NERRS Facts Flashcards
1
Q
DICER 1
A
Multilocular cystic nephroma and pleuropulmonary blastoma. The way to remember the Multilocular cystic nephroma association with DICER 1 = Michael Jackson tumor, DICE are black and white just like MJ.
2
Q
Mesoblastic nephroma treatment?
A
Excision.
3
Q
Multilocular cystic nephroma treatment?
A
Excision bc cannot distinguish from cystic Wilms
4
Q
Most commonly benign bone lesion in kids?
A
NOF
5
Q
MRI signal of fibrous dysplasia
A
Low T1 and low 2
6
Q
SH 1 and 2
A
Treated conservatively
7
Q
SH 3 and 4
A
Treated surgically
8
Q
Apophysis
A
Tendon insertion site
9
Q
Differential for synovitis in kid
A
septic, inflammatory, and LYME
10
Q
Where does lyme most affect kids joints?
A
knee
11
Q
Key features of lyme
A
myositis, lymphadenopathy adjacent
12
Q
Four vessel sign
A
Double aortic arch (axial view)
13
Q
What does PVA stand for?
A
poly-vinyl alcohol (particles)
14
Q
Why would you have a bronchial artery embo in a kid?
A
CF or TB
15
Q
What is the problem of using glue in bronchial artery embo?
A
Shunting or non-target embo
16
Q
In bronchial artery embo, how big particles?
A
At least 350 to avoid non-target/necrosis
17
Q
Lateral marginal vein of Servelle
A
KTS
18
Q
Sciatic vein
A
KTS
19
Q
Pulmonary AVM
A
Not true AVM; misnomer. Really AVF without intervening parenchyma.
20
Q
Developing focal asymmetry
A
PASH
21
Q
PASH
A
BR 2
22
Q
Before ML for milk of mag
A
Wait for a few min in compression to allow layering
23
Q
When does lactating adenoma present?
A
3rd trimester or during breast feeding; MUST be evaluated to distinguish from aggressive cancer during pregnancy
24
Q
Lactating adenoma
A
Increased vascularity distinguishes from galacocele; not always going to see a fat fluid level in galactocele
25
Grouped calcs
5 within 1 cm sq
26
Peanut M&M
Circumscribed breast cancer: papillary, mucinous, medullary
27
Capsule or no capsule for fibroadenolipoma (hamartoma)?
Capsule
28
“cut sausage appearance”
Breast hamartoma
29
Cancer detection rate FFDM v. BTS?
4/1000 v. 6/1000
30
Order of suspicion: asymmetry, global asymmetry, focal asymmetry, developing asymmetry
In that order
31
First follow-up for asymmetry?
rolled or true lateral
32
If the global asymmetry is new (developing)?
Must biopsy
33
BR 3 on baseline
Fibroadenoma, focal asymmetry without ultrasound correlate, grouped calcs.
34
First post-contrast phase on breast MRI occurs when?
1m 30s
35
No shape or margin descriptors for what on MRI?
Focus (too small)
36
What does clustered ring descriptor of non-mass like enhancement on MRI represent?
Periductal stroma
37
Cornybacterium in breast culture
Granulomatous mastitis
38
Nodular lactational hyperlasia
AKA lactating adenoma
39
If a cyst yields bloody aspirate during aspiration (typically using 18 G needle) make sure to leave a clip in case a follow-up biopsy is necessary
And send bloody fluid to pathology (brown fluid just discard)
40
Type 3 os naviculare
just very large navicular - all continuous bone
41
Type 2 os naviculare
type that is most painful
42
Pitt’s Pit
MUST HAVE SCLEROTIC BORDER
43
Soleal line
tug line related to gastroc
44
Defect in type 1 collagen
OI
45
Type of OI is mild
Type 1 - no real symptoms
46
Type of OI that is lethal
2
47
Type of OI with normal sclera
type 4 (apparently the ABR loves this fact for the test)
48
Type of OI with tibial bowing
3
49
Marble bone disease
Osteopetrosis
50
Macrodystrophia Lipomatosa
Associated with NF1, Proteus Syndrome, and KTS (localized gigantism usually unilateral in hands/feet)
51
Bipartite patella type III (most common type ~75%)
supralateral. symptomatic in 2-5% of the population
52
Male:Female prevalence for bipartite patella
nine to one
53
Type I bipartite patella
Inferior
54
type II bipartite patella
lateral
55
Bone disease that presents in a sclerotomal distribution
Malorheostosis (although it can be painful, it is usually asymptomatic)
56
Bone lesion in TS
Sclerotic bone lesions (look like bone islands)
57
Genetic inheritance of TS
AD
58
Genetic inheritance of Marfan
AD
59
Gene involved in Marfan
Fibrillin 1
60
Optic lens dislocation
Marfan
61
Steinberg Sign
Thumb past the palm
62
Talar beaking associated with?
Tarsal coalition - both subtalar and talocalcaneal
63
C sign of tarsal coalition
What you are seeing is the increased size of the sustanaculum tali
64
Most specific sign for osteomyelitis on MRI?
Low T1
65
New bone surrounding a sequestrum
involucrum
66
Digital nerve calcifications and acroosteolysis
Leprosy
67
In adults most common cause of osteomyelitis AND septic joint
SA
68
Phemister triad
periarticular osteopenia, marginal erosions, and delayed loss of joints space (TB and mycobacteria in fishmongerers)
69
After discovery of an osteosarcoma on X-ray what are the 3 best next steps?
bone scan, chest ct, and referral to orthopedic oncologist - DO NOT BIOPSY WITHOUT FIRST CONSULTING WITH AN ORTHOPOD AS THE BIOPSY TRACT CAN COMPLICATE THE SURGICAL APPROACH
70
Looks normal on X-ray (shoulder dislocation)
grade 1
71
CC distance is increased
grade 3 AC separation
72
Massive rotator cuff tear
>5 cm in dimension or 2 or more cuffs
73
Bucket handle SLAP
Type III
74
SLAP into the biceps tendon
IV
75
Galeazzi fracture
Ulnar head displaced DORSALLY
76
Monteggia fracture
Radial head displaces proximally
77
what percentage of FD are mono-ostotic?
80.0%
78
Denosumab used for?
GCT
79
Can GCT be multifocal?
yes
80
BPOP
Nora’s Lesion
81
Solid and uninterrupted periosteal reaction
These are features of benign periosteal reaction
82
Can PET differentiate benign and malignant soft tissue masses?
NO! FDG accumulation is non-specific
83
Are there calcifications on PVNS?
NO!
84
Volar or Dorsal - Giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath of the hand?
Volar
85
What is the most common soft tissue mass?
Ganglion cyst
86
Name 2 cystic soft tissue tumors that are malignant?
Myxoid liposarcoma. Synovial sarcoma.
87
Mid third capsular ligament avulsion
Segond
88
Arcuate sign
Posterolateral corner injury
89
Rodent facies
Thalassemia (along with hair on end)
90
What is the inheritance pattern of thallasemia?
AR
91
Small or large joints in hemophilia?
Large (knee most common)
92
On MRI don’t confuse PVNS with?
hemophilia (especially in the knee)
93
Crescent sign is on?
radiograph (AVN)
94
double line sign is on?
MRI (AVN)
95
Red marrow can be distinguished from tumor using?
In and out of phase imaging (red marrow should drop out because it retains some degree of intracellular fat; whereas tumor would not drop out)
96
AVN usually occurs in?
Non-hematopoetic marrow. In other words, it occurs in yellow marrow.
97
treatment for angiodysplasia
endoscopy NOT coiling
98
absolute contraindication to TACE for HCC?
Decompensated liver failure, because you are going to further decrease liver function
99
Inject thrombin into pseudo aneurysm if less than:
1 cm
100
Amplatzer plug in splenic artery for trauma where?
between dorsal pancreatic and pancreatic magna arteries
101
Are stents placed in the SVC for benign strictures?
No! Just angioplasty. The reason is that they may embolize into the heart.
102
The purpose of lipiodol on TACE is to visualize the injection.
Poppy seed oil
103
Lobar chemoembo is avoided in patients with:
Cr greater than 2, ECOG greater than 2, biliary sphincter compromise, and portal vein occlusion
104
Thermal ablation of HCC is ideal for:
Less than 3 cm and far from vessel
105
what is the problem with ablating HCC near a blood vessel?
heat sink
106
what chemotherapeutic agent do you use for TACE in the setting of metastatic colorectal cancer?
irinotecan
107
Which type of thermal ablation uses grounding pads?
Radiofrequency
108
Which type of thermal ablation does not use grounding pads?
Microwave (faster technique)
109
Why is cryoablation not used in the liver?
Increased risk of bleeding
110
Typical bug for PID
polymicrobial (not ecoli)
111
Risk factor for PID
IUD
112
Most common part of the fallopian tube for ectopic?
ampulla (not isthmus)
113
Abdominal measurements in utero are:
1. at the level of the PV and umbilical vein confluence / stomach. 2. outer skin to outer skin
114
Femur length in 2nd trimester
Exclude the epiphysis
115
What percent of pregnancies are ectopic?
2%
116
Three high risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?
previous ectopic, previous fallopian tube surgery, assisted reproductive technology
117
Largest cause of error of image interpretation
Missed finding. Second is satisfaction of search
118
With hydrancephaly what structures are preserved?
Midline structures such as falx and thalami
119
Alobar holopro is associated with?
Trisomy 13
120
What else to look for with Chiari II?
club feet!
121
what is rocker bottom feet associated with? (AKA hindfoot valgus)
myelomeningocele
122
Where does the umbilical cord insert with omphalocele?
centrally
123
Where does the umbilical cord insert in gastrochisis?
Eccentrically to the RIGHT
124
What does gastrochisis include?
Only small bowel (no colon, no liver, no stomach)
125
FNH is a:
hamartoma
126
Hepatic adenoma type that bleeds
inflammatory
127
Hepatic adenoma that has increased risk of malignant transformation?
beta catenin
128
Keyhole bladder on ultrasound
Posterior urethral valves
129
Biliary cystadenoma is now called (updated nomenclature):
Mucinous cystic neoplasm of the liver
130
Fat containing fibroid
lipoleiomyoma
131
Ductal plate malformation
Carolis
132
Caroli’s treatment
Partial hepatectomy or transplant
133
Caoli’s premalignant or not
yes, can turn into cholangiocarcinoma
134
Cervical fibroids are:
usually refractory to UAE
135
Appropriateness criteria female infertility and recurrent pregnancy loss
saline infused hysterosonography
136
Appropriateness criteria for female infertility and no history of recurrent pregnancy loss
HSG
137
External genitalia with Kuster Hauser Syndrome?
Normal
138
Ovaries in Kuster Hauser?
Normal
139
Nabothian cysts are related to:
chronic healed cervicitis
140
Adenoma malignum of the cervix
Variant of mucinous adenocarcinoma; watery vaginal discharge; related to Peutz-Jegher; looks like very big, very aggressive Nabothian cysts
141
Incidence of ectopic in the setting of IVF?
1 out of 100
142
Sector transducer
Phase array (used for intercostal)
143
Primary cysts of the spleen are AKA
epidermoid cysts (I don’t understand this, but it was emphasized in the review course)
144
Echogenic lesions in the spleen that are enlarging
Must be biopsied even though likely hemangioma (worst case scenario they are littoral cell angioma)
145
SANT
Splenic mass with blooming on GRE
146
Splenic angiosarcoma
Exploding spleen (rupture)
147
Graded compression technique for appendicitis ultrasound in normal size patient
high resolution linear probe (not a sector probe)
148
Graded compression technique for appendicitis in larger patient
curvilinear probe (not a sector probe)
149
IPMNs are
pre-malignant
150
Next step after cystic pancreatic lesion seen on ultrasound?
MRCP
151
Follow-up for testicular and tunica albuginea cyst
None. Both are benign.
152
What does loss of diastolic flow in renal transplant indicate after recent transplantation?
renal vein thrombus
153
What does loss of diastolic flow in renal transplant indicate after remote transplantation?
chronic rejection
154
Ureteral jets are harder or easier to see with hematuria?
Easier to see bc red blood cells are echogenic.
155
Lung uptake in MIBG study can be:
normal
156
PET avid brown fat is most common in
kids
157
Distinguish increased soft tissue radiotracer uptake from exercise v. eating just before PET scan.
With exercise you should see the liver. With eating you shouldn’t
158
Four causes of hepatic uptake on MDP bone scan
Amyloid, aluminum contamination, metastatic disease, severe hepatic disfunction
159
Sudek Dystrophy
Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
160
Time to imaging after injecting I123 or I131 in thyroid
6-24 hours
161
Time to imaging after injecting Tc99m in thyroid
Only 30 minutes so greater amount of bkgd. this is a good way to know that you are NOT looking at an iodine study.
162
When do you give I 131 for Hasimotos?
Never. Not treated with I 131. No type of thyroiditis is treated with radio-iodine.
163
Should you stop levothyroxine before scintigraphy for a lingual thyroid?
No. When kids with lingual tonsil come off synthroid they suffer neuronal loss.
164
How long do you wait after injection for a SC liver-spleen study?
Only about 20-30 minutes. The reticuloendothelial system is quick to take up the SC.
165
Dose for gastric emptying study?
1 mCi Tc 99m SC
166
n-MYC gene amplicfication
BAD prognostic factor in neuroblastoma
167
notch-3
CADASIL
168
small bowel bleeds can be distinguished from colonic bleeds on NM
Cross the midline and have ‘snake like movements’
169
Edge packing in gamma camera
When a cracked crystal shows up much thicker as a defect
170
Measles in gamma camera
hygroscopic NaI crystals absorb water and turn yellow
171
What accounts for a very thin line or channel of increased or decreased uptake - very thin - in gamma camera scintigraphy
septae messed up
172
Photopenic femoral head ddx
joint effusion, perthes, cyst, coins in pocket
173
Heart uptake on MDP bone scan
Amyloid
174
Four tracers with cardiac uptake
Tl, MIBI, FDG, MIBG
175
Don’t miss cause of hydronephrosis in the teenage male?
Obstruction 2/2 retroperitoneal seminoma mets
176
Perfusion only in NM PE study when?
pregnancy to reduce dose
177
Set up in the room for Xe ventillation scan
Negative pressure ventilation with exhaust fan at the level of the floor bc Xe is heavier than air
178
Biologic half life of MAA particles in VQ scan
A few hours. then they dissolve
179
Velcro type crackles on auscultation
IPF/UIP
180
Connective tissue disease most likely to have pulmonary fibrosis
scleroderma. not RA.
181
UIP is
idiopathic most of the time
182
NSIP is
rarely idiopathic. usually occurs in the setting of connective tissue or collagen vascular disease
183
Compared to adults, pediatric acute blunt injury to the abdomen is more likely to be:
treated conservatively
184
In KTS, is there always limb overgrowth?
No, sometimes there can be limb undergrowth
185
Is KTS hereditary?
No, no germ line mutation
186
Limbus vertebrae are usually:
asymptomatic
187
Limbus vertebrae occurs because of
herniation of disc material during adolescence before the ring apophysis fuses
188
Birt hogg Dube is
AD
189
Skin lesions in Birt Hogg Dube
Folliculomas
190
Isolated 5th metacarpal shortening
Either in familial diabetes type I or just in the normal population
191
4th metacarpal shortening with or without 5th metacarpal shortening
pseudo-hypopara, pseudo-pseudo-hypopara, post-traumatic, basal-cell-nevus (gorlin)
192
GG nodules > 6 mm follow up (Fleishner 2017)
f/u 6-12 months
193
Solid nodules 6-8mm (Fleishner 2017)
f/u in 12 months and if no change then in another 12 months
194
(Fleishner 2017) 15 mm GG opacity
f/u in 6 months
195
LUNG-RADS 15 mm GG opacity
f/u in 12 months (called category 2 - probably benign)
196
LUNG-RADS 6 mm solid nodule
f/u in 6 months (category 3)
197
Treatment options for chondroblastoma
RF ablation, curettage, resection
198
Dose for LUNG RADS screening CT
Less than or equal to 3.0 mGy CTDI vol
199
SIR Guidelines: risk for PICC
Low risk procedure (INR can be a high at 2)
200
SIR Guidelines: risk for TCVL
medium (INR needs to be lower than 1.5 but you don’t have to hold ASA)
201
Both lower lobes collapse:
posteriorly and medially
202
Infrahilar window
On the lateral xr bounded anteriorly the by right middle lobe bronchus and posteriorly by the left main stem bronchus
203
Common paraneoplastic syndromes associated with thymoma
MG, pure red cell aplasia, hypogammaglobulinemia. Most common is MG.
204
How often do contrast extravasations happen
<1% of all IV contrast injections
205
Air bronchograms through a mass
lymphoma
206
Doege Potter Syndrome
Hypoglycemia associated with fibrous tumor of the pleura
207
Most common primary pleural tumor
Mesothelioma (not fibrous tumor of the pleura)
208
Glucothorax
Central line placement complicated by venous bleed and hemothorax
209
Shrinking lung syndrome
SLE
210
Reverse halo sign
Not only COP but also pulmonary infarct after PE
211
Pruning of the pulmonary arteries
Chronic PE
212
Fat emboli and amniotic fluid emboli
Are not seen on PE study
213
Septic emboli
Are typically not seen as filling defects on a PE study
214
Where does the left superior intercostal vein (aortic nipple) drain?
hemiazygous - classic spot for misplaced CVC
215
Pulmonary laceration appears as:
Holes in the lung - not linear. The example provided looked like several contiguous cysts.
216
According to the North American consensus guidelines, pediatric nuclear medicine doses are based on
body weight only, not surface area
217
PAPVR loads which ventricle?
Right ventricle (similar appearance to an atrial defect)
218
Left atrial enlargement with increased pulmonary vascularity
VSD
219
Conoventricular VSD
The type seen in TOF
220
PDA causes enlarged or small aorta
enlarged as well as enlarged left heart
221
Very large central PAs that taper quickly on CXR
Eisenmengers. This is different than the ‘pruning’ which is seen in chronic PE.
222
the descending interlobar artery should be
smaller in caliber than the trachea
223
which type of TAPVR is most common to present with obstruction?
Type 3 - infra cardiac. The intracardiac variant is also commonly obstructed.
224
Smooth septal ventricular surface
morphologic left ventricle
225
Is cor triatriatum left or right sided
left
226
What does CADRADs categorize?
coronary artery stenosis
227
Which level CAD RADS do you stent
CAD RAD 4
228
What are the criteria for CAD RADS 4
severe 70-99% stenosis of the RCA or LCX; > 50% stenosis for LAD; 3 vessel disease
229
Most common vasculopathy associated with spontaneous coronary artery dissection?
FMD
230
Most common cause of coronary artery aneurysm in the world/USA?
world = Kawasakis; US = atherosclerosis
231
paradoxical septal motion
LBBB (note: this is different than the septal bounce seen in constrictive pericarditis)
232
In addition to LAD apical infarction, what are another two entities that common present with left ventricular apical thrombus?
Llofler’s endocarditis and Non-compaction
233
Order of cardiac chambers that are affected by tamponade?
RA, RV, LA, LV (note that the RV is compromised before the LA)
234
treatment for pericardial cyst?
nothing unless symptomatic
235
most common primary pericardial mass?
mesothelioma
236
Snoopy sign
Cardiac torsion in the setting of congenital absence of the pericardium. In this case the pericardium is only partially absent and the heart herniates through the defect before torsing.
237
Right sinus of vasalva aneurysm would rupture into?
right ventricle
238
non-coronary sinus aneurysm would rupture into?
right atrium
239
the left coronary sinus aneurysm would rupture into the pericardium and cause?
tamponade
240
Claw sign and spider web sign both help to identify the:
false lumen in an aortic dissection
241
Type 4 and 5 endoleaks are:
diagnosis of exclusion
242
Marginal vein of Servelle
KTS
243
Costoclavicular space is bound by
the 1st rib, clavicle, subclavius muscle, and anterior scalene - spot for Paget Schrodetter
244
Vein of Sappey
Collateral supplying the caudate lobe in SVC obstruction. This causes the hot caudate sign on SC studies and sometimes CTA.
245
Bifid uvula and sinus of valsalva dilation
Loeys Dietz
246
Difference between Loeys Dietz and Marfan
Marfan does not present with aneurysms outside the aorta; LD has aneurysms everywhere. A diagnosis of LD requires head to toe CT angiography.
247
When is follow-up after finding aortic root aneurysm?
6 month, NOT 1 year follow-up
248
Wilkie’s Disease
SMA syndrome
249
Most common place to tear esophagus in BLUNT trauma
thoracic inlet, upper esophagus
250
Most common place to tear the esophagus in general?
GE junction
251
Menetrier’s
Mucus secreting disease of the stomach
252
Epiphrenic diverticula are
congenital
253
Duodenal bulb is
intraperitoneal
254
2nd segment of the duodenum onward is:
retroperitoneal
255
Water lilly sign
Eccinococcal cyst
256
Giant cavernous hemangioma in the liver is defined as
greater than 10 cm
257
What is the standard of care for a peripheral liver mass like cholangio?
resection
258
In the setting of choledochal cysts, what is the biggest risk factor for cancer
abnormally high pancreatic and CBD junction - predisposes to reflux
259
Common mix up for choledocholithiasis on MRCP
flow void. Stones are eccentric. Flow voids fill the center of the CBD lumen.
260
Magnesium ammonium phosphate
struvite (type of stone seen in infection)
261
calcium phosphate
most dense urinary stone
262
calcium oxalate
most common urinary stone
263
uric acid stones are usually
less than 500 HU
264
less than what HU is amenable to extracorporeal lithotripsy
< 1000 HU
265
Forniceal rupture
requires antibiotics
266
pyelonephritis is more common in men or women?
women
267
Best prognosis RCC type
chromophobe
268
Erdheim Chester
Hot femur on bone scan and perinephric soft tissue
269
Involving collecting system renal laceration
Grade IV
270
If the patient is stable, unto what grade can you manage renal lacerations conservatively?
Up to and including grade IV
271
Intraperitoneal bladder rupture
requires surgery
272
Boundary of the anterior and poterior urethra
Inferior edge of the urogenital diaphgram (this was a recent ABR question)
273
Which glomerulonephritis has the highest risk for renal vein thrombosis
membranous
274
necrotizing fasciitis bug in the rest of the body except the scrotum
Group A strep
275
Fournier’s gangrene microbe
e coli
276
How many veins drain the adrenals?
Only 1 each side
277
Which are more common adrenal cyst or pseudocyst?
pseudocyst.
278
Greater than what size is a risk factor for adrenal myelolipoma?
5 cm
279
Adrenal Cortical Carcinoma
Li Fraumeni Syndrome
280
Adrenal hemangioma
Looks exactly like hepatic hemangioma - peripheral nodular discontinuous enhancement
281
Calcified targetoid mass in the spleen
brucellosis
282
Skull base chordoma v. chondrosarcoma - which has worse prognosis
chordoma
283
Compared to facial nerve schwnoma a facial nerve hemangioma is:
more symptomatic. you can distinguish these in the otic capsule (and particularly in the geniculate ganglion) by the presence of calcifications in hemangioma and not in schwanoma
284
Endolymphatic sac tumor:
Blooming artifact on GRE
285
SDHx mutations
Glomus tympanicum
286
Soft tissue mass within the crura of the stapes
Persistent stapedial artery
287
Lack of T1 shortening excludes melanoma met?
No, bc can have amelanotic variants that are dark on T1 weighted sequences
288
Bony destruction with JNA?
No, because slow growing. you should have smooth expansion of the various foramen exiting the PPF.
289
Most common variant of rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in the head and neck
embyronal
290
Most common type of cancer to arise in a thyroglossal duct cyst?
papillary (not squamous)
291
Intact v interrupted spinolaminar line
Intact with spondylolysis. Interrupted with facet degeneration.
292
Spinal astrocytomas are:
eccentric in the cord, as opposed to centrally distributed ependymomas
293
Cold abscesses
in the psoas adjacent to TB spondylodiscitis - named because not painful and no actual bacteria within, only granulation tissue
294
Scheuermann Disease
painful scoliosis
295
Associated with balloon cells
Focal cortical dysplasia in the brain
296
Anti-Hu antibodies
paraneoplastic limbic encephalitis from SMALL cell lung cancer
297
Which has better prognosis: paraneoplastic or non-paraneoplastic limbic encephalitis
Non
298
Which type of craniopharyngioma is found in adults
papillary - calcifications are rare
299
scalpel sign
dorsal thoracic arachnoid web (this is different than arachnoid cyst which can also occur in the spine)
300
another way to fix gibbs artifact
smoothing filters (other options would be to increase the grid or to use a saturation band)
301
T2 central dot sign
Neurofibroma. Schwanomas would not have the T2 central dot sign.
302
Treatment for dural venous thrombosis causing intracerebral hemorrhage
anticoagulation (EVEN if there is intracerebral hemorrhage)
303
Venetian blind artifact
slabs on coronal TOF MRA - modifying the flip angle through the acquisition
304
Treatment for intractable seizures 2/2 Rasmussen’s encephalitis
hemispherectomy
305
Palmar Pits
Gorlin Syndrome (also odontogenic keratocysts and dural calcifications)
306
Does hemangioblastoma have a capsule?
No, you have to remove the whole thing or it will recur
307
What percent of hemangioblastomas occur with VHL?
10%. The vast majority are not associated.
308
Most common primary cerebellar tumor in the adult?
Hemangioblastoma
309
Most common presenting symptom of spinal cord herniation through the dura
Hemi-cord syndrome AKA Brown Sequard
310
Postganglionic thoracic nerve root avulsions are important because
they have capacity to regenerate, whereas preganglionic do not
311
Treatment for choroidal fissure / neurepithelial cyst
No treatment needed
312
Important thing to include in dictation on dermoid cyst at the floor of the mouth
relation to mylohyoid muscle
313
Most common location for dermoid in the head
orbit (2nd is floor of mouth)
314
Ranula is
mucocele of the sublingual duct
315
Hard palate is part of the
oral cavity
316
Soft palate is part of the
oropharynx
317
The vast majority of tumors of the post-styloid parapharyngeal space
are neurogenic including not only CN 9-12 but also the sympathetic ganglionic chain
318
The vast majority of tumors of the pre-styloid parapharyngel space
are of salivary gland origin
319
Most Ludwig angina come from
odontogenic source
320
Cowden’s
skin tags
321
Septo-optic dysplasia
Schizoenchepahlic cleft
322
Rosai-Dorfman
Multiple dural based masses - (sinus histiocytosis with massive lymphadenopathy)
323
Most common locations for anterior circulation intracranial aneurysm
1. ACOMM, 2. PCOMM, 3. MCA bifurcation/trifurcation
324
Most common forms of CJD
sporadic (not variant)
325
Ecchordosis physaliphora
Benign, clivus based, in the differential for chordoma
326
Suprasellar meningiomas are
off center and narrow the the ICAs
327
pituitary adenomas
do not narrow the ICA (as opposed to meningiomas)
328
Bony destruction and deforming the globe from intraorbital extraconal mass centered in the lacrimal gland
Adenoid cystic
329
Most common site in the orbit to be affected by orbital pseudotumor
Inferior rectus
330
Coca cola bottle
Thyroid orbitopathy
331
According to TIRADS the most suspicious features of thyroid nodule
punctate echogenic foci, “very hypoechoic,” extra-thyroidal extension, and taller than wide on transverse view
332
What is markedly hypoechoic in the thyroid
darker than the strap muscles
333
Focal masses of the periorbital fat
Schwannoma and cavernous hemangioma
334
Flow voids in orbital mass
within one year of life think capillary hemangioma; at 10 years old then think rhabdomyosarcoma
