on improve with rest
115
what muscles does myasthenia gravis typically effect?
proximal muscles and small muscles of the face and neck
116
What are the signs of myasthenia gravis?
diplopia ptosis dysphagia dysarthria weakness with repetitive movements
117
What examinations can be done to diagnose myasthenia gravis?
repeated abduction of arm will then show unilateral weakness
118
What is Myasthenia gravis associated with?
thymoma - look for thymectomy scar
119
What are the investigations for myasthenia gravis?
antibody testing MRI thymus gland edrophonium test
120
How does the edrophonium test work?
edrophonium chloride given (blocks cholinesterase enzymes) should temporarily relieve weakness
121
What are the typical medicinal treatments for myasthenia gravis?
reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors immunosuppressives monoclonal antibodies
122
Give and example of a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors used for myasthenia gravis
pyridostigmine neostigmine
123
What immunosuppressives can be given in myasthenia gravis?
prednisolone/azathioprine
124
What can trigger a myasthenic crisis?
respiratory tract infection
125
How is a myasthenic crisis managed?
non-invasive ventilation (BiPAP) IV immunoglobulins and plasma exchange
126
What is the most common bacteria to cause meningitis?
Neisseria meningitidis
127
What type of bacteria is N. meningitidis?
gram-negative diplococcus
128
What is the other common bacteria to cause meningitis?
streptococcus pneumoniae
129
What is the most common bacteria to cause meningitis in neonates?
group B strep
130
what is meningococcal septicaemia?
infection in the blood
131
what is a sign of meningococcal septicaemia?
non-blancing rash - indicates disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
132
What is meningococcal meningitis?
infection of the meninges and the CSF
133
What are the typical symptoms of meningitis?
fever, neck stiffness, vomiting, photophobia
134
What are the symptoms of meningitis in a neonate?
hypotonia, poor feeding, lethargy, hypothermia, bulging fontanelle
135
What investigation is recommended in neonates with a fever?
lumbar puncture
136
What two examinations can be used to diagnose meningitis?
kernig's and Brudzinski's tests
137
what is the initial management of meningitis in the community?
IM/IV benzylpenicillin + immediate hospitilisation
138
What investigations should be done in the hospital if meningitis is suspected?
lumbar puncture bloods - meningococcal PCR and glucose
139
where is a lumbar puncture done?
L3-L4 space
140
What things are checked for in the CSF in meningitis?
cloudiness, glucose, protein, WCC viral PCR
141
What is characteristic of CSF in bacterial infection?
cloudy, high protein, low glucose, high neutrophils and positive cultures
142
What is characteristic of CSF in viral infections?
clear,normal protein, normal glucose, increased lymphocytes
143
What may cause fungal meningitis?
cryptococcus, candida
144
what abx are given to patients under 3 months with menigitis?
cefotazime + amoxicillin
145
What abx are given to patinets over 3 months with meningitis?
cefotaxime
146
What other antibiotic may be given if there's a risk of penicillin allergy?
vancomycin
147
What might be given to reduce the severity of hearing loss or neuro problems in meningitis?
steroids
148
What is the treatment for viral meningitis with HSV or VZV?
aciclovir
149
What are some of the complications of meningitis?
hearing loss cerebral palsy cognitive impairment
150
What triggers guillain-barre syndrome?
recent infection
151
What are the normal pathogens to trigger guillain-barre syndrome?
campylobacter jejuni, EBV, cytomegalovirus
152
What is the pathophysiology of guillain-barre syndrome?
B cells produce antibodies against the pathogen and they attack the myelin sheath on motor nerve cells
153
what is the typical presentation of guillain-barre syndrome?
symmetrical ascending weakness reduced reflexes peripheral loss of sensation/neuropathic pain (may progress to facial nerves)
154
How long do symptoms usually start after infection in guillain-barre syndrome?
4 weeks
155
What investigations can be done for guillain-barre syndrome?
nerve conduction studies (slow nerve conduction) lumbar puncture
156
What would show on lumbar puncture in guillain-barre syndrome?
high protein
157
What is the management for guillain-barre syndrome?
IV immunoglobulin plasma exchange VTE prophylaxis
158
What is Lamber-Eaton myasthenic syndrome associated with?
small cell lung cancer
159
How does Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome present?
similar to myasthenia gravis proximal muscle wasting ptosis diplopia dysphagia dysarthria
160
What medication is used to treat Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?
amifampridine
161
What is charcot-marie tooth disease?
an autosomal dominant condition that effects motor and sensory nerves
162
What are the classic features of charcot-marie tooth disease?
high foot arch (pes cavus) distal muscle wasting weakness in dorsiflexion reduced tone/reflexes
163
What are the causes of peripheral neuropathy? (ABCDE)
alcohol B12 deficiency cancer and CKD diabetes and drugs (azathioprine) every vasculitis
164
What is the criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1?
two of CRABBING cafe-au-lait spots relative with NF1 axillary or inguinal freckles bony dysplasia or bowing iris hamartomas neurofibromas glioma of optic nerve
165
What is a common feature of neurofibromatosis type 2?
bilateral acoustic neuromas
166
What is tuberous sclerosis?
genetic condition that causes the development of hamartomas (benign neoplastic growths)
167
what is the classic presentation of tuberous sclerosis?
child with epilepsy and skin feature (cafe-au-lait spots/ash leaf spots etc)
168
How is tuberous sclerosis managed?
management of complications e.g. epilepsy
169
What are the typical presentations of brain tumours?
raised ICP and focal neurological symptoms
170
what are the three main types of glioma?
astrocytoma oligodendrocytoma ependymoma