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medicine phase 2 a > microbiology > Flashcards

microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is virulence?

A

the degree to which a pathogen is pathogenic

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2
Q

What shape are cocci?

A

spheres

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3
Q

What shape are bacilli?

A

rods

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4
Q

what are the different types of agar?

A

blood
chocolate (cooked blood)
MacConkey
XLD agar

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5
Q

What colour do gram positive bacteria stain?

A

purple

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6
Q

what is the sequence for gram staining?

A

Come In And Stain
crystal violet
iodine
alcohol
safranin

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7
Q

What environments do gram positive bacteria prefer?

A

dry/dusty - skin colonisers

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8
Q

What environments do gram negative bacteria prefer?

A

wet/damp - mucous membranes

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9
Q

What test is used on gam positive cocci to differentiate staph from strep?

A

catalase test (staph=+, strep=–

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10
Q

What test is used to differentiate S. aureus from other staphs?

A

coagulase test (S. aureus = +)

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11
Q

What two groups are strep initially differentiated into?

A

alpha and beta haemolytic streps

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12
Q

What test is used to differentiate the alpha haemolytic steps?

A

optochin test

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13
Q

Which alpha haemolytic strep is optochin susceptible?

A

S. pneumoniae
(other streps - viridans are resistant)

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14
Q

What grouping is used to differentiate beta haemolytic streps?

A

lancefield grouping

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15
Q

What bacteria is group A lancefield?

A

S. pyogenes

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16
Q

What is the usual pathogen to cause CAP?

A

S. pneumoniae

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17
Q

What is the first line treatment for CAP?

A

oral amoxicillin

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18
Q

What are the most common pathogens to cause HAP?

A

E. coli, K. pneumoniae

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19
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

IV co-amoxiclav and gentamicin

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20
Q

What type of gram positive rods are strict anaerobes?

A

clostridium spp - C. difficile

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21
Q

What are the 4 C’s associated with C. difficile infection?

A

clindomycin
cephalopsorins
co-amoxiclav
ciprofloxacin

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22
Q

What is the treatment for C. difficile?

A

stop inciting agent and start fidaxomicin or vancomycin

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23
Q

What is the usual pathogen to cause meningitis?

A

S. pneumoniae

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24
Q

How is meningitis treated?

A

IV cefotaxime or ceftriaxone (cephalosporins)

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25
Q

How is meningococcal septicaemia treated in the community?

A

IM benxylpenicillin

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26
Q

what test is used to split gram negative rods into two groups?

A

oxidase test (determines if bacteria produce certain cytochrome C oxidases

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27
Q

What test is used do differentiate the oxidase positive gram negative rods?

A

indole test

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28
Q

What gram negative bacteria is oxidase positive and indole negative?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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29
Q

What gram negative bacteria is oxidase positive and indole positive?

A

haemophilus influenzae

30
Q

What test is used to split the gram negative, oxidase negative bacteria into two groups?

A

lactose fermentation test

31
Q

What are the non lactose fermenting gram negative bacteria?

A

proteus mirabilis
shigella spp
salmonella spp

32
Q

What further test is done on the lactose fermenting gram negative bacteria?

A

indole test

33
Q

Give an example of a lactose fermenting, indole positive bacteria

A

E.coli

34
Q

Give an example of a lactose fermenting, indole negative bacteria?

A

klebsiella pneumoniae

35
Q

What organism causes 90% of UTIs?

A

E. coli

36
Q

What are the antibiotics used to treat UTI?

A

nitrofurantoin or
trimethoprim

37
Q

What type of antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A

glycopeptides
beta lactams:
- penicillins
- cephalosporins
- carbapenems
(usufell to treat gram +ve bacteria as they have thick cell wall)

38
Q

Give an example of a glycopeptide

A

vancomycine
teicoplanin

39
Q

Give an example of a penicillin

A

benzylpenicillin
amoxicillin
flucloxacillin

40
Q

give and example of a cephalosporin

A

cephalexin
cefotaxime
ceftriaxone

41
Q

Give an example of a carbapenem

A

imipenem
estapenem

42
Q

What groups of antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis?

A

chloraramphenicol
macrolides
tetracyclines
aminoglycosides

43
Q

Give and example of a macrolide

A

clarithromycin
erythromycin
(used instead of penicillins if allergic)

44
Q

Give an example of a tetracycline

A

doxycycline

45
Q

Give an example of an aminoglycoside

A

gentamicin
streptomycin

46
Q

What groups of antibiotics inhibit nucleic acid synthesis?

A

trimethoprim (inhibits folate)
sulphonadmides
fluroquinolones
rifampicin
metronidazole

47
Q

Give an example of a sulphonamide

A

sulphamethoxazole (inhibits folate synthesis)

48
Q

Give an example of a fluroquinolone

A

ciprofloxacin (inhibits DNA gyrase)

49
Q

What is the action of rifampicin?

A

binds to DNA polymerase

50
Q

What is the action of metronidazole?

A

DNA strand breaks

51
Q

What group of people should you never give trimethoprim to?

A

pregnant women

52
Q

Name three antibiotic resistance mechanisms

A

beta-lactamase producing bacteria (resistant to penicillin derived antibiotics)
MRSA - mecA gene - unique transpeptidase not inhibited by B-lactam abx
efflux pump resistance mechanism

53
Q

What are the symptoms of TB?

A

night sweats, cough, haemoptysis, weight loss, malaise

54
Q

What is the treatment for TB?

A

isoniazid
rifampicin
ethambutamol
pyrazinamide

55
Q

What test is used for TB?

A

histology with Ziehl-Neelson stain

56
Q

What test is used for TB?

A

histology with Ziehl-Neelsen stain

57
Q

What is the process of the Ziehl-Neelsen stain?

A

heat sample with carbol fuchsin dye
(heat makes it resistant to decolourisation with acid)
acid wash
methylene blue counterstain

58
Q

Give an example of an anti fungal drug

A

clotrimazole (-azole)

59
Q

Give an example of fungal infections

A

candida albicans (vaginal/oral infections, catheter/line infections
aspergillus fumigatus (lung infections)

60
Q

What test is used to confirm active HBV infection?

A

HBsAg test - positive will mean active infection

61
Q

Which cells does HIV effect?

A

CD4+

62
Q

What are the symptoms of HIV?

A

non-specific malaise, recurrent infection

63
Q

Give an example of a pathogenic protozoa

A

malaria, giardia lambia, toxiplasmosis

64
Q

What does malaria effect?

A

liver and RBCs

65
Q

What are the symptoms of malaria?

A

fever, chills, sweats, headaches, myalgia

66
Q

What test is done to check for malaria?

A

Giemsa stained thin and thick blood film

67
Q

Which is the most common pathogen to cause malaria?

A

plasmodium falciparum

68
Q

What two species can cause dormant malaria?

A

P. ovale and P. vivax

69
Q

What is the treatment for simple malaria?

A

hydroxycholoroquine

70
Q

What is the treatment for complicated malaria?

A

IV artusenate

71
Q

What medication can be given for dormant malaria?

A

primaquine

medicine phase 2 a (10 decks)

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