Nerve and muscle disease Flashcards

1
Q

McArdle’s disease

1) mode of inheritance?
2) underlying cause?
3) usually presents when in life?
4) presentation?
5) __ __ levels are elevated in most cases
6) lifestyle advice?

A

1) AR
2) myophosphrylase deficiency > impaired glucose release from glycogen in the muscles
3) first decade of life
4) muscle pain soon after commencing exercise (can be severe and cramping). Often a 2nd wind phenomenon where pt may resume exercise again after a period of rest
5) CK
6) avoid vigorous exercise, stop in the presence of pain (increased risk of rhabdomyolysis with myoglobinuria and subsequent AKI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is myotonic dystrophy?

A

multisystem progressive disease characterised by delayed muscular relaxation and muscle wasting
(just think of name: MYO-muscle TONIC-increased tone DYSTOPHY-wasting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

genetic cause of myotonic dystrophy?

A

tri-nucleotide repeat on Cr19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

clinical features of myotonic dystrophy?

A

SCM and distal limb muscles affect 1st > grip myotonia and =foot drop
facial weakness > haggard appearance
ptosis, ophthalmoplegia and bilateral ‘christmas tree’ cataracts
hallowing of temples (temporalis muscle wasting) and atrophy of jaw muscles
early frontal balding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

A

neuromuscular junction disorder caused by impaired release of Ach from the presynaptic terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what causes Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A

malignancy (SCLC) or autoimmune disease > autoimmune attack against P/Q-type voltage gated Ca channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

clinical features of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A

insidious onset proximal muscle weakness. Mainly lower limbs > waddling gait
Autonomic features > constipation, postural hypotension, impotence, dry mouth
Deep tendon reflexes diminished/ absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome diagnosed?

A

anti-VGCC antibodies
characteristic electrophysiological findings using a 20-50Hz repetitive stimulation
CT to rule out malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

treatment of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A

Mainly 3,4-diaminopyridine (amifampridine)

More severe cases: immunosuppression or IV immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is Myasthenia gravis?

A

autoimmune disease of post-synaptic nicotinic ACh receptors at the NMJ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Myasthenia gravis

1) sex distribution
2) typical age

A

1) F>M

2) 20-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

clinical features of myasthenia gravis?

A

muscle fatiguability: occurs readily after exercise/ at end of day, improves on rest
ocular features most commonly appear first: b/l, asymmetric ptosis and extraocular weakness> diplopia
proximal > distal muscle weakness
jaw and facial muscles, speech, swallow and resp muscles also affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

thymid hyperplasia, thyoma, hyperthyroidism and SLE are quite common associations with which neuromuscular disease?

A

myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

myasthenia crisis

1) precipitating factors?
2) best method to monitor for this?
3) treatment?

A

1) bronchopneumonia, medications, surgery
2) monitor tidal volume and vital capacity
3) urgent intubation and ventilation when vital capacity <15. Treatment: plasmapheresis, IV IGs and systemic steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cholinergic crisis

1) is a potential complication of __ __
2) is common in patients receiving high dose ___ medication
3) symptoms include …

A

1) myasthenia gravis
2) anticholinesterase
3) SLUDGE syndrome”: Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Gastrointestinal distress and Emesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

thymic hyperplasia, thyoma, hyperthyroidism and SLE are quite common associations with which neuromuscular disease?

A

myasthenia gravis

17
Q

list some drugs which can induce or exacerbate myasthenia?

A

Gentamicin, beta blockers, verapamil, lithium, penicillamine, phenytoin and chloroquine.

18
Q

Ix in myasthenia?

A
anti-AChR Abs (check
for anti-MuSK if negative).
Repetitive nerve stimulation tests: decremented muscle response.
TFTs
CT thymus.
19
Q

management of myasthenia gravis?

A

symptomatic control: acetylcholinesterase inhibitors e.g. Pyridostigmine
to improve weakness and establish remission: immunosuppression e.g. corticosteroids, azathioprine
Thymectomy

20
Q

CMT1

1) age of onset?
2) presentation?
3) diagnosis?

A

1) first decade
2)
3)

21
Q

most common form of charcot-marie-tooth disease? how is it inherited?

A

CMT1

autosomal dominant

22
Q

histopathological features of CMT1?

A

schwann cells proliferate and form concentric arrays of remyelination around the demyelinated axon > onion bulb appearance

23
Q

CMT1

1) age of onset?
2) presentation?
3) diagnosis?

A

1) first 2 decades
2) motor symptoms in the lower limbs e.g. difficulty walking, foot deformity (pes cavus, hammer toes). Distal muscles are affected, more commonly in lower limbs > inverted champagne bottle appearance. Sensory loss in same pattern. Hyporeflexia and thoracic scoliosis common.
3) clinically _ genetic testing + electrophysiological nerve conduction studies (reduce nerve motor conduction velocity in media or ulnar nerves)

24
Q

guillain-barre syndrome

1) what is it?
2) most patients have a preceding history of what?
3) presentation?
4) progression normally stops __ weeks from its onset

A

1) acute autoimmune disorder causing demyelination and axonal injury
2) infection with campylobacter (most common), EBV, CMV or HIV.
3) symmetrical scending sensorimotor paralysis with areflexia starting in lower limb
4) 4

25
Q

how is guillain-barre syndrome diagnosed?

A

usually clinical

LP (high CSF protein) and nerve conduction studies (patchy proximal and distal demyelination) sometimes useful

26
Q

treatment of guillain-barre syndrome?

A

plasma exchange or IV IGs

27
Q

what is chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy? (CIDP)

A

acquired, demyelinating PNS disease: progressive or relapsing proximal and distal weakness with
hyporeflexia/areflexia and a distal sensory loss (paraesthesia and numbness).
Tremor also common

28
Q

CIDP

1) diagnosis
2) treatment

A

1) clinical, supported by electrophysiological nerve conduction studies and CSF (high protein)
2) oral steroids, IV IGs

29
Q

what is spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffmann disease)

A

AR neuromuscular disorder: congenital degeneration of anterior horns of spinal cord (LMN lesion) > progressive muscular wasting (often early death)
Sever form: “Floppy baby syndrome” in 1st month of life - marked hypotonia and
tongue fasciculations.

Think of name:

  • SPINAL (anterior horn)
  • MUSCULAR ATROPHY (muscle wasting)
30
Q

Poliomyelitis

1) causative pathogen?
2) infection causes destructions of cells where?
3) signs and symptoms?

A

1) poliovirus (faecal-oral transmission)
2) destruction of cell in the anterior horn of the spinal cord (LMN death)
3) LMN signs: weakness, hypotonia, flaccid paralysis, fasciculations, hyporeflexia, muscle atrophy