Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biochem 1 > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Communicating hydrocephalus usually occurs secondary to…….. This dysfunction is usually a sequelae of…..or……

A

dysfunction or obliteration of subarachnoid villi

meningeal infections (including tuberculosis meningitis)

subarachnoid/intraventricular hemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

antipyretics (eg, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs), which decrease fever by…….. and counteracting the effects of……l, resulting in reduction of the thermoregulatory set point in the……

A

inhibiting prostaglandin E2 synthesis

circulating cytokines

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Irreversible ischemic CNS injury is typically followed by liquefactive necrosis due to the….and….

A

Release of lysosomal enzymes from ischemic neurons and responding inflammatory cells (eg, neutrophils, macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

GBS is an acute, immune-mediated, demyelinating polyneuropathy thought to be due to…….

Histology demonstrates an……. located within the endoneurium
Shape of characteristic macrophages:

A

molecular mimicry
Guillain barre

inflammatory infiltrate

lipid laden macrophages are seen following the engulfment of myelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

medulloblastoma histology:
Most common place arise:

A

Sheets of primitive cells with many mitotic figure

Cerebellar vermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

On microscopic examination of a pilocytic astrocytoma:
Location:

A

pilocytic astrocytes and Rosenthal fibers are seen.

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

diagnosis of huntington disease is best confirmed by……l, imaging studies will typically show…l, causing ex-vacuo enlargement of the….

A

genetic analysis

atrophy of the caudate nuclei

lateral ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The caudate nucleus and putamen together make up the striatum, which is critical for:

A

movement control and coordination along with behavioral regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The sciatic nerve is derived from the….. roots and compression most often occurs at the…..

A

L4-S3 nerve

level of L5 or S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Injury to the deep branch of the radial nerve at the supinator muscle may occur due to repetitive….., direct trauma, or dislocation…. Patients typically have……

A

pronation/supination of the forearm (eg, frequent screwdriver use)

of the head of the radius.

weakness on finger and thumb extension (ie, finger drop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Selective muscarinic antagonists (eg,……) can be used to reduce the side effects of cholinesterase inhibitors in sites where acetylcholine action is mediated by muscarinic receptors (ie, gastrointestinal tract)

A

glycopyrrolate, hyoscyamine, propantheline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Damage… the red nucleus (eg,… and …..) typically results in decorticate (flexor) posturing due to loss of descending inhibition of the red nucleus and subsequent hyperactivity of upper limb….

A

above

cerebral hemisphere, internal capsule

flexors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Damage….. the red nucleus (eg,…l) or to the nucleus itself (eg,….) often causes decerebrate (extensor) posturing due to loss of descending excitation to the upper limb flexors (via the rubrospinal tract) and extensor predominance (due to unopposed vestibulospinal tract output)

A

below

pons

midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Damage above the level of the red nucleus (eg,……) typically results in decorticate (flexor) posturing. Damage at or below the red nucleus (eg,….) typically results in decerebrate (extensor) posturing.

A

cerebral hemispheres, internal capsule

midbrain to pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications characterized by diffuse muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, autonomic instability, and altered sensorium. The antipsychotic should be stopped and supportive care provided; dantrolene, a…….. that inhibits, is an effective antidote.

A

ryanodine receptor blocker

calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Symptoms of trapezius weakness include…..,….., and….

A

drooping of the shoulder

impaired abduction of the arm above 100 degrees

lateral displacement of the scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The locus ceruleus is a paired brainstem nucleus located in the posterior.. ….near the lateral floor of the fourth ventricle and functions as the principal site for…. synthesis in the brain. It projects to virtually all parts of the central nervous system and helps control mood, arousal (reticular activating system), sleep-wake states, cognition, and autonomic function.

A

rostral pons

norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

EGFR is a…… system that conducts external growth signals into the nucleus, thereby promoting cellular survival and proliferation

A

tyrosine-kinase signal transduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Recurrent focal impaired awareness seizures that are preceded by a distinctive aura (eg, uneasy epigastric sensation, olfactory hallucinations) are characteristic of……

The most common etiology is….., which is associated with childhood febrile seizures.

A

mesial temporal lobe epilepsy

hippocampal sclerosis (mesial temporal sclerosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Long thoracic nerve (…….): Damage results in….. and weakness of arm abduction above the horizontal level.

A

serratus anterior

scapular winging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Thoracodorsal nerve (……): Damage results in loss of powerful….. of the arm and weakness while extending and…. rotating the arm

A

latissimus dorsi

adduction

medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Medial pectoral (….and lateral pectoral (…) nerves: Damage results in weakness while adducting and medially rotating the arm. In addition, there may be weakness flexing (….) or extending (…) the humerus

A

pectoralis minor and major)

pectoralis major

clavicular head

sternocostal head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Both…….. and……. decrease peripheral levodopa degradation and increase the amount of levodopa available to cross the blood-brain barrier.

A

COMT inhibitors (eg, entacapone, tolcapone)

DOPA decarboxylase inhibitors (eg, carbidopa)

24
Q

anticonvulsants associated with SJS/TEN include:
Count four

A

Lamotrigine
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital

25
Q

Signs of elevated ICP include altered mental status, nausea/vomiting, and Cushing reflex :……

A

bradycardia, irregular breathing, hypertension

26
Q

Opiate analgesics reduce pain by binding to mu receptors and inhibiting synaptic activity in the central nervous system. Activation of presynaptic mu receptors on the primary afferent neuron leads to……… and reduced excitatory neurotransmitter release.
Binding to mu receptors on the postsynaptic membrane causes …..and membrane hyperpolarization.

A

closure of voltage-gated calcium channels

opening of potassium channels

27
Q

Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant neurodegenerative disease that leads to the accumulation of abnormal, toxic huntingtin protein in neural cells. …………are most susceptible, and their loss is responsible for the characteristic manifestations of Huntington disease (eg, chorea, behavioral abnormalities).

A

Inhibitory GABAergic neurons in the caudate nuclei

28
Q

Tetanospasmin is a neuro-exotoxin released by Clostridium tetani. The toxin blocks the release of ….and…… from the spinal inhibitory interneurons that regulate the lower motor neurons. These disinhibited motor neurons cause increased activation of muscles, leading to…… and….

A

glycine

gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

spasms

hyperreflexia

29
Q

If the CT scan does not show SAH, but the clinical suspicion remains high, a lumbar puncture needs to be performed to evaluate the cerebrospinal fluid for the presence of…….

A

xanthochromia (blood in the CSF)

30
Q

The first-line treatment of trigeminal neuralgia is……, a medication that inhibits neuronal high-frequency firing by reducing the ability of …. to recover from inactivation

A

carbamazepine

sodium channels

31
Q

Isoniazid is structurally similar to………, a cofactor for enzymes involved in synthesis of……

A

pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

certain neurotransmitters

32
Q

Spore formation of botulism, which occurs in the……. location (between the terminal end and center of the bacteria), allows the bacteria to survive adverse conditions (eg, heat, high-oxygen environment).

A

subterminal

33
Q

………analysis is used to measure the degree of methylation and determine the number of CGG repeats.

A

Southern blot

34
Q

Upper motor neuron lesions (ie,…….stroke) cause contralateral weakness with clasp-knife spastic rigidity, hyperreflexia, and a positive Babinski sign

A

internal capsule

35
Q

The vomiting reflex is initiated by the chemoreceptor trigger zone (ie, area postrema) and nucleus tractus solitarius within the……… The area postrema does not have a well-developed blood brain barrier, allowing it to be activated directly by emetogenic substances (eg, drugs, toxins) or indirectly by ascending afferents…… from the bowel wall (eg, chemotherapy-induced release of serotonin).

A

dorsal medulla at the caudal end of the fourth ventricle

vague nerve

36
Q

The obturator nerve is from ……. And it is the only major nerve that exits the pelvis through the obturator foramen. Nerve injury typically results from compression (eg, due to pelvic trauma, surgery, or tumor) and presents with weakness on…… and sensory loss over the…….

A

Lumbar plexus (L2-L4)

thigh adduction

distal medial thigh.

37
Q

Lacunes are small (<15 mm) cavitary infarcts located within the…..,….., pons, and cerebellum. The infarcts result from occlusion of the small penetrating arteries that supply these deep brain structures (eg, lenticulostriate arteries)

A

basal ganglia

posterior limb of the internal capsule

38
Q

Lipohyalinosis occurs secondary to leakage of…..
through damaged endothelium and is characterized by hyaline thickening of the vascular wall

A

plasma proteins

39
Q

Medications with…… properties, such as benztropine or the antihistamine diphenhydramine, help re-establish the dopaminergic-cholinergic balance and effectively treat acute dystonia.

A

M1 receptor antagonist

40
Q

Triptans are…… that stimulate the……. receptors, resulting in inhibition of vasoactive peptide release, intracranial vasoconstriction, and decreased pain

A

serotonin 5-hydroxytryptamine 1B/1D agonists

trigeminovascular serotonin

41
Q

Subsequent stimulation of trigeminal afferents in the meninges causes the release of vasoactive neuropeptides, including …..and……., leading to neurogenic inflammation, vasodilation, and plasma protein extravasation

A

substance P

calcitonin gene–related peptide (CGRP)

42
Q

jugular foramen (Vernet) syndrome:

A

CN IX, X, and XI dysfunction

Loss of taste from the posterior 1/3 of the tongue (CN IX)
Loss of gag reflex (CN IX, X)
Dysphagia (CN IX, X)
Dysphonia/hoarseness (CN X)
Soft palate drop with deviation of the uvula toward the normal side (CN X)
Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscle paresis (CN XI)

43
Q

The pathophysiology of RLS is incompletely understood but likely involves CNS….. and abnormalities in dopaminergic transmission

A

iron deficiency (even in patients with normal serum iron levels)

44
Q

A nerve conduction study can help differentiate demyelinating versus axonal neuropathies; demyelination causes….. whereas axonal injury leads to a reduction in…..

A

slowed or blocked nerve conduction velocity

signal strength

45
Q

Age-related changes in sleep architecture include:

A

decreased total sleep time and slow-wave sleep with increased nighttime sleep latency

46
Q

Diffuse axonal injury (DAI) is a type of traumatic brain injury that results from……

Microscopically, DAI is visible as widespread axonal swelling, most pronounced at the gray-white matter junction, with accumulation of …..at the site of injury.

A

disruption of the white matter tracts

transport proteins (eg, amyloid precursor, alpha-synuclein)

47
Q

Focal-onset seizures most commonly occur due to a….. that causes a region of hyperexcitable neuronal activity in one cerebral hemisphere. These seizures begin with localized symptomatology (eg, muscle twitching, paresthesia) and are classified according to level of consciousness (eg, aware, impaired awareness).

A

focal structural abnormality (eg, stroke, neoplasm)

48
Q

The cardiovascular effects of cocaine toxicity result from impaired……., due to inhibition of the presynaptic monoamine transporter

A

reuptake of catecholamine neurotransmitters, including norepinephrine and dopamine

49
Q

The nuclei of the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) are located in the….. The vestibular portion of CN VIII conveys information about head position and movement and helps to stabilize…..; damage can lead to……

A

pons

the gaze during head movement

nystagmus

50
Q

Injury to the….. nerve roots causes Erb-Duchenne palsy, which is characterized by waiter’s tip posture. The affected arm may have….
reflexes; grasp reflex remains intact.

A

C5 and C6

decreased or absent Moro and biceps

51
Q

Myotonic dystrophy type 1 is due to a….. trinucleotide repeat expansion in the dystrophia myotonica protein kinase (DMPK) gene, resulting in….. The mutant mRNAs form hairpin structures and accumulate in the nucleus, sequestering certain RNA-binding proteins and leading to…… Nondividing cells of the…. are particularly affected.

A

cytosine-thymine-guanine

untranslatable mutant mRNAs

aberrant splicing

brain, skeletal muscles, and myocardium

52
Q

Global cerebral ischemia is typically precipitated by systemic hypotension (eg, cardiac arrest). The cells most susceptible to ischemia are the CA1 pyramidal neurons of the……. Other areas of the brain that are damaged early in the course of global cerebral ischemia include the….. and the….

A

hippocampus

cerebellar Purkinje cells

pyramidal neurons of the neocortex

53
Q

Treatment of absence seizures is typically with ethosuximide, which inhibits……. in…… neurons

A

T-type calcium channels

thalamic

54
Q

patients with HD display generalized….. atrophy as the disease progresses, the most prominent atrophy is seen bilaterally in the…. and…., leading to the enlargement of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles

A

cortical

caudate nucleus

putamen

55
Q

The stapedius muscle is innervated by the stapedius nerve (a branch of……). Paralysis of the stapedius muscle results in hyperacusis (eg, increased sensitivity to sound)

The tensor tympani muscle is innervated by ……

A

the facial nerve

mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3)

56
Q

The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the….. (flexes and adducts the arm) and the…… (eg, biceps brachii, brachialis) and then continues distally to provide sensory innervation to the……. forearm. It is derived from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (C5-C7) and can be injured by trauma or strenuous upper extremity exercise.

A

coracobrachialis

major elbow flexors

lateral

Biochem 1 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions