Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Capsule notes > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Type of speech difficulty in MG

A

dysarthria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

difference in MS and MG face palsy

A 
MS = pseudobulbar palsy (UMN, spastic tongue, no wasting)
MG = bulbar palsy (LMN, wasted tongue, absent reflexes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MG tests

A

tensilon test
CT upper thorax for thymoma/thymic hyperplasia
ACh receptor antibodies
TFTs
Ice-pack cooling to affected eyelid resolves ptosis
EMG tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is myasthenic crisis?

A

muscle weakness leading to respiratory failure

worsened by anaesthetic and certain drugs (tetracycline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are you worried about after tensilon tests?

A

when drug wears off it can precipitate a myasthenic crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

treatments for MG

A 
steroids
azathioprine
ACh-esterase inhibitors (rivastigmine)
IVIG/plasmaphoresis for crisis
thymectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

symptoms of giant cell arteritis

A 
frontal headache
pain on palpation
pain brushing hair
jaw claudication on eating
visual loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia

A

intermittent sharp pain
in mandibular/maxillary distribution
worse on eating but episodic and severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

physical examination of giant cell arteritis

A

temporal tenderness
palpable thickened temporal artery
visual loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

3 tests for giant cell arteritis

A

ESR
temporal artery biopsy
USS temporal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

initial treatment of Giant Cell arteritis

A

high dose steroids (IV if visual problems) until symptoms resolve
commence osteoporosis prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

associated condition with giant cell arteritis

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

sensitivity of CT head on SAH

A

> 95 if done within 6h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

signs of SAH on LP

A

xanthochromia if within 4h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is Lhermitte’s sign

A

tingling of limbs on neck flexion in MS/cervical spondylosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

investigations for MS

A

LP

MRI brain/cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

features of demyelination

A

IgG oligoclonal bands in CSF
clinical features
MRI features don’t corelate to severity of disease (T2 hyperintense lesions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

most common feature in MS

A

headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

epidemiology of MS

A

F>M
M do worse and more likely to have primary progressive course
worsened by heat, but more common in colder climates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment for MS

A

Bolus pred to shorten relapse
Beta interferon reduces frequency of relapse
baclofen for spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

GBS weakness distribution

A

Starts distal, gets proximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Respiratory failure type in GBS

A

Type 2 (CO2 rises early and O2 falls later)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what FVC would indicate imiment respiratory failure

A

<1.5L with >30% drop lying flat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how does inclusion body myositis present

A

> 50y

slow progressive weakness of proximal and distal muscles, mimicking MND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

pattern for MND

A

LMN and UMN signs
dysphagia/dysarthria
respiratory involvement
normal sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how to confirm MND

A

EMG/Nerve Conduction Studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

medication for MND

A

riluzole - doesn’t improve symptoms but slows progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

respiratory changes in MND

A

elevated hemidiaphragm on CXR

spiro: reduced FVC/FEV1 with restrictive pattern

29
Q

which recreational drug can cause parkinsonism in young people

A

heroin. MPTP in synthetic heroin can chemically destroy neurons in the substantia nigra

30
Q

what is a progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

vertical gaze palsy
parkinsonism features
axial ridigity

31
Q

how does midbrain stroke present

A

internuclear ophthalmoplegia and loss of conjugate eye movement

32
Q

how does cortical-basal ganglionic degeneration present

A

Parkinson + syndrome

apraxia, akinesia, sensory neglect, behavioural change and aphasia

33
Q

what would you see on fundoscopy in reaised ICP

A

optic disc swelling

34
Q

what visual defect would you see in raised ICP

A

enlarged blind spots and constricted fields acutely

more advanced there will be loss of central vision and visual acuity

35
Q

risk factors for idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

F, high BMI, tetracycline use

36
Q

when should pt with SAH undergo LP

A

12h after pain onset if CT is normal

37
Q

why do we no longer prescribe ergot dopamine agonists

A

pleural/cardiac fibrosis

38
Q

why do we give COMTi in addition to L-dopa

A

help with motor complications like ‘wearing off’. slows breakdown of levodopa, prolonging effect

39
Q

what is ‘wearing off’ in parkinson’s

A

symptoms returning before next dose and relieved after

40
Q

what is ‘peak dose dyskinesia’

A

shaking shortly after taking medicine that subsides after

41
Q

characteristics of essential tremor

A 
gradual onset over 5 years
no other symptoms
symmetrical 
worse on performance of tasks
50% have FH
42
Q

treatment for essential tremor

A

reduce caffeine
primidone
beta blockers if not asthmatic

43
Q

difference between parkinsons and parkinsonism

A

parkinsonism = dyskinesia, bilateral rest tremor, levodopa doesn’t help

44
Q

how to see dopaminergic neurone loss

A

DaT scan

45
Q

causes of third nerve palsy

A

internal carotid artery dissection
intracranial aneurysm pressing on nerve
thrombotic occlusion of blood supply to nerve

46
Q

where would lesion be in

homonoymous hemianopia

A

behind chiasm i.e in brain

47
Q

treatment for BPPV

A

1) epley
2) Cawthorne cooksey exercise
3) watch and wait
4) prochlorperazine

48
Q

what is juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A

syndrome of TC seizures and myoclonic jerks, sometimes absence seizures. Begins in childhood and often persists into adulthood

49
Q

what is Jacksonian march

A

spreading of seizure symptoms from one part of the body to another

50
Q

what is Todd’s paresis

A

temporary weakness in body part after seizure - mimics stroke

51
Q

investigations for seizures

A

blood glucose

MRI brain

52
Q

diagnostic criteria for RRMS

A

CNS inflammation not due to alternative cause, in different places in CNS and at different times.

53
Q

treatment for RRMS

A

acutely: methylprednisolone
chronically: beta-interferon, dimethyl fumarate

second line natalizumab

54
Q

x-ray view for occiput

A

Towne’s view

55
Q

what vessel is implicated in subdural haematoma

A

tearing of a bridging vein from cerebral cortex and a draining venous sinus

56
Q

eye signs in raised ICP

A

venous pulsations

later you get papilloedema

57
Q

causes of bilateral ptosis

A

MG

congenital

58
Q

what’s the difference between spasticity and rigidity

A 
spasticity = increased tone early on
rigidity = increased tone throughout
59
Q

pt with weakness down left side. why would you CXR?

A

aspiration
metastasis/lung cancer
enlarged heart/heart failure

60
Q

how many cafe au lait spots if pathological

A

more than 6

61
Q

features of type 1 NF

A 
more than 6 CaL spots
frecking in axilla/neck/groin
dermal neurfibroma
nodular neuroibroma
optic glioma
fundal changes
lisch nodules (iris hamartomas) - need a slit lamp

Triad of: Neurofibroma, CaL spots, Lisch nodule

62
Q

features of type 2 NF

A

bilateral 8th nerve palsy

nervous system tumours

63
Q

Complications of NF

A

hypertension - RAS
thoracic kyphosis - resp compromise
malignant change - 10%
learning difficulty

64
Q

what is Crowe’s sign?

A

freckling of axilla

65
Q

which motor lesions spares the forehead

A

UMN

66
Q

if facial nerve palsy what else do you look for

A

ears for Ramsay-Hunt syndrome and acute otitis media (hyperacusis as well)
parotids for other nerves
anterior 2/3 tongue for taste

67
Q

how to localise lesion in 7th nerve palsy with other nerves

A

6th = pons lesion

5th and 8th = cerebello-pontine angle

68
Q

earliest sign for cerebello-pontine lesions

A

loss of corneal reflex

Capsule notes (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions