Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

ACU COURSE > NEURO > Flashcards

NEURO Flashcards

1
Q

The spinal cord conducts signals to and from the brain and controls ______

A

The spinal cord conducts signals to and from the brain and controls REFLEXES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CNS: _______ and _________
PNS: _______ and the _______; _______ controls organs and glands and is divided into _____ and _____; the _____ controls sensory organs and voluntary muscles and is divided into ________ and _______

A

CNS: SPINAL CORD and BRAIN
PNS: ANS and the SNS; ANS controls organs and glands and is divided into SYMPATHETIC and PARASYMPATHETIC; the SNS controls sensory organs and voluntary muscles and is divided into MOTOR (EFFERENT) and SENSORY (AFFERENT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Two types of cell that make up the nervous system: neurons and ________ cells

A

Two types of cell that make up the nervous system: neurons and NEUROGLIA cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Meninges: The three layers of tissue that cover the brain

A

Dura, arachnoid, and pia matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lesions of the cerebellum cause which type of response?

Spastic muscle activity
Changes in level of consciousness
Changes in behaviour
Disturbances of equilibrium

A

Disturbances of equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type of head injury typically produces rapid clinical deterioration?

Subdural hematoma
Depressed skull fracture without displacement
Epidural hematoma
Subarachnoid hematoma

A

Epidural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some measures that can be performed to reduce ICP?

Position patient onto their left side in Trendelenburg position
Administer hypotonic saline solution
Administer Mannitol IV solution
Remove the cervical collar to improve blood flow to the brain

A

Administer Mannitol IV solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which statement is true regarding a patient who experiences an epidural hematoma:

  1. Most often it is a venous bleed
  2. Cannot be diagnosed on CT scan for 24 hours
  3. Patient will typically have a brief or no loss of consciousness followed by a lucid period then a rapid decline in consciousness
  4. Bleed is contained within the dura and the arachnoid membrane
A
  1. Patient will typically have a brief or no loss of consciousness followed by a lucid period then a rapid decline in consciousness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which statement regarding the Circle of Willis is FALSE?

  1. Most common area for cerebral aneurysms to form
  2. Primarily supplied by the internal carotid arteries and the basilar artery
  3. Located in the epidural space
  4. Allows some preservation of blood flow if one of the arteries becomes blocked
A
  1. Located in the epidural space
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ICP can be increased by anything that:

Increases intracranial volume
Results in high compliance
Results in low elastanace
Decreases carbon dioxide levels

A

Increases intracranial volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Epidural Space:
Between _____ and dura
Where middle meningeal _____ located
Damage to this area can lead to epidural bleed

Subdural Space:
Located between dura and subarachnoid matter
Contains ++small _____
During TBI – can lead to subdural hematoma

Subarachnoid Space:
Between pia matter and arachnoid
Major cerebral ______ located here

A

Epidural Space:
Between bone and dura
Where middle meningeal artery located
Damage to this area can lead to epidural bleed

Subdural Space:
Located between dura and subarachnoid matter
Contains ++small veins
During TBI – can lead to subdural hematoma

Subarachnoid Space:
Between pia matter and arachnoid
Major cerebral arteries located here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CSF: _____ and ______ fluid that fills the ventricles and subarachnoid space. Acts as shock absorber, provides nutrients and removes wastes. Secreted by the ______ _______ of the ventricles

Produced constantly at ___ ml/hr. Circulating volume is _____ - _____mL.

A

CSF: CLEAR and COLOURLESS fluid that fills the ventricles and subarachnoid space. Acts as shock absorber, provides nutrients, and removes wastes. Secreted by the CHOROID PLEXUSES of the ventricles

Produced constantly at 20ml/hr. Circulating volume is 135-150mL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Frontal Lobe: high-level cognitive function, ________ language (______ area) and ________ motor function

A

Frontal Lobe: high-level cognitive function, EXPRESSIVE language (BROCA area) and VOLUNTARY motor function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Parietal lobe: ________ functions and _______ area (receptive language)

A

Parietal lobe: SENSORY functions and WERNICKE’S area (receptive language)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Temporal lobe: _______

A

Temporal lobe: hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Occipital lobe: _______

A

vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Corpus Callosum: Facilitate communication between brain __________

A

Hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cerebellum: Located at the _______ of the brain. Responsible for _____ motor movements, ________ and balance

A

Cerebellum: Located at the BOTTOM of the brain. Responsible for FINE motor movements, COORDINATION and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

All information from your body’s senses (except smell) must be processed through your ______ before being sent to your brain’s cerebral cortex for interpretation. Your thalamus also plays a role in sleep, wakefulness, consciousness, learning and memory

A

Thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Maintains homeostasis by regulating ANS responses + endocrine function

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Brainstem comprised of 3 divisions: ______, ______ and ______ ________. It is responsible for many vital functions of life, such as breathing, consciousness, blood pressure, heart rate, and sleep

A

Midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The brain has no reserves for ______ or _______

A

The brain has no reserves for OXYGEN or GLUCOSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The Circle of Willis acts as a protective mechanism to preserve cerebral blood flow if one of the arteries becomes blocked.

It is a common area for ________ to develop.

Located at the _______ of the skull.

A

The Circle of Willis acts as a protective mechanism to preserve cerebral blood flow if one of the arteries becomes blocked.

It is a common area for ANEURYSMS to develop.

Located at the BASE of the skull.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Anterior Cerebral Artery: Supplies the ________ lobe which is responsible for _____, personality, and ________ _____

Middle Cerebral Artery: Supplies a portion of the _____ lobe, the lateral ______ lobe, and the _______ lobe. It is the most commonly occluded in stroke

Posterior Cerebral Artery: Supplies the ______ and ______ lobes.

A

Anterior Cerebral Artery: Supplies the FRONTAL lobe which is responsible for COGNITION, personality, and MOTOR FUNCTION

Middle Cerebral Artery: Supplies a portion of the FRONTAL lobe, the lateral PARIETAL lobe, and the TEMPORAL lobe. It is the most commonly occluded in stroke

Posterior Cerebral Artery: Supplies the TEMPORAL and OCCIPITAL lobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Blood drains from cerebral ____ to venous ____ to the _____ veins to the SVC
Blood drains from cerebral VEINS to venous SINUSES to the JUGULAR veins to the SVC
26
Are spinal nerves part of the CNS or the PNS?
PNS
27
Do cranial nerves cross over?
No
28
_______: the ability to respond to verbal/noxious stimuli __________: orientation to PPT
AROUSAL: the ability to respond to verbal/noxious stimuli AWARENESS: orientation to PPT
29
GCS: Has ____ components: 1) Best ____ Opening Response 2) Best ____ Response 3) Best ____ Response
GCS: Has 3 components: 1) Best Eye Opening Response 2) Best Verbal Response 3) Best Motor Response
30
The ocular motor nerve (CN 3) is often impaired in patients with severe increased ICP. High ICP = no response Narcotics can make pupils _______ Atropine can _____ pupils Epi can also ______ pupils
The ocular motor nerve (CN 3) is often impaired in patients with severe increased ICP. High ICP = no response Narcotics can make pupils constrict Atropine can dilate pupils Epi can also dilate pupils
31
__________ _______: patient closes their eyes and ask them to lift both arms up with palms up. Assess if one arm drifts down = upper motor neuron deficit Babinski sign: ______ of toes with stimulation of bottom of foot. Normal = toes ____ Spinal cord testing: cranial nerve testing
Pronator drift: patient closes their eyes and ask them to lift both arms up with palms up. Assess if one arm drifts down = upper motor neuron deficit Babinski sign: fanning of toes with stimulation of bottom of foot. Normal = toes curl Spinal cord testing: cranial nerve testing
32
Normal ICP:
0-10mmHg, but 15mmHg is considered upper limit of normal
33
What does ICP measure?
Brain, blood, and CSF within the skull
34
Once _______ and ____ cannot compensate any longer, ICP elevates as mass compresses arterial volume and brain *Autoregulation fails if SBP < __ or > ___ mmHg + injured brain cells lose ability to autoregulate
Once venous blood and CSF cannot compensate any longer, ICP elevates as mass compresses arterial volume and brain *fails if SBP < 50 or > 150 mmHg + injured brain cells lose ability to autoregulate
35
CPP is the ________ gradient across the brain. Normal CPP is ____. Ischemia is not seen until the CPP falls below ____. In patients with ICP, CPP must be closely regulated within _____-_____ Increased ICP = _______ CPP = _____ perfusion to brain cells CPP calculation:
CPP is the PRESSURE gradient across the brain. Normal CPP is 50-100mmHg. Ischemia is not seen until the CPP falls below 40mmHg. In patients with ICP, CPP must be closely regulated within 70-120mmHg Increased ICP = DECREASED CPP = DECREASED perfusion to brain cells CPP calculation: MAP - ICP
36
Causes of Increased ICP: Increased ______ volume Increased _______ volume Increased _____ volume
Causes of Increased ICP: Increased BRAIN volume (hematoma, tumour, abscesses) Increased BLOOD volume (hypercapnia, vasodilation) Increased CSF volume (increased production or decreased absorption)
37
Signs of increased ICP: - _______ LOC - changes in ______ status - pupillary abnormalities - headache, N/V - changes in VS (______ triad)
Signs of increased ICP: - DECREASED LOC - changes in MENTAL status - pupillary abnormalities - headache, N/V - changes in VS (CUSHING'S triad)
38
Cushing's Triad: BP: ______ with _______ pulse pressure HR: ________ RR: _______
BP: HTN with WIDENED pulse pressure HR: BRADY RR: ABNORMAL
39
___________ hydrocephalus: CSF can still flow between the ventricles, which remain open. Caused by overproduction of CSF ______________ hydrocephalus: Obstructive hydrocephalus. Flow of CSF is blocked between the ventricles
Communication hydrocephalus: CSF can still flow between the ventricles, which remain open. Caused by overproduction of CSF Non-Communication hydrocephalus: Obstructive hydrocephalus. Flow of CSF is blocked between the ventricles
40
Primary Brain Injury: during the _________ impact and is ________ The goal is to prevent _______ injury which begins ____ to days after the primary event
Primary Brain Injury: during the INITIAL impact and is PERMANENT The goal is to prevent SECONDARY injury which begins HOURS to days after the primary event Secondary injury is anything that causes loss of cerebral autoregulation, impaired perfusion, and ischemia in the brain
41
How to decrease Secondary Injury:
Early intubation Rapid transport to trauma centre Early CT scan Monitor BG and Na+
42
What is a focal deficit?
Deficit on one side of the body
43
How to tell if it is CSF?
Halo around it and test for glucose
44
When would you see periorbital ecchymosis, auricular ecchymosis (Battle's sign), and focal deficits?
Basal skull fracture
45
What is a diffuse axonal injury?
Concussion
46
Most standard imaging modalities cannot diagnose _____
DAI
47
Epidural hematoma: most _____, but most ______ Between the _____ and dura. Fracture of skull in the ______/_______ lobe area, causing a tear in the _______ meningeal ________ Brief of no loss of consciousness followed by lucid period, then rapid decline in consciousness
Epidural hematoma: most RARE, but most SERIOUS Between the BONE and dura. Fracture of skull in the TEMPORAL/PARIETAL lobe area, causing a tear in the MIDDLE meningeal ARTERY Brief of no loss of consciousness followed by lucid period, then rapid decline in consciousness
48
Subdural Hematoma: Between the _____ and _____ space. _______ bleeding in the _______ lobes Usually caused by ____-______ injuries
Subdural Hematoma: Between the DURA and ARACHNOID space. VENOUS bleeding in the TEMPORAL lobes Usually caused by COUP-CONTRECOUP injuries
49
SAH: Can be _____ or ______. tSAH is near the _____ of the brain. aSAH is always near the __________ Often ________ hydrocephalus Increased risk of ______ --> ________ stroke
SAH: Can be TRAUMATIC or ANEURYSMAL. tSAH is near the FRONT of the brain. aSAH is always near the CIRCLE OF WILLIS Often COMMUNICATING hydrocephalus Increased risk of VASOSPASM --> ISCHEMIC stroke
50
Intracerebral Hemorrhage: Brain itself can start to bleed
May develop hours to days after initial injury
51
Care of patient with TBI
Meticulous neuro VS + VS Treat increased ICP Sedation Stagger nursing activities Good neck alignment Pre-oxygenate before suctioning Allow for rest
52
* ICP must be treated when it exceeds ___ mmHg or more * All treatment directed at ______ the volume of one or more of blood, brain, or CSF (1) Determine cause of elevated pressure and remove the cause (2) Ensure: o Check ICP waveform to ensure it is accurate o HOB > ____ degrees o Neck _____ – no venous obstruction o Sedation appropriately adjusted (3) If the above do not work and ICP still elevated o Administer _______ or 3% saline (hyperosmolar) - Creates osmolar gradient which promotes the removal of CSF from cranial space = decreased ICP o Further increasing or adjusting sedation o Adding a neuromuscular blockade o Inducing _______ to decrease metabolic demands o Trialing bolus anesthetic o Consult with neurosurgery
* ICP must be treated when it exceeds ___ mmHg or more * All treatment directed at reducing the volume of one or more of blood, brain, or CSF (1) Determine cause of elevated pressure and remove the cause (2) Ensure: o Check ICP waveform to ensure it is accurate o HOB > 30 degrees o Neck midline – no venous obstruction o Sedation appropriately adjusted (3) If the above do not work and ICP still elevated o Administer Mannitol or 3% saline (hyperosmolar) - Creates osmolar gradient which promotes removal of CSF from cranial space = decreased ICP o Further increasing or adjusting sedation o Adding a neuromuscular blockade o Inducing hypothermia to decrease metabolic demands o Trialing bolus anesthetic o Consult with neurosurgery
53
Which cells do brain tumours arise from?
Glial cells
54
S/S of Brain Tumours: - ________ deficits based on the lobe involved - signs of increased ______ - seizures
S/S of Brain Tumours: - FOCAL deficits based on the lobe involved - signs of increased ICP - seizures
55
Meningitis: When the fluid that surrounds the meninges becomes infected Most common cause: ________ Other causes: lupus, intrathecal medication administration Top 3 S/S: - ________ rigidity - ______ sign (lay supine and bend knee at 90 degrees - pt unable to extend leg) - ________ sign (lay supine and flex head forward - hips and knees also flex forward) Isolation precaution: __________
Meningitis: When the fluid that surrounds the meninges becomes infected Most common cause: bacterial/viral infx Other causes: lupus, intrathecal medication administration Top 3 S/S: - NUCHAL rigidity - KERNIG sign (lay supine and bend knee at 90 degrees - pt unable to extend leg) - BRUDZINSKI sign (lay supine and flex head forward - hips and knees also flex forward) Isolation precaution: DROPLET
56
What is recommended to have done before a lumbar puncture is performed?
CT Scan
57
When diagnosing a brain abscess which test is contraindicated due to the risk of cerebral herniation?
Lumbar Puncture - contraindicated in any patient with space-occupying lesion or suspected increased ICP as it could further increase ICP and result in brain herniation
58
What is encephalitis?
Inflammation of the brain tissue most often caused by a virus
59
What is a characteristic of a CNS infection?
Focal neurological findings Headache Seizures
60
Progressive, ascending, __________ peripheral nerve dysfunction which leads to paralysis Often caused by infection or vaccine Results in damaged _______ ________
Progressive, ascending, SYMMETRICAL peripheral nerve dysfunction which leads to paralysis Often caused by infection or vaccine Results in damaged MYELIN SHEATH GUILLAIN BARRE
61
Autoimmune disorder that affects _________ skeletal muscles: transmission of nerve impulses are _______ Unknown cause, but the ______ plays a role in the development Common sign: drooping ________, weakness to _____ and _______ muscles Experience _______ muscle weakness throughout the day Myasthenic Crisis: muscles used to control ______ are affected and weakened
Autoimmune disorder that affects VOLUNTARY skeletal muscles: transmission of nerve impulses are BLOCKED Unknown cause, but the THALAMUS plays a role in the development (tumour) Common sign: drooping EYELIDS, weakness to FACIAL and SWALLOWING muscles Experience PROGRESSIVE muscle weakness throughout the day Myasthenic Crisis: muscles used to control BREATHING are affected and weakened
62
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis: _______ neuron disease that results in dysfunction of _______ and _______ motor neurons leading to paralysis It is degenerative and progressive, with no cure (neurons _____) _______ weakness and muscle function loss with full ________ input Focal and ______ onset Difficulty chewing, swallowing and speaking Progresses to _______ failure
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis: MOTOR neuron disease that results in dysfunction of UPPER and LOWER motor neurons leading to paralysis It is degenerative and progressive, with no cure (neurons DIE) PAINLESS weakness and muscle function loss with full SENSORY input Focal and ASYMMETRICAL onset Difficulty chewing, swallowing and speaking Progresses to RESPIRATORY failure
63
Sometimes referred to as quadriplegia, is a term used to describe the inability to voluntarily move the upper and lower parts of the body
Tetraplegia
64
Paralysis that affects your legs, but not your arms
Paraplegia
65
Medical condition that is considered an incomplete spinal cord injury, in which three limbs are paralyzed
Triplegia
66
Spinal fractures are labelled as either stable or unstable: Stable - ______ concern for neurological injury - Treated with bracing and rest Unstable - _______ for neurological injury - Treated with surgery to realign the bones to prevent spinal cord or nerve damage
Spinal fractures are labelled as either stable or unstable: Stable - NO concern for neurological injury - Treated with bracing and rest Unstable - CONCERN for neurological injury - Treated with surgery to realign the bones to prevent spinal cord or nerve damage
67
Full Spine Precautions: - _____ rest only - ____ bed surface - Hard ______ collar at all times - ____-roll with manual cervical stabilization - no air mattress - ______ boards must be used for patient transfer
Full Spine Precautions: - BED rest only - FLAT bed surface - Hard CERVICAL collar at all times - LOG-roll with manual cervical stabilization - no air mattress - SPINE boards must be used for patient transfer
68
How many people does a log roll require?
4
69
Neurogenic Shock: - Occurs in SCI at or above ____ - ____tension, ____ skin, ______cardia - Fluid resuscitation not sufficient to increase ___ and may cause ____ or ARDS - ______ or pressors may be needed
- Occurs in SCI at or above T6 - HYPOtension, WARM skin, BRADYcardia - Fluid resuscitation not sufficient to increase MAP and may cause CHF or ARDS - INOTROPES or pressors may be needed
70
Autonomic dysreflexia: - Can occur in patients with SCI at or above ____ after spinal shock - massive ______ reflex response to a stimulus _____ the level of injury - common stimuli include a full bladder, distended bowels, skin irritation, tight clothing, or splints - ____tension, ______cardia, and _____thermia
Autonomic dysreflexia: - Can occur in patients with SCI at or above T6 after spinal shock - massive SYMPATHETIC reflex response to a stimulus BELOW the level of injury - common stimuli include a full bladder, distended bowels, skin irritation, tight clothing, or splints - HYPERtension, BRADYcardia, and HYPERthermia
71
TIA - important to assess for presence of ______ activity to determine if _____ or actually a stroke
TIA - important to assess for presence of SEIZURE activity to determine if POST-ICTAL or actually a stroke
72
When are you able to see brain infarct on a CT?
After 24hrs
73
STROKE: Prep for CT/MRI of brain within ___ minutes of pt arriving to ED Determine if hemorragic vs ischemic Fibrinolytic criteria: no hemorrhage + within ____hrs of symptom onset and start within ___ mins of arriving to hospital Check glucose, ECG, and BW + 24hr continuous cardiac monitoring to detect _____ as a cause of embolic stroke
STROKE: Prep for CT/MRI of brain within 15 minutes of pt arriving to ED Determine if hemorragic vs ischemic Fibrinolytic criteria: no hemorrhage + within 4.5hrs of symptom onset and start within 60 mins of arriving to hospital Check glucose, ECG, and BW + 24hr continuous cardiac monitoring to detect A-FIB as a cause of embolic stroke
74
In patients with hemorrhagic stroke, they may experience seizures. Should antiepileptics be given prophylactically?
No - only if seizures occur
75
What is a huge issue with RS stroke?
Safety - poor judgement in abilities
76
LS Stroke main deficit is _______
LS Stroke main deficit is APHASIA
77
Common complications with aSAH: - __bleeding (watch _____) - vaso_______ (can cause _____ stroke - occurs __ to ___ days post hemorrhage)
Common complications with aSAH: - REbleeding (watch HTN) - vasoSPASM (can cause ISCHEMIC stroke - occurs 2 to 5 days post hemorrhage)

ACU COURSE (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions