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x2 - Nervous > Nervous anatomy and physiology > Flashcards

Nervous anatomy and physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Tonic labyrinthine reflexes

A

Keep the axis of the head in relationship with the rest of the body

Uses information from maculae and neck proprioceptors

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2
Q

Dynamic righting reflexes

A

Stop you falling when you trip

Most profound in cats

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3
Q

Static reflex

A

When you tilt your head, the eyes intort/ extort to compensate

A vestibulo-occular reflex

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4
Q

In the PNS, the myelin sheath is formed by…

A

Schwann cells

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5
Q

In the CNS, the myelin sheath is formed by…

A

Oligodendrocytes

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6
Q

Collections of neuronal cell bodies, buried within the white matter of the brain are called…

A

Basal ganglia

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7
Q

The collection of white matter tracts through which the hemispheres communicate with each other is called…

A

Corpus callosum

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8
Q

Internal lobe, between the frontal and temporal lobes is called…

A

The insula

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9
Q 
Area 4
(function and location)
A

Primary motor cortex: motor homunculus

precentral gyrus

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10
Q

Area 44, 45

function and location

A

Broca’s area of motor speech

inferior frontal gyrus

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11
Q

Area controlling cognitive functions of higher order-intellect, judgement, prediction, planning

A

Prefrontal cortex

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12
Q

Areas 3, 1, 2

function and location

A

Primary sensory area: sensory homunculus

post central gyrus

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13
Q

Area of the brain responsible for interpretation of general sensory info and conscious awareness of opposite half of body

A

Superior parietal lobule

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14
Q

Area of the brain which is the interface between somatosensory cortex and visual + auditory association areas

A

Inferior parietal lobule/ global association area

*In dominant hemisphere, contributes to language functions

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15
Q

Areas 41, 42

A

Primary auditory cortex

superior temporal gyrus

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16
Q

Location of the auditory association area

A

Posterior to areas 41, 42

In the dominant hemisphere the auditory association area is Wernicke’s area

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17
Q

Area of the brain responsible for the conscious appreciation of smell

A

Inferior surface of the temporal lobe

Receives fibres from the olfactory tract

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18
Q 
Area 17
(function and location)
A

Primary visual cortex

medial surface of the occipital lobe, either side of the calcarine sulcus

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19
Q

Area of the brain involved in memory and the emotional aspects of behaviour

A

Limbic lobe (a functional area)

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20
Q

Contents of the limbic lobe

A

Cingulate gyrus
Hippocampus
Hypothalamus
Amygdala

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21
Q

Location of the hippocampus

A

Medial aspect of temporal lobe

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22
Q

Function of Broca’s area

A

Motor speech

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23
Q

Wernicke’s area

function and location

A

The auditory association area in the dominant hemisphere

Necessary for recognition of spoken word

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24
Q

Aphasia

A

Problems with speech due to damage of one or more speech areas in the brain

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25
Q

Myelinated axon fibres connecting corresponding areas of the two hemispheres together are called…

A

Commisural fibres

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26
Q

Myelinated axon fibres connecting one part of the cortex with another are called…

A

Association fibres

may be short or long

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27
Q

Myelinated axon fibres running between the cerebral cortex and various subcortical centres (below), passing through the internal capsule are called…

A

projection fibres

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28
Q

The narrow area between the thalamus and the caudate/lentiform nuclei, made up of projection fibres passing to and from the cerebral cortex

A

The internal capsule

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29
Q

Blood supply of the internal capsule

A

Middle cerebral artery

so is frequently affected in a stroke

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30
Q

Tract carrying motor impulses from cortex to skeletal muscles

A

Corticospinal/ pyramidal

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31
Q

Tract carrying sensory information (other than pain and temperature)

A

Posterior/ dorsal column

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32
Q

Tract carrying pain and temperature sensory information

A

Lateral spinothalamic tract

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33
Q

Fibres of the corticospinal tract synapse…

A

In the ventral horn

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34
Q

The corticospinal tract decussates…

A

At the decussation of the pyramids in the inferior medulla

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35
Q

No. of neurons making up the motor pathway

A

2:
UMN
LMN
(synapse in the ventral horn at the level where they exit)

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36
Q

The posterior/dorsal column decussates…

A

In the medulla

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37
Q

After decussation, the posterior/dorsal column is called…

A

The medial lemniscus

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38
Q

The lateral spinothalamic tract decussates…

A

At the level of entry

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39
Q

For ascending spinal tracts, which order neuron decussates?

A

2nd order neuron

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40
Q

Effect of an UMN lesion on tone…

A

Spasticity

Increased tone

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41
Q

Effect of a LMN lesion on tone…

A

Flaccidity

Decreased tone

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42
Q

Effect of a LMN lesion on reflexes

A

Areflexia

absent reflexes

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43
Q

Effect of an UMN lesion on reflexes

A

Hyper-reflexia

Exaggerated reflexes

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44
Q

EEG

A

ElectroEncephaloGram

Records activity of underlying neurons

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45
Q

Circadian rhythm

A

A biological system showing oscillations of ~24hrs

Demonstrated by the SCN (suprachiasmatic nuclei) of the hypothalamus - the “master clock”

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46
Q

Result of UMN lesion above the decussation

A

Contralateral spastic paralysis and hyperreflexia

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47
Q

Result of UMN lesion below the level of decussation

A

Ipsilateral spastic paralysis and hyperreflexia

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48
Q

Result of LMN lesion

A

Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis and areflexia

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49
Q

Melatonin is released by ……………… stimulated by ……………..

A

Melatonin is released from the pineal gland, stimulated by activity in the SCN (Suprachiasmatic nuclei) of the hypothalamus

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50
Q

Feeling of sleepiness is produced by which hormone?

A

Melatonin

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51
Q

The neurotransmitter required for wakefulness is called…

A

Orexin

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52
Q

On an EEG recording, frequency increases with…

A

Neuronal excitation

E.g.
anaesthesia –> sleep –> awake –> epilepsy

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53
Q

On an EEG recording, amplitude increases with…

A

decreasing neuronal excitation

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54
Q

Cognition definition

A

The integration of all sensory information to make sense of a situation

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55
Q

Function of the hippocampus (in learning and memory)

A

Formation of memories

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56
Q

Function of the cortex (in learning and memory)

A

Storage of memories

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57
Q

Function of the thalamus (in learning and memory)

A

Searches and accesses memories

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58
Q

The limbic system is responsible for what types of behaviour?

A

Instinctive (thirst, hunger, sex etc.)

Emotive (driven by reward/ punishment) - gives emotional significance to events, essential for memory

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59
Q

The ability to hold experiences in the mind for a few seconds. Based on different sensory modalities

A

Immediate/ sensory memory

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60
Q

Type of memory associated with reverberating circuits

A

Short term memory,
Often called working memory

Used for tasks such as dialling a phone number

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61
Q

Type of memory associated with chemical adaptation at the presynaptic terminal

A

Intermediate long-term memory

Used to remember what you did last weekend etc…

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62
Q

Type of memory associated with structural changes in synaptic connections

A

Long-term memory

Used to remember childhood friends etc…

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63
Q

Anterograde amnesia

A

Cannot form new memories

Can be short lived or permanent following an injury

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64
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

Cannot access (more recent) old memories

Occurs if thalamus damaged

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65
Q

Changes in structure in long-term memory

A
  1. increase in number of presynaptic terminals
  2. increase of neurotransmitter release sites
  3. increase of neurotransmitter vesicles stored and released
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66
Q

Types of long term memory

A

Declarative/Explicit: for events, rules and language (relies heavily on hippocampus)

Procedural/Reflexive/Implicit: for acquired motor skills (independent of hippocampus)

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67
Q

Conversion of short-term memories to long-term memories

definition and mechanism

A

Consolidation

Strengthening of synaptic connections through repetition

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68
Q

Which cranial nerves emerge from the pontomedullary junction

A

VI, VII, VIII

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69
Q

Function of the olive

A

Contains the inferior olivary nucleus

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70
Q

What structure does the “open” part of the medulla open onto?
What part of the medulla is this?

A

The 4th ventricle

The posterior, superior medulla

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71
Q

The “closed” part of the medulla is a continuation of what structure?
What part of the medulla is this?

A

The central canal of the spinal cord

The posterior, inferior medulla

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72
Q

Function of the cerebellar peduncles

A

Attach the cerebellum to the brainstem

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73
Q

Attachments of the middle cerebellar peduncle

A

Cerebellum

Pons

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74
Q

The surface projections visible of the surface of the hypothalamus are called…

A

The mammillary bodies

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75
Q

The midline structure connecting the two cerebellar hemispheres is called…

A

The vermis

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76
Q

The ventricular space lying immediately anterior to the cerebellum is the…

A

4th ventricle

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77
Q

The part of the cerebellum above the foramen magnum…

A

The cerebellar tonsil

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78
Q

In a sudden drop in intracranial pressure, the cerebellar tonsils may herniate through the foramen magnum, this is called…

A

Cerebellar coning

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79
Q

The fissure separating the two cerebral hemispheres is called…

A

The medial longitudinal fissure

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80
Q

The structure connecting the two cerebral hemispheres is called the…

A

Corpus callosum

composed of commissural fibres

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81
Q

The fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the cerebral hemispheres is called…

A

Tentorium cerebelli

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82
Q

At what level does the spinal cord terminate in an adult?

A

L1-2

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83
Q

At what level does the spinal cord terminate in a new-born?

A

L2-3

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84
Q

At what vertebral level does the dura mater terminate

A

S2

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85
Q

At what vertebral level does the arachnoid mater terminate?

A

S2

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86
Q

Fate of the pia mater, inferior to the spinal cord…

A

Becomes the filum terminalis

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87
Q

What occupies the space btw the termination of the spinal cord and the dura/arachnoid mater?

A

Conus medularis and cauda equina (spinal nerve roots L2 -Cc1)

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88
Q

Correct vertebral level of a lumbar puncture on an adult

A

Between L3 - 4 (with adult in a foetal position)

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89
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

31

8  cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal
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90
Q

From which arteries do the left and right vertebral arteries arise?

A

Subclavian

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91
Q

Vertebral level of bifurcation of the common carotid artery

A

C3/4

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92
Q

Which part of the brainstem does the basilar artery overlie?

A

Pons

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93
Q

The anterior cerebral artery travels in which fissure of the brain?

A

Great longitudinal fissure

follows the dorsal curvature of the corpus callosum

94
Q

The middle cerebral artery travels within which fissure of the brain?

A

Lateral fissure

95
Q

The posterior cerebral artery travels within which fissure of the brain?

A

Calcarine fissure

96
Q

Blood supply of the primary motor cortex

A 
Mainly middle cerebral artery
Medial aspect (lower limb area) by anterior cerebral artery
97
Q

Blood supply to the primary sensory cortex

A 
Mainly middle cerebral artery
Medial aspect (lower limb area) by anterior cerebral artery
98
Q

Blood supply to primary visual cortex

A

Posterior cerebral artery

99
Q

Blood supply to primary auditory area

A

Middle cerebral artery

100
Q

Blood supply to area for olfaction in the brain

A

Middle cerebral artery

101
Q

Areas of the brain supplied by the anterior cerebral artery

A

Medial surface of frontal and parietal lobes

102
Q

Areas of the brain supplied by the middle cerebral artery

A

Lateral surface of frontal, parietal and temporal lobes

103
Q

Areas of the brain supplied by the posterior cerebral artery

A

Occipital lobe

Inferomedial aspect of temporal lobe

104
Q 
Carotid sinus
(function and pathway of sensory nerves)
A

Pressure receptor, monitors flow of blood to the head

Sensory nerves from it run in the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves

105
Q 
Carotid body
(function and pathway of sensory nerves)
A

Contains chemoreceptors sensitive to anoxia

Sensory nerves from it run in the glossopharyngeal nerve
detection of anoxia = ↑HR, RR, BP

106
Q

The dilatation located in the terminal common carotid artery/proximal ICA is called…

A

The carotid sinus

107
Q

The area on the posterior wall of the terminal common carotid artery is called…

A

The carotid body

108
Q

The dural venous sinuses draining the brain are located between which layers inside the skull?

A

Between the periosteum and cranial dura

109
Q

The dural venous sinuses drain into…

A

IJV

110
Q

What veins drain into the cavernous sinus?

A

Superior ophthalmic veins

potential route of infection from extra to intracranial

111
Q

Why is the brain at risk of infection through venous routes?

A

Veins in the brain and venous sinuses do not have valves to prevent backflow from outside to inside the cranium

112
Q

Bony attachments of the falx cerebri

A

Crista gali

Internal occipital protuberance

113
Q

Bony attachments of the anterior edge of the tentorium cerebelli

A

Anterior clinoid processes

114
Q

Which dural sinus runs along the attachment of the falx cerebri to the tenrorium cerebelli?

A

Straight sinus

115
Q

The dural fold separating the cerebellar hemispheres is called…

A

Falx cerebella

116
Q

The fold of dura mater surrounding the pituitary stalk is called…

A

The sellar diaphragm

117
Q

The middle meningeal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

The maxillary artery

118
Q

The middle meningeal artery supplies…

A

The dura mater

119
Q

The anterior horn of the lateral ventricle lies within which lobe?

A

Frontal lobe

120
Q

The body of the lateral ventricle lies within which lobe?

A

Parietal lobe

121
Q

The posterior horn of the lateral ventricle lies within which lobe?

A

Occipital lobe

122
Q

The inferior horn of the lateral ventricle lies within which lobe?

A

Temporal lobe

123
Q

The lateral ventricles are connected to the 3rd ventricle by the…

A

Interventricular foramen/ foramen of Monro

124
Q

Location of the 3rd ventricle

A

In the diencephalon

125
Q

Location of the 4th ventricle…

A

Btw the brainstem and the cerebellum

126
Q

What structure absorbs CSF back into the general circulation?

A

Arachnoid villi in the sagittal sinus

127
Q

Function of gamma motoneurons

A

Innervate the contractile ends of intrafusal muscle in the muscle spindle
This stretches the central area of the intrafusal fibres = fewer APs fired

128
Q

When do gamma motoneurons fire?

and why

A

With alpha motoneurons so the spindle shortens with the muscle so can keep transmitting sensory info

129
Q

What increases/ decreases muscle spindle discharge of APs?

A

Muscle contracts = spindle stretched = ↓ APs

Muscle relaxes/stretched = spindle relaxes = ↑ APs

130
Q

What increases/ decreases GTO discharge of APs?

A

Muscle contracts = ↑tension in GTO = ↑APs

Muscle relaxes = ↓tension in GTO = ↓APs

131
Q

3 results of the stretch reflex

A
  1. agonist contracts (monosynaptic reflex)
  2. antagonist relaxes (activation of inhibitory interneurons - reciprocal inhibition)
  3. sensory info ascends in dorsal column
132
Q

3 results of the inverse stretch reflex/ GTO reflex/ clasp knife reflex

A
  1. agonist relaxes (activation of inhibitory interneurons)
  2. antagonist contracts (activation of excitatory interneurons)
  3. sensory info ascends in dorsal columns
133
Q

Function of the Golgi tendon organ

A

Monitors muscle tension

134
Q

Function of the muscle spindle

A

Monitors muscle length

135
Q

3 results of the flexor-withdrawal reflex

A
  1. ipsilateral flexion*
  2. contralateral extension*
  3. info ascends in the spinothalamic tract

*through stimulation of excitatory/inhibitory interneurons

136
Q

The middle cerebellar peduncle is made up of…

A

Motor nerve fibres

137
Q

The cerebral peduncles are made up of…

A

Sensory and motor fibres

138
Q

The vertebral and basilar arteries (vertebro-basilar system) supply

A

Brainstem
Occipital lobes
Cerebellum

139
Q

Pain occurring when specific peripheral sensory neurons respond to noxious stimuli

A

Nociceptive pain

Pain usually localised to site of injury
Usually responds to conventional analgesics

140
Q

Pain initiated/caused by a primary lesion in the somato-sensory nervous system

A

Neuropathic pain

141
Q

Aα and Aβ fibres

structure and function

A

Large diameter, myelinated

Proprioception, light touch

142
Q

Aδ fibres

structure and function

A

Medium diameter, lightly myelinated

Nociception (fast pain)

143
Q 
C fibres
(structure and function)
A

Small diameter, unmyelinated

Non-noxious temperature
Itch
Nociception (slow pain)

144
Q

Exaggerated response to noxious and non-noxious stimuli (increased perception of pain)
(name and when it occurs)

A

Hyperalgesia

Occurs with tissue injury and inflammation (inflammatory mediators cause nociceptor changes)

145
Q

Decreased threshold for nociceptor response (non-noxious stimuli perceived as pain) is called…

A

Allodynia

occurs centrally as a clinical feature of many conditions

146
Q

An injury caused by a blunt force is called…

A

A laceration

147
Q

An injury caused by a sharp object is called…

A

An incised wound

148
Q

Fracturing of the orbital plates caused by a fall onto the back of the head…

A

Contre-coup fracture

149
Q

Fracture encircling the foramen magnum caused by a fall from height, leading to the skull base and cervical spine being forced together…

A

Ring fracture

150
Q

How does increased ICP cause death?

A

Compression of the brainstem due to herniation of the cerebellar tonsils into foramen
magnum

151
Q

Main cause of extradural haemorrhage…

A

Damage to an artery with skull fracture (often MMA)

arterial bleeding = high pressure

152
Q

A lucid interval in which a patient seems ok following a head injury then deteriorates catastrophically later is often due to…

A

Extradural haemorrhage

May be seen with subdural haemorrhage

153
Q

Mot common cause of subdural haemorrhage…

A

Trauma without a fracture

Relative movement between brain and dura causes veins to stretch and tear (bleeding is from veins so accumulates slowly)

154
Q

Most common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage…

A

Rupture of a cerebral artery “berry” aneurysm

155
Q

Commonest cause of traumatic basal subarachnoid haemorrhage (TBSAH)

A

Abrupt rotation of the head –> rupture of vertebra-basilar circulation

(death probably due to rotation of the brainstem at the same time)

156
Q

Commonest cause of death in fatal head injuries

A

Cerebral oedema (rapid result of brain injury) –> brain swelling –> raised ICP + coning

157
Q

Cerebral contusion

meaning

A

Bruising to the brain

158
Q

The thin sheet separating the lateral ventricles in the mid-sagittal plane is called…

A

Septum pellucidum

159
Q

The bundle of fibres linking the hippocampus to the mamillary bodies is called…

A

The fornix

160
Q

In what part of the brainstem is the substantia nigra

A

Midbrain

161
Q

Location of the red nucleus

A

In the midbrain, posterior to the substantia nigra

162
Q

What is the name of the hole in the middle of the spinal cord?

A

Central canal

163
Q

Cranial nerves with a parasympathetic component

A

III, VII, IX, X

164
Q

Origin of the oculomotor nerve

A

Midbrain

165
Q

Origin of trochlear nerve

A

Posterior midbrain

166
Q

Origin of trigeminal nerve

A

Pons

167
Q

Origin of abducent nerve

A

pontomedullary junction

168
Q

Origin of facial nerve

A

pontomedullary junction

169
Q

Origin of vestibulocochlear nerve

A

pontomedullary junction

170
Q

Origin of glossopharyngeal nerve

A

Medulla (lateral to olive)

171
Q

Origin of vagus nerve

A

Medulla (lateral to olive)

172
Q

Origin of accessory nerve

A

Medulla (lateral to olive)

+ spinal roots

173
Q

Origin of hypoglossal nerve

A

Medulla (medial to olive)

174
Q

Somatic motor actions of the trigeminal nerve (V3)

A

Muscles of mastication
Digastric
Tensor veli palatine
Tensor tympani

175
Q

EEG waves when awake and alert

A

β waves
V. high frequency
Low amplitude

176
Q

EEG waves when awake and relaxed

A

α waves
High frequency
High amplitude

177
Q

EEG waves in stage 1 slow wave sleep

A

θ waves
Low frequency
High amplitude

178
Q

EEG waves in stage 2 slow wave sleep

A

θ waves (low frequency, high amplitude) with sleep spindles

179
Q

EEG waves in stage 3 slow wave sleep

A

δ waves (v. low frequency and high amplitude) with episodes of faster waves

180
Q

EEG waves in stage 4 slow wave sleep

A

Exclusively δ waves

181
Q

EEG waves in REM sleep

A

Mimic β waves

182
Q

Fibres activating the pupillary reflex do not travel to the LGB but instead leave the optic tract to go to the…

A

EWN
(part of the 3rd nerve nucleus which is for parasympathetic fibres)
In the midbrain

183
Q

Identifying a cervical spinal cord segment

segment, ventral horn, dorsal horn

A

Segment: large and oval
Dorsal horn: Long and slender
Ventral horn: Broad and large

184
Q

Identifying a thoracic spinal cord segment

segment, ventral horn, dorsal horn

A

Segment: small and circular
Dorsal horn: slender
Ventral horn: slender

185
Q

Identifying a lumbar spinal cord segment

segment, ventral horn, dorsal horn

A

Segment: large and circular
Dorsal horn: Bulbous and short
Ventral horn: Bulbous and short

186
Q

Identifying a sacral spinal cord segment

segment, ventral horn, dorsal horn

A

Segment: small and circular/quadrilateral
dorsal horn: massive and ovoid
ventral horn: massive and ovoid

187
Q

In rehabilitation, goals set should be…

A 
S-pecific
M-easurable
A-cheivable
R-ealistic/relevant
T-imely
188
Q

The role of lateral pathways in motor control

+ the control of these pathways

A

Control voluntary movements

Under direct CORTICAL control

189
Q

The role of ventromedial pathways in motor control

+the control of these pathways

A

Control posture and locomotion

Under BRAINSTEM control
voluntary/ ocular/ vestibular… etc. input

190
Q

2 lateral pathways are…

A

Corticospinal tract

Rubrospinal tract

191
Q

2 immediate functions of the corticospinal tract

A
  1. monosynaptically excite pools of AGONIST motoneurones

2. inhibit ANTAGONIST motoneurones via interneurones

192
Q

The ventromedial tract that stabilises the head and neck is called…

A

The vestibulospinal tract

193
Q

The ventromedial tract that ensures the eyes remain stable as the body moves is called…

A

The tectospinal tract

194
Q

The ventromedial tract that reflexly maintains balance and body position is called…

A

The pontine and medullary reticulospinal tracts

195
Q

The pontine and medullary reticulospinal tracts innervate…

A

The trunk and anti-gravity muscles in the limbs

to reflexly maintain body position and balance

196
Q

Area 6

+ location

A

Premotor and supplementary motor areas

anterior to the motor cortex - area 4

197
Q

Basal ganglia making up the corpus striatum

A

Caudate nucleus

Lentiform nucleus

198
Q

Main sign of a cerebellar lesion

A

Ataxia

fail to touch nose with eyes shut

199
Q

Motor learning

where it happens + what it is

A

Occurs in the cerebellum

Compares what is intended and what happened and compensates for next time

200
Q

Aim of the direct pathway

A

To UN-inhibit the thalamus

so it can excite the motor cortex - and you can move

201
Q

Aim of the indirect pathway

A

To inhibit the thalamus

so it is unable to excite the motor cortex - and you don’t move

202
Q

3 parts of the neural tube at 27 days

A

Prosencephalon (forebrain)
Mesencephalon (midbrain)
Rhombencephalon (hindbrain)

203
Q

At 32 days, the prosencephalon forms the…

A

telencephalon

diencephalon

204
Q

At 32 days, the rhombencephalon forms the…

A

metencephalon

myelencephalon

205
Q

The telencephalon forms which adult structures

A

cerebral hemispheres
hippocampus
basal ganglia

206
Q

The diencephalon forms which adult structures

A

Thalamus
hypothalamus
pituitary gland
pineal gland

207
Q

the mesencephalon forms which adult structures

A

superior and inferior colliculi

208
Q

the metencephalon forms which adult structures

A

cerebellum

pons

209
Q

The myelencephalon forms which adult structures

A

medulla

210
Q

All CNS cells (neurons, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells) except microglia develop from…

A

neuroepithelial cells (lining the neural tube)

211
Q

Microglia develop from…

A

mesenchymal cells (which migrate into the CNS)

212
Q

neural crest cells break away from the neural tube and migrate throughout the embryo forming…

A 
ganglia
adrenal medulla
body pigment (except eyes)
branchial arches
sensory neurons
213
Q

Structures derived from the 1st branchial arch are supplied by…

A

CrN. V3 (and V2)

so it forms:

  • anterior belly of digastric
  • mylohyoid
  • malleus and incus
  • tensor tympani
  • mandible and maxilla
  • tensor veli palatini
  • muscles of mastication (pterygoids, masseter, temporalis)
214
Q

Structures derived from the 2nd branchial arch are supplied by…

A

Facial nerve

so it forms:

  • muscles of facial expression
  • trapezius, sternocleidomastoid + platysma
  • stapes + stapedius
  • posterior belly of digastric
215
Q

Structures derived from the 3rd branchial arch are supplied by…

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

so it forms:
- stylopharyngeus

216
Q

Structures derived from the 4th branchial arch are supplied by…

A

Superior laryngeal branch of vagus

so it forms:
- cricothyroid muscle

217
Q

Structures derived from the 6th branchial arch are supplied by…

A

Recurrent laryngeal branch or vagus

so it forms:
- intrinsic muscles of the larynx

218
Q

pupillary light reaction afferent and efferent

A 
afferent = II
efferent = III
219
Q

corneal reflex afferent and efferent

A 
afferent = V1
efferent = VII
220
Q

Jaw jerk afferent and efferent

A 
afferent = V
efferent = V
221
Q

oculocephalic reflex afferent and efferent

“dolls eyes” - eyes stay looking at the same point when head is rotated before moving

A 
afferent = VIII
efferent = III, IV, VI
222
Q

Oculovestibular reflexes afferent and efferent

static reflex
dynamic vestibular nystagmus (COWS)

A 
afferent = VIII
efferent = III, IV, VI
223
Q

myotome C5

A

elbow flexors

224
Q

myotome C6

A

wrist extensors

225
Q

myotome C7

A

elbow extensors

226
Q

myotome C8

A

finger extensors

227
Q

myotome T1

A

intrinsic hand muscles

228
Q

myotome L2

A

hip flexors

229
Q

myotome L3

A

knee extensors

230
Q

myotome L4

A

ankle dorsiflexors

231
Q

myotome L5

A

long toe extensors

232
Q

myotome S1

A

ankle plantar flexors

x2 - Nervous (3 decks)

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