microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is virulence?

A

the degree to which a pathogen is pathogenic

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2
Q

What shape are cocci?

A

spheres

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3
Q

What shape are bacilli?

A

rods

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4
Q

what are the different types of agar?

A

blood
chocolate (cooked blood)
MacConkey
XLD agar

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5
Q

What colour do gram positive bacteria stain?

A

purple

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6
Q

what is the sequence for gram staining?

A

Come In And Stain
crystal violet
iodine
alcohol
safranin

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7
Q

What environments do gram positive bacteria prefer?

A

dry/dusty - skin colonisers

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8
Q

What environments do gram negative bacteria prefer?

A

wet/damp - mucous membranes

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9
Q

What test is used on gam positive cocci to differentiate staph from strep?

A

catalase test (staph=+, strep=–

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10
Q

What test is used to differentiate S. aureus from other staphs?

A

coagulase test (S. aureus = +)

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11
Q

What two groups are strep initially differentiated into?

A

alpha and beta haemolytic streps

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12
Q

What test is used to differentiate the alpha haemolytic steps?

A

optochin test

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13
Q

Which alpha haemolytic strep is optochin susceptible?

A

S. pneumoniae
(other streps - viridans are resistant)

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14
Q

What grouping is used to differentiate beta haemolytic streps?

A

lancefield grouping

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15
Q

What bacteria is group A lancefield?

A

S. pyogenes

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16
Q

What is the usual pathogen to cause CAP?

A

S. pneumoniae

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17
Q

What is the first line treatment for CAP?

A

oral amoxicillin

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18
Q

What are the most common pathogens to cause HAP?

A

E. coli, K. pneumoniae

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19
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

IV co-amoxiclav and gentamicin

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20
Q

What type of gram positive rods are strict anaerobes?

A

clostridium spp - C. difficile

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21
Q

What are the 4 C’s associated with C. difficile infection?

A

clindomycin
cephalopsorins
co-amoxiclav
ciprofloxacin

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22
Q

What is the treatment for C. difficile?

A

stop inciting agent and start fidaxomicin or vancomycin

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23
Q

What is the usual pathogen to cause meningitis?

A

S. pneumoniae

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24
Q

How is meningitis treated?

A

IV cefotaxime or ceftriaxone (cephalosporins)

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25
How is meningococcal septicaemia treated in the community?
IM benxylpenicillin
26
what test is used to split gram negative rods into two groups?
oxidase test (determines if bacteria produce certain cytochrome C oxidases
27
What test is used do differentiate the oxidase positive gram negative rods?
indole test
28
What gram negative bacteria is oxidase positive and indole negative?
pseudomonas aeruginosa
29
What gram negative bacteria is oxidase positive and indole positive?
haemophilus influenzae
30
What test is used to split the gram negative, oxidase negative bacteria into two groups?
lactose fermentation test
31
What are the non lactose fermenting gram negative bacteria?
proteus mirabilis shigella spp salmonella spp
32
What further test is done on the lactose fermenting gram negative bacteria?
indole test
33
Give an example of a lactose fermenting, indole positive bacteria
E.coli
34
Give an example of a lactose fermenting, indole negative bacteria?
klebsiella pneumoniae
35
What organism causes 90% of UTIs?
E. coli
36
What are the antibiotics used to treat UTI?
nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim
37
What type of antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis?
glycopeptides beta lactams: - penicillins - cephalosporins - carbapenems (usufell to treat gram +ve bacteria as they have thick cell wall)
38
Give an example of a glycopeptide
vancomycine teicoplanin
39
Give an example of a penicillin
benzylpenicillin amoxicillin flucloxacillin
40
give and example of a cephalosporin
cephalexin cefotaxime ceftriaxone
41
Give an example of a carbapenem
imipenem estapenem
42
What groups of antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis?
chloraramphenicol macrolides tetracyclines aminoglycosides
43
Give and example of a macrolide
clarithromycin erythromycin (used instead of penicillins if allergic)
44
Give an example of a tetracycline
doxycycline
45
Give an example of an aminoglycoside
gentamicin streptomycin
46
What groups of antibiotics inhibit nucleic acid synthesis?
trimethoprim (inhibits folate) sulphonadmides fluroquinolones rifampicin metronidazole
47
Give an example of a sulphonamide
sulphamethoxazole (inhibits folate synthesis)
48
Give an example of a fluroquinolone
ciprofloxacin (inhibits DNA gyrase)
49
What is the action of rifampicin?
binds to DNA polymerase
50
What is the action of metronidazole?
DNA strand breaks
51
What group of people should you never give trimethoprim to?
pregnant women
52
Name three antibiotic resistance mechanisms
beta-lactamase producing bacteria (resistant to penicillin derived antibiotics) MRSA - mecA gene - unique transpeptidase not inhibited by B-lactam abx efflux pump resistance mechanism
53
What are the symptoms of TB?
night sweats, cough, haemoptysis, weight loss, malaise
54
What is the treatment for TB?
isoniazid rifampicin ethambutamol pyrazinamide
55
What test is used for TB?
histology with Ziehl-Neelson stain
56
What test is used for TB?
histology with Ziehl-Neelsen stain
57
What is the process of the Ziehl-Neelsen stain?
heat sample with carbol fuchsin dye (heat makes it resistant to decolourisation with acid) acid wash methylene blue counterstain
58
Give an example of an anti fungal drug
clotrimazole (-azole)
59
Give an example of fungal infections
candida albicans (vaginal/oral infections, catheter/line infections aspergillus fumigatus (lung infections)
60
What test is used to confirm active HBV infection?
HBsAg test - positive will mean active infection
61
Which cells does HIV effect?
CD4+
62
What are the symptoms of HIV?
non-specific malaise, recurrent infection
63
Give an example of a pathogenic protozoa
malaria, giardia lambia, toxiplasmosis
64
What does malaria effect?
liver and RBCs
65
What are the symptoms of malaria?
fever, chills, sweats, headaches, myalgia
66
What test is done to check for malaria?
Giemsa stained thin and thick blood film
67
Which is the most common pathogen to cause malaria?
plasmodium falciparum
68
What two species can cause dormant malaria?
P. ovale and P. vivax
69
What is the treatment for simple malaria?
hydroxycholoroquine
70
What is the treatment for complicated malaria?
IV artusenate
71
What medication can be given for dormant malaria?
primaquine