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Systemic Pathology 2 > Nervous System- Sys Path 2 > Flashcards

Nervous System- Sys Path 2 Flashcards

1
Q

the main neural progenitors are located in the
___________ _________ during development; reduced to
less than 1% at birth

A

neural tube

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2
Q

true/false: neuronal numbers are highly regulated
during development by stem cell proliferation and
controlled apoptosis

A

True

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3
Q

stem cells remain near the ____________ and replace
hippocampus and olfactory neurons of adult
mammals, but these numbers diminish with age

A

Ventricles

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4
Q

transport type of axons where materials travel away
from the cell body at about 400mm/day

A

fast orthograde transport

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5
Q

transport type of axons where materials travel
towards the cell body at 100-400mm/day

A

Retrograde transport

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6
Q

transport type of axons where materials travel away
from the cell body at 4mm/day

A

slow orthograde transport

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7
Q

oligodendrocytes produce myelin in the
(CNS/PNS )

A

CNS

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8
Q

schwann cells produce myelin in the (CNS/PNS )

A

PNS

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9
Q

regulate the microenvironment around synapses;
makes glutamine and participates in GABA uptake job within the CNS is to detoxify, aid/hinder axon
growth, form scar-like support after an injury, and
form networks to support neurons

A

Astrocytes

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10
Q

include the dura mater and subarachnoid

A

Pachymenix

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11
Q

includes the arachnoid and pia mater

A

Leptomeninges

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12
Q

The ______ ______ has tight junctions and fenestrated capillaries, CSF turned over 4-12x daily

A

choroid plexus

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13
Q

_____ _______ can contribute up to 59% of exiting CSF in dogs

A

interstitial fluid

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14
Q

_______ reduces the effective brain weight of humans and mammals

A

CSF

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15
Q

Simple ciliated epithelium with gap junctions that line the brain ventricles

A

ependyma

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16
Q

made up of non-fenestrated endothelium and astrocytic foot processes with an aquaporin channel

A

blood brain barrier

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17
Q

the lymphatic system equivalent in the CNS, most effective during sleep

A

glymphatic system

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18
Q

CSF moves along the peri-
arterial spaces > through the
brain parenchyma > exits as
interstitial fluid (ISF) along the
peri-venous space to the
cervical lymph system

A

glymphatic flow

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19
Q
A
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20
Q

extensions of the arachnoid mater that allow excess CSF to be absorbed

A

arachnoid granulations

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21
Q

the ______ are populated by lymphocytes and APCs that respond to local inflammation

A

meninges

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22
Q

T/F: All animals have arachnoid granulations

A

false

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22
Q

________ provide a niche for development of immature B cells that migrate from the skull basement membrane through micro channels

A

meninges

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23
Q

cells in the ___-___ ___ often end up in the CSF

A

Virchow-robin space

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24
Q

the lymphatic vasculature along the _____ sinuses connects the brain’s lymph to cervical LN

A

sagittal

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25
Q

CSF that is absorbed through the arachnoid granulations is channeled into _____ _____

A

dural veins

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26
Q

cells that have roles in synaptic pruning and axonal guidance, phagocytosis of apoptotic debris, and reduction of proinflammatory cytokines

A

microglial cells

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27
Q

The processes of these cells are actively surveilling the interstitial microenvironment

A

microglia

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28
Q

Neurons are ____-_____ cells with specific, often irreplaceable functions

A

post-mitotic

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29
Q

mean arterial pressure- intracranial pressure =

A

cranial perfusion pressure

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30
Q

T/F: the soft epithelial nature of the CNS makes it susceptible to injury

A

true

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31
Q

injuries that alter the glymphatic flow will often result in brain _____ or accumulation of toxic products

A

edema

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32
Q

the most severe lesions of therein originate from a defective ____ ____; abnormal closure of early destruction of tissue

A

neural tube

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33
Q

neural tube failure/necrosis; born without all or part of your brain

A

anencephaly

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34
Q

defective cranium formation

A

exencephaly

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35
Q

meninges + brain tissue herniated into a sac outside the cranium

A

meningoencephalocele

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36
Q

herniation of the meninges outside the cranium

A

meningocele

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37
Q

cranial bone closure deformations are often ______ in location in dogs (meningocele)

A

nasal

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38
Q

failure of one or more vertebral arches to close during fetal development

A

spina bifida

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39
Q

hernia of the spinal cord and meninges

A

myelomeningiocele

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40
Q

hernia in which the meninges protrude through an opening in the spinal cord

A

meningocele

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41
Q

most common and least severe form of spinal bifida without protrusion of the spinal cord or meninges

A

spina bifida occulta

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42
Q

neurons and oligodendroglia most often undergo ______ in response to in injuries

A

necrosis

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43
Q

astroglia and microglia undergo _____ in réponse response to injuries

A

hypertrophy

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44
Q

degeneration of a nerve distal to a physical or functional injury; axon and myeline degenerate together

A

wallerian degeneration

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45
Q

cytoskeletal degeneration, dephospho rylation of neurofilaments, and ischemia results in a _______ _______ in wallerian degeneration

A

transport blockade

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46
Q

Yes/No: is demyelination possible with wallerian degeneration?

A

yes

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47
Q

if regeneration is unsuccessful following wallerian degeneration, _______ _______ of the distal nerve and muscle occurs

A

permanent atrophy

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48
Q

the (CNS/PNS) is more likely to regenerate following injury

A

PNS

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49
Q

axonal regeneration depends on how well the proximal and distal ends of the damaged nerves are ________

A

aligned

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50
Q

T/F: an injury too close to the cell body of a neuron will likely not regenerate

A

true

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51
Q

Type of wallerian degeneration where trauma driving a thoracic limb caudally pulls the spinal nerves from the spinal cord

A

brach plexus avulsion

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52
Q

occurs mostly in older dogs around the cervical region; outer annulus fibrosis from vertebral disk protrudes chronically into the spinal cord

A

intervertebral disc disease type II

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53
Q

occurs with chondrodystrophic dogs around throacoumbar junction; nucleus pulpous extrudes through the annulus fibrosis to compress the spinal cord

A

intervertebral disc disease type I

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54
Q

most wallerian degeneration affects primarily _____ ______ within the spinal cord via the ischemia mechanism

A

ventral funiculi

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55
Q

T/F: spinal cord compression has to be very severe to affect the grey matter

A

true

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56
Q

With wallerian degeneration of the spinal cord, typically (ventral/dorsal) white tracts will degenerate the most severely when caudal to the site of the injury

A

ventral

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57
Q

With wallerian degeneration of the spinal cord, typically (ventral/dorsal) white tracts will degenerate the most severely when cranial to the site of the injury

A

dorsal

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58
Q

Lesions of the spinal cord caused by ischemia… occurs caudal and cranial to the site of injury

A

watershed lesions

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59
Q

vertebral instabilities in dogs and ______ is another cause of wallerian degeneration

A

horses

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60
Q

damage to fast orthograde transport will cause:

A. wallerian degeneration
B. proximal axonopathy
C. distal axonopathy

A

A.

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61
Q

damage to slow orthograde transport will cause:

A. wallerian degeneration
B. proximal axonopathy
C. distal axonopathy

A

B.

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62
Q

damage to retrograde transport will cause:

A. wallerian degeneration
B. proximal axonopathy
C. distal axonopathy

A

C.

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63
Q

progressive neurologic disorder of horses characterized by diffuse degeneration of axons, myelin, and neurons in the spinal cord and to lesser degrees of the brain stem

A

equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy

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64
Q

disorder in horses that is characterized by abnormal inspiratory noise during exercise associated with degeneration of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve and atrophy of the laryngeal muscles

A

equine laryngeal hemiplegia

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65
Q

______ _____ can be left by DNA and RNA viruses in the nucleus and cytoplasm respectively in some neuropathies

A

viral incluions

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66
Q

accumulation of insoluble products of proteosomal degradation within neurons results in ____ ______

A

cell death

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67
Q

what color = dead when it comes to microscopic lethal injury to neurons?

A

red

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68
Q

process that occurs when there is an acute, lethal injury to a neuron

A

necrosis

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69
Q

neuronal necrosis in the brain results in neuronal loss microscopically, but grossly, the result is brain ______

A

atrophy

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70
Q

excitatory neurons will die after an ischemic event due to increased ______ release with astrocytes being unable to detoxify the neurotransmitter and ion pumps releasing calcium into the cytoplasm (after dendrites take up excess of this)

A

glutamate

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71
Q

premature degeneration of purkinje cell layer of cerebellar cortex

A

cerebellar abiotrophy

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72
Q

degeneration of myelin without axonal degeneration; longest fibers most severely affected

A

demyelination

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73
Q

demyelination gross lesions are shown as _______ of the white matter

A

discoloration

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74
Q

some causes of ______ are oligodendrocyte death, autoimmune disease, and chemical damage to the myeline sheath

A

demyelination

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75
Q

inflammatory demyelination of ventral roots of PNS and CNS nerves; cause is thought to be a campylobacter infection

A

coonhound paralysis

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76
Q

abnormal increase in the number of astrocytes due to the destruction of nearby neurons

A

astrogliosis

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77
Q

an _____ _____ is partly derived from stem cells and from division of mature astrocytes

A

astroglial scar

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78
Q

presence of microglia in nervous tissue secondary to injury

A

microgliosis

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79
Q

________ develop activated phenotypes and, with cell damage, become macrophages after being stimulated by cytokines

A

microglia

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80
Q

referes to microglial cells that become phagocytic/active because of increased CNS damage

A

gitter cells

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81
Q

defective formation of the spinal cord; tissue is disorganized

A

myelodysplasia

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82
Q

congenital absence of the cerebral hemispheres caused by occlusion of the carotid arteries (ischemia); fluid replaces cerebral tissue

A

hydraencephaly

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83
Q

cavity in the brain, usually the result of a destructive lesion

A

porencephaly

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84
Q

condition characterized by abnormal openings or clefts in the cerebral hemispheres

A

schizencephaly

85
Q

smaller than normal cerebellum often caused by a late gestational oral infection; usually granular layer degenerates

A

cerebellar hypoplasia

86
Q

progressively increased lysosomal enzyme substrate due to defective enzymes or cofactors

A

lysosomal storage disease

87
Q

gangliosidosis and lipfuscinosis are ____ _____ diseases caused by accumulation of lysosomal enzyme substrate due to defective enzymes or cofactors

A

lysosomal storage

88
Q

when the entire brain becomes necrotic, the process is called pan-necrosis or ____; tissue becomes liquified

A

malacia

89
Q

increasing brain volume (due to edema) within a closed space increases ______ ______

A

intracranial pressure

90
Q

brain edema arises from _____-_____ of tissue; only contain 5% wiggle room

A

over hydration

91
Q

the (right/left) side of this diagram displays brain edema

A

right

92
Q

______ of brain tissue through openings of the skull can occur if edema exceeds the capacity for the cranium

A

herniation

93
Q

herniation of the brain tissue through what structure of the cranium is the most severe?

A

foramen magnum

94
Q

on a microscopic level, edema of the brain results in a ______ change that looks like irregular, loose vacuoles in the parenchyma

A

spongiform

95
Q

edema arising from endothelial damage to blood-brain barrier vessels; water, proteins, and electrolytes enter the parenchyma

A

vasogenic edema

96
Q

edema caused by intoxication of cell membrane ion pumps; intracellular water accumulation and swelling

A

cytotoxic edema

97
Q

an example of primary cytotoxic edema where toxins from the GIT are not metabolized by the liver; causes mitochondrial swelling

A

hepatoencephalopathy

98
Q

ventricular obstruction and or blocked CSF absorption forces CSF between ependymal cells and into brain interstitial; tissue takes up fluid from the ventricle = hydrocephalus

A

transependymal edema

99
Q

ventricular expansion without increased CSF pressure

A

hydrocephalus ex vacuo

100
Q

T/F: death occurs quickly in hydrocephalus patients whose brain sutures are already closed

A

true

101
Q

an acquired tumor or congenital ependymal damage can cause

A

hydrocephalus

102
Q

_______ of the nervous system reflects severe metabolic upset; loss of all types of nervous cells

A

malacia

103
Q

Malacia disorders starting with the prefix ______ only affect the gray matter

A

polio

104
Q

Malacia disorders starting with the prefix _____ only affect the white matter

A

Leuko

105
Q

T/F: There can be resolution of malaria, but often there is gross cavitations or astroglial scars

A

true

106
Q

can be caused by a fumonisin toxicity in horses; moldy corn poisoning

A

leukoencephalomalacia

107
Q

Thiamine-responsive polioencephalomalacia in ruminants destroys the _____ matter of the brain

A

gray

108
Q

Injury to the brain caused by blunt trauma; can cause permanent damage and death

A

concussion

109
Q

Hemorrhages on the surface of the brain; can occur without cranial fractures

A

contusions

110
Q

Physical disruption of the brain tissue; often associated with penetrating or crushing injury

A

lacerations

111
Q

T/F: Concussions are much more common in animals than people

A

false

112
Q

Concussions characterized by transient unresponsiveness

A

mild concussion

113
Q

concussions where there is a loss of consciousness for 6 hours or less

A

classical concussion

114
Q

concussion where there is diffuse axonal injury and can be acutely lethal

A

severe concussion

115
Q

a contusion formed on the opposite side of the skull trauma site

A

contre coup lesion

116
Q

a contusion formed on the same side of the head in which trauma occurs

A

coup lesion

117
Q

damage with gunshot wounds to the brain is ________ to the amount of energy released in the tissue

A

proportional

118
Q

_______ can be extradural, subdural, or parenchymal; occurs with bleeding disorders and trauma

A

hematoma

119
Q

impaired global perfusion due to increased intracranial pressure

A

thromboembolic vascular disease

120
Q

The most common cause of thromboembolic vascular disease

A

endocarditis

121
Q

The _____ of the brain infant depends on the size and type of the vessel blocked, the number of arteries involved, and extent of obstruction

A

severity

122
Q

necrosis of the gray matter in the spinal cord; commonly caused by intervertebral disk material/emboli

A

poliomyelomalacia

123
Q

bacteria that causes thromboembolic meningiocephalitis (TEM); bacterial growth causes immune mediated vasculitis

A

histophilus somni

124
Q

Viral infections of the endothelium can cause _____ in the brain

A

vasculitis

125
Q

Metastatic brain tumors of _______ origin is the most common

A

embolic

126
Q

Probability of the brain tumor metastasis is proportional to the _______ of the anatomical region

A

mass

127
Q

Leukocyte tumors may look like ______ in the brain

A

inflammation

128
Q

Brain tumors arising in and on the brain from local tissue

A

primary brain tumors

129
Q

T/F: Primary brain tumors rarely metastasize outside the CNS

A

true

130
Q

Some types of primary brain tumors can implant along pathways of _____ flow

A

CSF

131
Q

The most common primary tumor in dogs and cats

A

meningioma

132
Q

T/F: Surgery is often not possible for meningiomas

A

false

133
Q

Meningiomas that are invasive are considered to be ______

A

malignant

134
Q

______ ______ is predictive of malignancy with brain tumors

A

mitotic index

135
Q

the most common parenchymal (intramedullary) brain tumor; usually centered in white matter

A

oligodendroglioma

136
Q

T/F: Oligodendrogliomas usually produce excess myelin

A

false

137
Q

The second most common parenchymal neoplasm

A

astrocytoma

138
Q

________ are firmer, poorly defined tumors that are usually well differentiated

A

astrocytomas

139
Q

Crumbly, soft periventricular masses; usually implant along CSF pathways

A

periventricular neoplasia

140
Q

Tumors of Schwann cells and related cells; contained within the nerve sheath, but expand

A

peripheral nerve sheath tumors

141
Q

expands and infiltrated pre-existing peripheral nerves

A

neurofibroma

142
Q

tumor of the cranial nerve roots

A

schwanoma

143
Q

malignancy of peripheral nerve sheath tumors relate to spinal cord _______ through they can also metastasize distantly

A

invasion

144
Q

(Benign/Malignant) tumors grow rapidly in size, are anapestic, and have a high mitotic rate

A

malignant

145
Q

(Benign/Malignant) tumors are not likely to invade the parenchyma or implant

A

benign

146
Q

(T/F): most infections produce inflammation, but not all inflammation arises from infection

A

true

147
Q

inflammation of the brain

A

encephalitis

148
Q

inflammation of the spinal cord

A

myelitis

149
Q

inflammation of the dura mater

A

pachymeningitis

150
Q

inflammation of the Pia mater and the arachnoid layers

A

leptomeninges

151
Q

The cerebral and meningeal vessels are the most common entryways for _____ into the brain

A

bacteria

152
Q

_____ of bacterial etiologies directly relates to where infections localize in the brain

A

size

153
Q

the (smallest/intermediate/large) infectious agents tend to cause choroiditis and leptomeningitis

A

smallest (<10 um; bacteria and yeasts)

154
Q

the (smallest/intermediate/large) infectious agents tend to cause encephalitis and microabscesses

A

intermediate (bacterial emboli, pseudohyphae)

155
Q

the (smallest/intermediate/large) infectious agents tend to cause septic infarcts and brain abscesses

A

large (fungal hyphae, metazoans, large emboli)

156
Q

Gram (-/+) bacteria cause more rapidly progressive, more lethal meningitis

A

negative

157
Q

bacteria that infect the leptomeninges can cause pathology int he brain which is referred to as ______ ______

A

supportive leptomenigitis

158
Q

_______ _______ due to bacteria is the most readily visible, diffuse inflammatory lesion (LPS > iNOS > cell death)

A

supportive meningitis

159
Q

in nearly all cases of bacterial meningitis, microscopic inflammation stops at the _____ ______

A

pia mater

160
Q

occurs when tiny foci of inflammation coalesce over time to form a brain abscess; often follows a microembolic shower

A

supportive encephalitis

161
Q

characterized by internal micro-abscesses and external lymphocytic meningitis; lesions are localized to the brainstem

A

listeriosis

162
Q

most common and most dangerous type of CNS abscess

A

brain abscess

163
Q

localized pus in the subdural space between the dura and arachnoid

A

empyema

164
Q

true/false: antibiotic treatment for a long period of time resolves brain abscesses

A

false

165
Q

______________ in the brain are a common result on un-treated ear infections

A

empyemas

166
Q

fibrous tissue in the meninges that lead to encapsulation….otherwise known as?

A

meningeal abscess

167
Q

location of viral infection lesions can be ______________ to gray or white matter separately

A

restricted

168
Q

acute, overwhelming _________ infections cause a high viral load, cell death, and cellular inclusions

A

viral

169
Q

DNA viruses usually cause (cytoplasmic/intranuclear) inclusions

A

intranuclear

170
Q

RNA viruses usually cause (cytoplasmic/intranuclear) inclusions

A

cytoplasmic

171
Q

chronic viral infections cause (less/more) viral load and more cell death and inflammation

A

less

172
Q

viruses cause (suppurative/non-suppurative) inflammation

A

non

173
Q

with ________________ viruses, we will observe neuronal necrosis and cell inclusions with lymphocytic inflammation

A

neuronotropic

174
Q

with viral replication occurring in the (white/gray) matter, we will see demyelination and oligodendrocyte loss

A

white

175
Q

with viral infections in the CNS, which is possible?
A. cell death
B. luxury function intereference
C. cytokine disregulation
D. subclinical infection
E. all of the above

A

E

176
Q

endotheliotropic organisms cause disease by vascular damage (i.e. ___________); examples are FIP, Rickettsia, and Ehrlichia

A

ischemia

177
Q

__________ disease can be inherited or idiopathic; either way, there is no inflammation associated with disease

A

prion

178
Q

inherited forms of prion disease result from germ-line mutations of cellular ______ gene

A

PrP

179
Q

prion disease results in accumulation of _____________ that is insoluble; can be transmissible

A

amyloid

180
Q

prion disease spreads between ___________; ultimately it depends on the similarity between cellular PrP of the donor and recipient species

A

species

181
Q

prion disease in sheep and goats that is characterized by cerebellar ataxia and wool-loss

A

scrapie

182
Q

all prion diseases have characteristic intra-neuronal __________ and gliosis with no inflammation present

A

vacuoles

183
Q

infected sheep produce large amounts of prion in their placentas if their lamb has a susceptible _______ genotype; infection of lambs occurs through placental/vaginal fluids at birth

A

QQ

184
Q

prion disease of deer and elk; the environment where the affected deer die remains infectious for other animals

A

CWD

185
Q

__________ tissue is usually infected with CWD in deer and elk prion disease (placenta less important than in sheep)

A

lymphoid

186
Q

yes/no: is CWD in deer and elk zoonotic to people?

A

no

187
Q

most prion diseases have some degree of ____________ formation which is thought to be the basis of their infectious nature

A

amyloid

188
Q

fungal infections of the brain that lead to leptomeningitis, encephalitis, and infarcts

A

mycoses

189
Q

highly pathogenic protozoa often cause ________________ within animals; causes severe inflammation (e.g. sarcocystis neurona in horses)

A

encephalomyelitis

190
Q

organisms that cause granulomatous leptomeningitis or encephalitis; causes mild inflammation

A

cryptococcus

191
Q

opportunistic fungi have tissue ___________ that cause parenchymal infarcts

A

hyphae

192
Q

nematode larvae, cestode cysts, and cuterebra are all examples of ____________ infections that can cause big problems within the CNS

A

metazoan

193
Q

immune mediated inflammation of the brain, meninges, and spinal cord; non-infectious and usually seen more in dogs

A

granulomatous meningoencephalitis

194
Q

abnormal softening of the white matter of the brain; seen in horses with fumonisin intoxication from eating moldy corn

A

leukoencephalomalacia

195
Q

chronic lesion secondary to brain swelling and inhibited blood flow; can be caused by an anesthetic accident

A

laminar polioencephalomalacia

196
Q

a common injury associated with a horse “flipping over” that can cause blood and/or CSF to leak from the ear

A

basisphenoid fracture

197
Q

collection of blood under the dura mater

A

subdural hematoma

198
Q

how long (at least) does it take neurons to show signs of necrosis?

A

24 h

199
Q

tumor composed of blood vessels; if hemorraged, can occupy extra space in the brain and cause increased intracranial pressure

A

angioma

200
Q

common result of neonatal bacteremia in foals; can also be caused by an extension of an ear infection (e.g. with streptococcus)

A

localized meningitis

201
Q

these gelatinous, multifocal lesions caused by cryptococcus fungi are called _________________

A

cryptococcomas

202
Q

(dogs/cats) have a more inflammatory reaction to the presence of cryptococcus fungi in the brain?

A

dogs

203
Q

cryptococcus neoformans typically infects ______________ patients

A

immunosuppressed

204
Q

cryptococcus gattii is capable of infecting quite ______________ hosts

A

immunocompentant

205
Q

hyphal fungal organisms frequently block blood vessels and produce septic ______________

A

infarts

206
Q

most common brain neoplasm encountered by practitioners; presence of multiple, similar, well-defined masses in the periphery of the brain

A

metastatic neoplasia

207
Q

true/false: metastases do not have be present in the CNS to cause neurological signs

A

true

208
Q

this mass outside the CNS that is elevating and compressing the spinal cord can cause ___________ clinical signs

A

neurological

209
Q

meningiomas can be operable if present on the (dorsal/ventral) aspect of the brain

A

dorsal

210
Q

it is characteristic of __________________ that you cannot easily distinguish the edges of the tumor

A

astrocytomas

211
Q

hydranencephaly and porencephaly result from ____ ________ necrosis (mid-gestation)

A

in utero

Systemic Pathology 2 (2 decks)

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