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A+ review > Networking > Flashcards

Networking Flashcards

1
Q

In addition to Remote Desktop, which of the following protocols can an administrator use for remote access administration? (Select all that apply.)

A

Telnet

SSH

Telnet opens a plain-text, unsecured, remote console connection. Telnet

Secure Shell (SSH) provides the same capabilities as Telnet but encrypts the data while transferring to the port. SSH uses TCP port 22.

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2
Q

A client connects to an IMAP server over port TCP/143, but this port is unsecure. Instead, the client wants a secure connection established using Transport Layer Security (TLS). What is the default port for the secure POP3/IMAP?

A

TCP port 993 or 995

The default ports for a secure connection are either transport control p

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3
Q

As an alternative to static configuration, wired and wireless hosts can receive their IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses from which protocol? (Select all that apply.)

A

DHCP

APIPA

Host servers have a failover mechanism when an IP configuration specifie

Windows machines will default to automatic private IP addressing (APIPA) if the DHCP service fails or if there is some connectivity error.

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4
Q

The network administrator is configuring a network attached storage (NAS) appliance. What file sharing protocol should the administrator use to allow access to Windows, Linux, and Apple macOS clients?

A

Server Message Block (SMB)

The Server Message Block (SMB) protocol that implements Windows File/Pri

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5
Q

A top-level domain (i.e., .com) falsely represents the top of the Domain Name System (DNS) hierarchy. Why is this considered false?

A

The DNS uses root servers at the hierarchy top, represented by a trailing dot at the end of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), ensuring a unique host name.

Domain Name System (DNS) is a global hierarchy of distributed name serve

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6
Q

A client wishes to upload and download a few files from the network server. The client wants to upload some of the files to a website. Which ports would establish an active connection? (Select all that apply.)

A

TCP/20

TCP/21

FTP is associated with the use of Transfer Control Protocol/21 (TCP/21) to establish a connection.

File transfer protocol (FTP) is associated with Transfer Control Protocol/20 (TCP/20) to transfer data in active mode or a server-assigned port in passive mode.

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7
Q

An HTTPS application is secured using the SSL/TLS protocol but should use a different port for unencrypted HTTP. Which port should unencrypted HTTP use?

A

TCP/80

By default, HTTPS uses TCP port 443. Unsecure default HTTP port is TCP p

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8
Q

A client wishes to download some files from home to upload onto the company’s website. Which ports would establish a connection for the client to achieve this? (Select all that apply.)

A

TCP/20

TCP/21

File transfer protocol (FTP) is associated with Transfer Control Protoco

FTP is associated with the use of Transfer Control Protocol/21 (TCP/21) to establish a connection.

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9
Q

Authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) allows switches and access points to hold directory information to authenticate clients as they connect to the network. Which protocol would the AAA server use if it wanted to communicate with the directory service?

A

LDAP

The AAA server uses Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) to communicate with the directory service (Active Directory) from an access point with no configured user account credentials, and it cannot decrypt any authentication traffic.

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10
Q

What network protocol is obsolete and should be disabled on most networks as it poses a significant security risk?

A

NetBIOs

NetBIOS is obsolete and only required if the network must support file sharing for Windows versions earlier than Windows 2000.

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11
Q

During a company meeting, a technician scribbled some notes about a firewall configuration on a whiteboard. The technician has listed only the port numbers 25 and 587. What is the purpose of these protocols that use these ports?

A

The ports are for message relay between SMTP servers to submit secure and unsecure messages for delivery.

Port TCP/25 is for unsecure message relays (MTAs) between Simple Mail Tr

Port TCP/587 submits encrypted, authenticated, and secured messages for delivery by an SMTP server.

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12
Q

The IT department is setting up for outsourced management of their client firms. The IT department has asked a server administrator to configure a Linux server and accept remote terminal connections from clients without using passwords, along with encrypted terminal emulations. How does the administrator set up this access? (Select all that apply.)

A

Use a Secure Shell (SSH) connection.

Use an Open Secure Shell (OpenSSH) connection.

A Secure Shell (SSH) connection is the principal means of obtaining secu

The most widely used SSH is OpenSSH. Therefore, a common Secure Shell connection is considered OpenSSH.

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13
Q

When advising a company on configuring systems, the administrator wants to provide better information about network device status and how to monitor them in a client manual. Which of the following is the correct protocol that maintains a database containing statistics related to the activity of devices for review?

A

SNMP

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14
Q

All PC motherboards have a built-in 1000BASE-T compatible adapter to establish connectivity with the Ethernet. What other devices connect to different types of Ethernets, such as fiber optics? (Select all that apply.)

A

SOHO router

Modem

Network interface card (NIC)

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15
Q

A network administrator is completing an installation as part of a team. Another group cabled the wall ports but left the ends of the cables bundled in the network closet. What additional infrastructure will the network administrator require to complete this installation? (Select all that apply.)

A

A switch

A patch panel

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16
Q

A network administrator is expanding the company network with new settings and requirements for switches, VLANs, and IP subsets. What is the purpose of what the administrator is doing?

A

To divide the VLAN into multiple secure broadcast domains through managed switches, allowing additional remote access via VPNs

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17
Q

The TIA/EIA-568 standard defines two methods for terminating twisted pairs: T568A or T568B. In T568A, pin 1 is wired to green/white, pin 2 is wired to green, pin 3 is wired to orange/white, and pin 6 is wired to orange. In T568B, the position of the green and orange pairs swap over so that orange terminates to 1 and 2, while green terminates to 3 and 6. What is the reason for this specific standard?

A

To use the same termination method consistently to support a Gigabit Ethernet or an upgrade to an optical network terminal

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18
Q

Which hardware networking device implements Ethernet cabling and ports to repeat transmission from one device to another as a concentrator function instead of the outdated hub? (Select all that apply.)

A

A switch

A router or modem

A firewall

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19
Q

A network administrator sets up a high-speed, long-range Asymmetrical DSL (ADSL) router/modem for a client. Unfortunately, the vendor did not include a list of the box contents and the instructions. What type of cable does the administrator need to connect the router’s interface?

A

An RJ11-terminated patch cord over 300m long

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20
Q

The network administrator wants to deploy one or more access points to provision a wireless network supporting a given range of protocols/standards containing supports, such as RADIUS, Kerberos, and TACACS+, with nonoverlapping channels. TACACS+, RADIUS, and Kerberos are another way of doing what?

A

Implementing AAA service on a server or network for enterprise authentication

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21
Q

A network administrator is assessing standards compatibility for a Wi-Fi network. Most employees have mobile devices with single-band 2.4 GHz radios. Which Wi-Fi standards work in this band? (Select all that apply.)

A

Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax)

Wi-Fi 4 (802.11n)

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22
Q

Cloud services require the rapid provisioning and deprovisioning of server instances and networks. These components must be fully accessible to scripting, which brought about software-defined networking (SDN). According to the definition by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF), the principal innovation of SDN is to do what?

A

To insert a control layer between the application and infrastructure layers

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23
Q

A network administrator plans to install a network of wireless access points with power supplied over data cabling. Each access point requires a 20W power supply. What version of Power over Ethernet (PoE) must the switch support to fulfill this requirement? (Select all that apply.)

A

PoE+ (802.3at)

PoE++/4PPoE (802.3bt)

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24
Q

The standards compatibility for a Wi-Fi network that will also be supporting most employees with mobile devices plans to use 802.11b/g/n to support its clients. Which GHz band is the best to use to support clients? (Select all that apply.)

A

Wi-Fi 6 to work with the 2.4 GHz band

Wi-Fi 6 working with a dual band adapter using both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands

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25
Q

Wi-Fi 5 is designed to work in which band(s)?

A

5GHz

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26
Q

During a meeting, the network supervisor argued that they should use a 5 GHz band in their new open-plan office setting, but the owner heard that the 2.4 GHz band is the one to use since it has a shorter range. Who is right and why? (Select all that apply.)

A

The supervisor is correct. A 2.4 GHz network does not have enough space for separate networks.

The supervisor is correct. A 5 GHz band power’s regulations and DFS prevents signals from interfering.

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27
Q

The network supervisor plans to predominantly use the 5 GHz band for an open plan office network. However, the business owner has heard that this has a shorter range and thinks the network supervisor should use the 2.4 GHz band. Why should the 5 GHz band be preferred over the 2.4 GHz band in this case? (Select all that apply.)

A

On a 2.4 GHz network, there is not enough space for separate networks.

The chances of overlap are high on a 2.4 GHz band, increasing the risk of interference from other products.

Regulations on power and dynamic frequency selection (DFS) prevent signals from interfering with other nearby installations in a 5 GHz band.

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28
Q

What is the difference between licensed and unlicensed when using wireless technology to configure a bridge between two networks? (Select all that apply.)

A

Licensed means the operator purchased exclusive rights to a band in a given location.

Unlicensed means the operator uses a public frequency that anyone can use.

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28
Q

Suppose a network specialist establishes a fixed long-range wireless device to configure a bridge between two networks and wants to use a specific frequency. What would be the best way for the operator to ensure signal quality?

A

Obtain a license to purchase exclusive rights to the frequency within a geographical area from the FCC.

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29
Q

Some products are known to use the combined throughput of all radios. For example, the AX6000 claims nominal rates of 1,148 Mbps on the 2.4 GHz radio and 4,804 Mbps over 5 GHz. This type is an example of what?

A

A device for Wi-Fi 6 that can operate on both bands

A 2.4 GHz band allows legacy connections with WPA2-Personal security, while the 5 GHz network is for 802.11ax or Wi-Fi 6-capable devices using WPA3-SAE authentication.

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30
Q

The network operator is trying to minimize the potential for conflicts in an unlicensed power output but knows regulatory requirements limit them. Gain measures a wireless signal’s power. What is gain, and how is it measured?

A

Gain is the amount of boost that occurs in a focused antenna signal, measured in dBi.

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31
Q

The network specialist sets up a long-range fixed wireless installation and operates on a public frequency without a license. Is this legal?

A

Yes. Installations may use an unlicensed spectrum but cannot exceed the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) defined from regulations.

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32
Q

Unlicensed spectrum refers to the operator using a public frequency band, such as 900 MHz or which band(s)?

A

Both 2.4 and 5 GHz

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33
Q

Web servers provide clients access using HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) or its secure version (HTTPS). Which ports do the clients use to connect to HTTP or HTTPS servers? (Select all that apply.)

A

TCP port: 80
TCP port: 443

34
Q

Appliances do not have to store any credentials to authenticate clients within the network. Where are these credentials held so that the network can authenticate clients as they connect if the appliances are just acting as a transit point?

A

AAA server

An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server consolidates authentication services across multiple access devices containing directory information.

35
Q

Vulnerability issues do not just affect PC operating systems and applications in enterprise networks. Any device or network appliance can be vulnerable to exploits from within and outside the network. With the rise of more personalized devices, the risks to embedded systems have become more evident. Which devices are considered a new and growing problem regarding these proposed risks? (Select all that apply.)

A

Internet of Things (IoT)

Mobile devices

Any unpatched device

36
Q

To enable printer sharing via Windows, what should the print device connect to on the Windows PC?

A

To the print server via the Ethernet or on a Wi-Fi link, Bluetooth, USB, or other share service

37
Q

While advising a company on configuring systems to provide better information about network device status, why would a network administrator recommend using both Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and syslog?

A

Syslog and SNMP can be used to centralize logs and network appliance status information.

38
Q

A host configured with a private address cannot access the internet directly; therefore, a router uses a Network Address Translation (NAT) to convert the private and public addresses through what?

A

Proxy server

38
Q

A network technician is responsible for a network with multiple servers that provide the same function. What solution could manage client requests across the servers to provide quick service to client requests?

A

Load balancers

39
Q

The system administrator recommends that a small business owner replace separate appliances with a UTM. What is the principal advantage of doing this? (Select all that apply.)

A

To consolidate configuration, monitoring, and reporting multiple security functions to a single console or dashboard

To provide additional functionality to security protocols not currently available together, such as intrusion detection, spam filtering, and data loss prevention

40
Q

An administrator is troubleshooting a control server, typically run as software on ordinary computers in a large-scale, multiple-site Internet Control System (ICS). What system is the administrator troubleshooting?

A

Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA)

SCADA systems typically run as software on ordinary computers, gather data, and manage plant devices with embedded systems that take the place of a control server in large-scale, multiple-site ICSs.

41
Q

A SCADA system takes the place of what device in a large-scale, multiple-site ICS?

A

Control server

A supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system takes the place of a control server or programmable logic controller (PLC) in large-scale, multiple-site incident command systems (ICSs).

42
Q

A type of server takes a complete HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to the destination server on the internet. This server checks the reply and then shuttles it back to the local area network (LAN) computer when the reply comes back. What type of server does not just translate IP addresses?

A

Proxy server

43
Q

A technician troubleshoots the authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) system that consolidates service across multiple devices. What component is responsible for requesting access?

A

The supplicant

44
Q

The organization’s enterprise network, connected to the internet, requires protection against malicious threats. What purpose-built internet security appliance centralizes and simplifies configuration and reporting?

A

UTM

A unified threat management (UTM) appliance combines the work of multiple security functions, centralizing the threat management service. It provides simpler configuration and centralized reporting.

45
Q

A network technician plans a simplified network addressing scheme that autoconfigures Internet Protocol (IP). What mechanism(s) will the technician implement? (Select all that apply.)

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

Domain name service (DNS)

46
Q

What method of network addressing provides automatic address allocation, is less prone to errors, and requires less administration time?

A

Dynamic addressing

47
Q

An IT helpdesk technician has received a service call for a small home office worker experiencing network connectivity issues. The IPv4 network host can communicate with other local hosts but fails to reach the internet. What should the technician check?

A

The default gateway

48
Q

Suppose the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service fails in a Windows network. What will Windows network machines default to that will allow them to communicate with other hosts on the same network?

A

Automatic private IP addressing (APIPA)

49
Q

IPv6, designed to replace IPv4, has proven challenging to implement in transition. Hosts and routers that can operate on IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously are called what?

A

Dual stack

50
Q

In IPv6, it is possible to configure addresses statically. However, most hosts obtain their global and link-local addresses from the local router. In IPv6, the network and host portions are a fixed size. What part of this IPv6 IP address is the network ID 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0abc:0000:def0:1234?

A

2001:0db8:0000:0000

In an IPv6 address, the first 64 bits are the network ID, while the second 64 bits are the Interface ID.

51
Q

A class B IPv4 host configured with a private IP address will use what mechanisms to facilitate access to the internet? (Select all that apply.)

A

Network address translation (NAT)

Proxy device

52
Q

Why would hosts NOT need to be configured with a default gateway in an IPv6 implementation with Stateless Address Auto Configuration (SLAAC)?

A

ND allows hosts to discover a router and perform interface address querying functions.

53
Q

To communicate on the internet, a network administrator must configure hosts with what type of unique IP address?

A

Public IP address

A network administrator must configure a host with a unique public IP address to communicate on the internet. Public IP addresses are allocated to customer networks by internet service providers (ISPs).

54
Q

An IPv6 address is 128-bits, divided into two main parts. The first 64 bits and the second 64 bits are known as what?

A

Network ID, Interface ID

55
Q

What type of network connection protocol tunnels traffic to provide a secure connection utilizing encryption and authentication technology?

A

Virtual private network (VPN)

Virtual private networks (VPNs) use a tunnel to navigate traffic for the same private network over an untrusted network, typically the internet, using encryption and authentication to protect from unauthorized access.

56
Q

A virtual LAN (VLAN) can improve security by monitoring and filtering network traffic. What is another benefit of implementing a VLAN?

A

Reduction in excessive network traffic

A VLAN will improve security and reduce excessive broadcast traffic by dividing large networks into multiple segments.

57
Q

An organization has tasked a system administrator with installing a spam gateway to verify the authenticity of mail servers and filter spoofed and malicious messages. What framework utilizes either the Sender Policy Framework (SPF), the DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM), or both to specify a robust mechanism for authentication failures?

A

Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC)

58
Q

When planning to set up a virtual LAN (VLAN), the network administrator must prepare for each VLAN, configuring them with their own what? (Select all that apply.)

A

Subnet address

IP address range

Hosts placed in separate VLANs can no longer communicate directly, requiring the configuration of each VLAN with its own subnet address and IP address range.

59
Q

A network technician is responsible for an extensive enterprise network. The network has hundreds of hosts on the same broadcast domain, reducing performance. The technician needs to find a solution to improve security and mitigate excessive broadcast traffic. What is the solution?

A

Virtual LAN (VLAN)

Placing hundreds of hosts in the same broadcast domain reduces performance. Dividing switch ports into managed groups called virtual LANs (VLANs) will mitigate performance issues.

60
Q

DNS resource records allow name servers to resolve queries for names and services hosted in the domain. In an IPv4 network, what record type maps IPv4 to host names?

A

A

In an IPv4 network, the A record maps host names to IPv4 addresses. A DNS server that is responsible for managing a zone will contain numerous resource records, such as A, AAAA, CNAME, and MX records.

61
Q

When reviewing the mail exchange (MX) record for IPv4 and IPv6, the host names identified in an MX record must have what other type of record associated with them? (Select all that apply.)

A

A

AAAA

62
Q

The Domain-based Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework utilizes the Sender Policy Framework (SPF) or the DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM), or both, to provide what?

A

A more robust policy mechanism for senders

63
Q

What do Sender Policy Framework (SPF), DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM), and Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) provide for a domain?

A

Spam management

64
Q

Records used to identify an email server for the domain so that other servers can send messages to it are what type of record?

A

Mail exchange (MX)

65
Q

What type of TXT record uses cryptography to validate the source server of a given email to help recipient servers reject spoofed messages and spam?

A

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

66
Q

Some network infrastructure components, such as servers, routers, and printers, can be easier to manage when their IP addresses are known. While static addressing is an option, managing it can sometimes be challenging. Outside of static addressing, what option will allow hosts to use the same IP address configurations?

A

DHCP reservations

67
Q

There are various flavors of digital subscriber line (DSL) connectivity. What are the most notable types unrelated to the transport medium? (Select all that apply.)

A

Symmetric (SDSL)

Asymmetric (ADSL)

68
Q

Networks are a group of computers connected through copper and fiber cabling. More recently, wireless data transfer has increased with the availability of satellite internet, extending networks more rapidly. The internet is an example of what type of network?

A

Wide area network (WAN)

69
Q

A system administrator is troubleshooting the company’s only IEEE 802.11 network. What mode are most client devices configured to connect to the network via an access point (AP)?

A

Infrastructure

70
Q

Isolated from the main network and only accessible by servers running databases or applications, what shared pool of drives offers greater flexibility and reliability than using local disks on the individual server machine?

A

Storage area network (SAN)

71
Q

An organization has tasked a network administrator with establishing a means of communicating with the new Internet of Things (IoT) smart meters. These IoT devices cover a large area with a limited line of sight. What would be the best solution for the network administrator to implement?

A

Cellular

72
Q

Often described as a hybrid fiber coax (HFC) broadband connection, what type of service combines a fiber optic core network with copper coaxial links to the customer premises?

A

Cable

73
Q

What is a drawback of high geostationary orbit satellite internet access that is NOT a drawback of cellular service?

A

Increased latency

Satellites placed in a high geostationary orbit will see increased laten

74
Q

Wireless communication utilizes air as its data transfer medium. When communicating with electrical signals or pulses of light, what standard do cable-based copper and fiber local area networks (LANs) use?

A

IEEE 802.3

75
Q

A loopback plug is a simple tool that a technician could quickly build using a scrap cable and a connector, enabling an administrator to create a looped data signal. Why would a network technician want to use a loopback plug?

A

To test network interface cards (NICs)

76
Q

While a toner probe sends a signal through a wire bundle to identify a cable and may come as part of a cable tester, what ability would the cable tester provide the user?

A

To test patch cords

77
Q

A system administrator has an 802.3 compliant network interface card (NIC) that needs testing. What could best enable the system administrator to test this NIC, including the switch port?

A

Loopback plug

A loopback plug can test network interface cards (NIC) or switch ports. The administrator can create a loopback plug from a six-inch cable stub, where the wires connect pin one to pin three and pin two to pin six.

78
Q

While validating the Ethernet network efficiency, the network administrator finds many lost or damaged frames. What tool does the network administrator use to identify the dropped or damaged frames?

A

Network tap

In powered and unpowered versions, network taps intercept 802.3 signals passing over a cable and send them to a packet or protocol analyzer for later identification and inspection.

79
Q

A network installer has recently built and terminated several patch cables. It would be wise to test them to ensure that each wire makes good electrical contact and is in the correct pin position. The installer should correct any errors before installation to save time when onsite. What tool would validate proper assembly to ensure the patch cables operate correctly?

A

Cable tester

80
Q

When the network installers install permanent cable, what tool will terminate wall ports and patch panels using insulation displacement connectors (IDCs)?

A

Punchdown tool

Punchdown tools press individual RJ45 wires into insulation displacement connectors (IDCs). Blades in the terminal cut through the insulation, making electrical contact with the wire.

81
Q

An access point (AP) is configured as a bridge to forward communications between new wireless clients and the existing wired network. The network security technician needs to ensure no unauthorized APs are in the vicinity. What tool could the technician use to validate that no other APs are in the area?

A

Wi-Fi analyzer

Wi-Fi analyzers measure the wireless signal strength to determine the best wireless channel layout, collect network statistics, troubleshoot the network’s performance, and detect other access points in the vicinity.

82
Q

A system administrator has a patch cable with a broken RJ45 jack. The administrator has no replacement patch cords but has an extra RJ45 jack and the tools to repair the patch cord. After cutting the broken jack and removing the outer jacket, what instrument would affix the jack to the cable?

A

Crimper

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