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NERC 2023 > NERC Test Bank > Flashcards

NERC Test Bank Flashcards

1
Q

The reliability Coordinator may initiate a conference call under which of the following conditions?

A

Anytime they want

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2
Q

Data required for the calculation of ACE is acquired on which of the following time intervals?

A

6s

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3
Q

All of the following are reasons to notify other systems through predetermined communication
paths EXCEPT:
a. Insufficient resources
b. Lack of single contingency coverage
c. Loss of 10 MW load
d. Sabotage incident

A

Loss of 10MW Load

EOP-4-4:
Uncontrolled loss of firm load for ≥ 15 minutes from a
single incident:
≥ 300 MW for entities with previous year’s peak
demand ≥ 3,000 MW
OR
≥ 200 MW for all other entitie

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4
Q

NERC event reporting requires a report for events or occurrences which result in a loss of generation in the amount greater than ______ outside of ERCOT?
a. 100 MW
b. 300 MW
c. 2,000 MW
d. 1,000 MW

A

EOP-004-4:
Total generation loss, within one minute, of:
≥ 2,000 MW in the Eastern, Western, or Quebec Interconnection
OR
≥ 1,400 MW in the ERCOT Interconnection

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5
Q

You are a transmission operator and provide the following operating instructions to a switchman in the field. “I want you to open breaker 33A.” The switchman responds with, “I understand that you want me to open breaker 33A.” What would then be your appropriate response?

A

That is Correct

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6
Q

All of the reasons listed below are reasons to notify other affected entities through
predetermined communication paths EXCEPT ______?
a. Insufficient resources
b. Emergency actions for inability to purchase capacity
c. Market implications
d. Lack of single contingency coverage

A

c

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7
Q

Each Balancing Authority and Generator Operator shall comply with the instructions issued by the Transmission Operator, unless such actions would violate all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Safety requirements
b. Equipment requirements
c. Market requirements
d. Regulatory requirements

A

c

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8
Q

If a transmission operator expects an emergency condition, it shall inform ____.
a. Its Reliability Coordinator and any other potentially affected Transmission Operators.
b. Its Balancing Authority and Load Serving Entity
c. Its Generator Operator and Balancing Authority
d. Its Purchase Selling Entity and Interchange Authority

A

a

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9
Q

All generation, transmission, and load operating within an Interconnection must be included within
the Metered Boundaries of a/an _______?
a. TO
b. ISO
c. Market Participant
d. Balancing Authority Area

A

d

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10
Q

(# = Blank Space. Sorry, had to use due to their auto formatting)

G1-0MW————|–Line 1—–100MW———–|
############|—Line 2—–50MW———-|
##Gen2-100MW-|—Line 3——50MW———|

G1 goes up to 100MW, what is MW on line 3?

A

150MW

Ratios stay the same. Line 1 gets 50%, Line 2 and 3 get 25% each.

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11
Q

You are operating as a Transmission Operator and you identify in your EMS that a value from SCADA is indicating 0 MVA, but the State Estimator value is 75 MVA. Which of the following actions should you take?
a. Remove the line from service immediately
b. Investigate the cause for the bad SCADA value
c. Identify why the line tripped
d. Request your EMS support group to restart the State Estimator

A

B. Investigate first, then maybe take action

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12
Q

If an IROL violation requires the adjustment of interchange transactions, which of the following actions should the Reliability Coordinator direct the Transmission Operators and Balancing Authorities to take until the transaction curtailments take place?

  1. Raise the limits
  2. Re-dispatch generation
  3. Shed load
  4. Switch transmission facilities

a. 1, 3, and 4
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3, and 4

A

D. 2,3,4

IRO-009-2 R1 / R2
For each IROL (in its Reliability Coordinator Area) that the Reliability Coordinator identifies the Reliability Coordinator shall
have and implement procedures that specify actions the Reliability Coordinator shall take or actions the RC will direct others to take (up to and including load shedding)

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13
Q

If a system operator is required to control its transmission facilities on a pre-contingency basis, which of the following actions would be appropriate if a system study indicated a potential emergency limit violation?
a. Reduce system frequency in order to reduce system load
b. Request an EEA 3 from the Reliability Coordinator
c. Reduce all interchange transactions to 0 regardless of their impact on the violation
d. Shift generation to eliminate the concern

A

D. Shifting generation around does not affect interchange if done in coordination

A - would only create inadvertent interchange and potentially violate frequency limits
B - EEA’s are for a BA and deal with generation deficiencies
C - this is just a dumb extra answer so I’m not going to explain it

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14
Q

Which of the following would result if there was a bad State Estimator solution?
a. The system would be on the verge of voltage collapse
b. EMS would be bogged down
c. The calculation of ATC would be wrong
d. Contingency Analysis program would produce incorrect results

A

D. This is what the estimator is used for

a- state estimator doesn’t actually control anything
b ?
c. Available Transfer Capacity would be based on real-time data. Not an estimator program

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15
Q

According to the NERC glossary, a constrained facility is defined as a transmission facility that is approaching, is at, or is beyond its:
a. Available transfer capability
b. Economic operating point
c. SOL or IROL
d. Normal voltage parameters

A

C.

A transmission facility (line, transformer, breaker, etc.) that is approaching, is at, or is beyond its System Operating Limit or Interconnection Reliability Operating Limit

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16
Q

Your system configuration presents you with a situation of having two parallel lines between two stations. The lines have different ratings. Line A has a rating of 250 MVA, while line B has a rating of 200 MVA. Based on the line ratings, what is the first contingency transfer capability between
the two stations?
a. 250 MVA
b. 450 MVA
c. 50 MVA
d. 200 MVA

A

D. Use the lowest limit

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17
Q

Which of the following defines the acceptable operating boundaries for the transmission system?
a. CPS 1&2
b. DCS
c. INLs
d. SOLs

A

d

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18
Q

Line A-B is overloaded with the flow going from Station A to Station B. The Reliability Coordinator has directed you to shed 20 MW of load to alleviate the overload. Which of the following is the best option to implement the directive?
a. Shed 0 MW at Station A and 20 MW at Station B
b. Shed 0 MW at Station A and 10 MW at Station B
c. Shed 10 MW at Station A and 10 MW at Station B
d. Shed 20 MW at Station A and 0 MW at Station B

A

A. Line AB is sending the MW FROM A to B. Shedding the load upstream of the line at station A will accomplish nothing because that will not decrease the downstream loading.

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19
Q

All flows are going from left to right
Line 1 >——->|—>—->Line 3
Line 2 >——->|—->—>Line 4
Gen 1 >——->|—–>–>Line 5

What happens if line 4 trips out of service?
a. The flow on Line 3 and Line 5 would increase
b. The flow on line 3 would increase and the flow on line 5 would decrease
c. Generator 1 would reduce its output
d. The flow on Line 2 would increase

A

A. If a line in parallel with another trips off, all parallel lines would pick up the load.

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20
Q

The Reliability Coordinator may use local transmission loading relief procedures if which of the following entities is experiencing a potential or actual SOL or IROL violation?
a. Reserve Sharing Group
b. Generator Operator
c. Transmission Operator
d. Balancing Authority

A

C.

LOCAL TLR so that does not mean the RSG. so not A

Gen Operators and BA’s do not actually own/operate any transmission lines so they don’t need them relieved. so not B or D

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21
Q

If a Transmission Operator is experiencing a SOL or IROL violation, how long does the entity have to correct the problem?
a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. None of these are correct

A

D
TOP-001-5 R12. Each Transmission Operator shall not operate outside any identified Interconnection Reliability Operating Limit (IROL) for a continuous duration exceeding its associated IROL Tv

TOP-001-5 R14. Has no time requirement for SOL violation

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22
Q

While performing a pre-outage study, you identify that the transmission outage will cause a thermal violation on a parallel path, which of the following actions would be the first one that you would implement?
a. Reschedule the outage if possible
b. Allow the outage to take place as long as no load is lost
c. Shed load to mitigate the concern
d. Allow the outage to occur and see what happens

A

A. Each Transmission Operator shall act to maintain the reliability of its Transmission Operator Area via its own actions or by issuing Operating Instructions.

C. Shedding load is the LAST option not the first

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23
Q

Which of the following would be a result of State Estimator failing to solve?
a. SCADA would stop working
b. All system tie-lines would trip
c. 10% of the load would have to shed
d. RTCA results would be flawed

A

D. Contingency analysis uses the model. Not scada/ controls / load shedding

By RTCA they mean Real Time Contingency Analysis

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24
Q

Which of the following actions should the system operator implement first if transmission line limits exceed the facilities emergency limits based on a contingency that has not yet occurred?
a. Curtail any interchange transactions that are curtailable
b. Only implement actions if the contingency occurs
c. Reduce voltages in the area of the violation
d. Remove the facility from service

A

A. TOP-001-5 R14. Each Transmission Operator shall initiate its Operating Plan to mitigate a SOL exceedance identified as part of its Real‐time monitoring or Real‐time Assessment

b-assessments are what gives us contingency analysis, so we act on those and dont wait for it to happen
c- generally transmission line contingencies are not voltage related
d. removing working facilities would decrease system reliability

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25
Q

If Line A has a flow of 500 MW and Line B had a LODF of .25 for the loss of line A. How much load would shift to line B if line A trips off?

a. 250 MW
b. 500 MW
c. 50 MW
d. 125 MW

A

d. 500 * .25 = 125

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26
Q

What is the major role of the EMS State Estimator?
a. Calculates SE values based on the telemetered data and system model
b. Establishes the values that the system operator must operate within
c. Identifies the contingencies that exist on the power system
d. Estimates the system load that is anticipated at the peak of the day

A

A. the stat estimator fills in values for things we don’t actually have metering for. This feeds into C. for contingency analysis, but that is actually done by other algorithms

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27
Q

If a reliability coordinator identifies that there is a potential transmission related problem within the area, who should they notify?
a. Other Reliability Coordinators in the Interconnection
b. Generation Operators in the area of the potential problem
c. All Purchasing Selling Entities
d. Marketers in the area

A

A is the only acceptable answer here. RC should also inform the TO for his area as well.

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28
Q

The next day analysis performed by the RC shall ensure that _____.
a. All interchange is scheduled
b. The load forecast is within 5% of actual
c. The bulk power system can be operated in anticipated normal contingency conditions
d. All unavailable generation and transmission made available

A

C. The ‘Reliability Coordinator’ is concerned about reliability

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29
Q

If a SOL or IROL violation occurs due to transfers across the system and it is determined that parallel flows are contributing to the violation, what should the system operator do?
a. Inform the Reliability Coordinator
b. Dump firm load
c. Place all system capacitors in service
d. Reduce system load

A

A. key word here is ‘parallel flows ACROSS the system’. shedding load wont do anything for something going all the way across, likely to another RC or BA.

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30
Q

The Contingency Analysis program identifies that there is a contingency on the system and provides a list of mitigating actions, what should the system operator do?
a. Request the operations support group to restart the EMS
b. Cancel all clearances across the system
c. Implement the actions immediately
d. Verify the Contingency analysis results before implementing actions

A

d. verify before taking action. Contingency does not equal emergency

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31
Q

The State Estimator provides calculated values that are then utilized by which of the following
System Operator’s tools?
a. Load forecasting system
b. Contingency analysis
c. RCIS
d. OASIS

A

b

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32
Q

Upon completion of their day-ahead studies, the reliability coordinator identifies potential problems on the transmission system during the day’s operation, which of the following should
the Reliability Coordinator notify?
a. Regional Reliability Organization
b. NERC
c. RCs in the Interconnection
d. Department of Energy

A

C

A doesnt exist. B doesn’t care D really doesn’t care

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33
Q

When contingency analysis is run and results indicate that a potential problem exists, these results should be made available to which of the following?
a. All PSEs in the area
b. All PSEs and LSEs
c. Planning Group
d. System Operators

A

D

NERC says that system operators should be provided notification of potential issues.

A and B were deleted from NERC. No such thing as a planning group in NERC

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34
Q

Which of the following systems was put in place to provide Reliability Coordinators with a mechanism to handle energy deficiencies?
a. Energy Emergency Alerts
b. Maximum Generation Alerts
c. NERC Threat Cons
d. DOE Reporting Requirements

A

A. EEA level 0-3

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35
Q

Each operating authority should periodically practice ____.
a. Simulated emergencies
b. Real-time abnormal operating conditions
c. Real-time restorations
d. RRO load shedding

A

A. simulations are safer than b and c

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36
Q

Igneous rock formations would tend to be the areas where equipment would be most impacted as a result of which of the following?

a. Geo-magnetic Disturbances
b. Low Voltage Events
c. Severe Thunder Storms
d. Load/generation Imbalance

A

A. The rocks provide a path for current flow in the crust

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37
Q

Which of the following information would be required to be submitted to the Reliability Coordinator for completion of system studies?
a. Load, cost projections, generation
b. Load, generation, reserve projections
c. Load, generation, projected system cost
d. Reserve costs, critical facility status, load

A

B. Even without knowing any of this just look how all the other answers say something about cost. RC does RELIABILITY not cost.

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38
Q

Who is responsible to disseminate GMD information?
a. Reliability coordinators
b. Balancing Authorities
c. Regional Reliability Organization
d. Transmission Operators

A

a

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39
Q

Each Balancing Authority and transmission operator shall coordinate (where confidentiality agreements allow) its current-day, next-day, and seasonal planning and operations with neighboring Balancing Authorities and Transmission Operators and with its _____.
a. Generator Operator
b. Reliability Coordinator
c. Market Participator
d. Transmission Service Provider

A

b

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40
Q

If a Balancing Authority has identified that it will have insufficient reserves due to high loads and unexpected generation outages and they have been unable to obtain any assistance from their neighbors, what should the Balancing Authority do next?
a. Seek assistance from the Reliability Coordinator
b. Request the LSE to shed load
c. Ask the Transmission operator to reduce generator MVAR output
d. Notify NERC that compliance to DCS could be impacted

A

A. send up an EEA

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41
Q

If a Balancing Authority operator identifies that the generation resources cannot meet the estimated load forecast, what should they do?
a. Lower the load estimate
b. Curtail system purchases
c. Recalculate ATC
d. Notify the Reliability Coordinator

A

D.

A would be fraud, B would decrease generation, C doing a math problem twice doesn’t change the answer, even if available transfer capacity would change anything

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42
Q

If a Balancing Authority is experiencing a capacity deficiency and has no additional generation to bring on-line, which of the following actions should be considered first?
a. Schedule emergency power regardless of cost
b. Open all transmission facilities in the heavy load areas
c. Contact all LSEs to shed firm load
d. Request a system voltage reduction

A

A. Buy more capacity from someone else

B. C. shedding load is LAST
D. Voltage has nothing to do with load

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43
Q

It is important for system operators to monitor parameters of the electric system such as MW flows, voltages, and frequencies. This is needed to indicate:
a. Strength of the electric system
b. Their tie-line transfer capability
c. Time error
d. ACE deviations

A

A. K. A. reliability

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44
Q

Which of the following is the organization that issues Geo-Magnetic activity alerts?
a. NOAA
b. Local RRO
c. FERC
d. NERC

A

A

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45
Q

In order to be compliant with NERC standard, what is the maximum time that it can take a Transmission Operator to evacuate their primary control center and get to their backup control center?
a. 30 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 4 hours

A

C

E-008-2 R 1.5

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46
Q

If a system operator makes the determination that reliable operations cannot be maintained operating from the primary control center, the System Operator should do which of the
following?
a. Wait to receive direction from the Operations Manager
b. Turn the operation over to the Reliability Coordinator
c. Initiate evacuation to the backup control facility
d. Call in additional personnel

A

C. do your job, don’t be a wuss

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47
Q

If a transmission operator has lost functionality of their EMS, what actions should the System Operator take?
a. Wait until the functionality is restored regardless of how long it takes
b. Request building services to swap over to the control center back up power supply
c. Swap over to backup server or evacuate to backup control center
d. Inform operations management and let them decide what to do

A

C. Do your job

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48
Q

If a System Operator has lost monitoring capability in their control center, how long do they have before it must be reported to NERC and the DOE?
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 6 months

A

B

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49
Q

A transmission line between Bus A and Bus B has MW flow from Bus B to Bus A. After tripping of a parallel line, the line flow from Bus B to Bus A exceeds the lines thermal rating. Which of the following actions would assist the operator in correcting the problem?
a. Decrease generation at Bus A
b. Increase Generation at Bus A
c. Increase generation at Bus B
d. Shed load at Bus B

A

B.
B is powering A, so if A generates its own power the flow from B to A will go down

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50
Q

Which of the following situations would be an appropriate reason to manually shed load?
a. High system transfers
b. Regulating reserve deficiency
c. Provide emergency assistance to external parties
d. Continuous drop in frequency

A

D. If frequency cannot be arrested then there is too much load that is bogging down your generators. They do not have enough power to keep pushing that much current which causes them to slow down like a semi-truck going uphill. Getting rid of the excess load would speed them back up, like a semi-truck that has crested the hill.

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51
Q

Z —–100MW—>|–Line 1—–??MW————>|
############|—Line 2—–??MW———–>|——->
Gen2–100MW–>|—Line 3——??MW———->|

Line 1 has a DF of .4, Line 2 has a DF of .3, and line 3 has a DF of .3. What would be the flow on line 3?

A

B. 200*.3=60

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52
Q

When a transmission operator enters into an unknown operating state, how long do they have to return their system to a known state?
a. 10 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 60 minutes

A

C

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53
Q

Returning system frequency to normal following a disturbance is the responsibility of the _____.
a. Reliability coordinator
b. Contingent Balancing Authority
c. All Balancing Authorities in the Interconnection
d. Regional monitor

A

B.
This is what the frequency bias is for in ACE. External entities will pick up load to make ACE = 0 proportional to their size to stabilize frequency. Deficient BA needs to get generation back to take their load back and get frequency back to 60.

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54
Q

Your system has experienced a system shutdown and you are in the process of restoring your system. A generator in a particular area of your system is pushing MVAR out to the system. As you restore another transmission line in the same area, without restoring any additional load, what would be the expected impact on the generator during the line restoration?
a. MW output would increase
b. MVAR output would decrease
c. MW and MVAR output would remain unchanged
d. MVAR output would increase to maximum

A

B.

The open ended line will act as a capacitor due to line to ground insulation being capacitive

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55
Q

Which of the following must each Transmission Operator ensure the availability and location of within its area to meet the needs of the restoration plan?
a. Reactive reserves
b. Sufficient generation
c. Black start capability
d. Transmission paths

A

C

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56
Q

Black start capabilities should be verified by _____.
a. Simulation
b. Whenever practicable
c. Periodic testing
d. As required by the reliability coordinator

A

C. Tested periodically by generator owner, notification of results to TO within 30 days. Should be started and placed on a bus, if possible.

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57
Q

According to NERC Standards, the Transmission Operator’s system restoration plan shall be approved by _______.
a. NERC
b. Its Reliability Coordinator
c. RRO
d. Neighboring Transmission Operator

A

B. RC then coordinates all plans with everyone in area

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58
Q

If a system is experiencing a capacity deficiency, generation and transmission facilities shall be used to the fullest extent practicable to promptly restore the system to normal frequency and voltage and return ACE to acceptable performance. This is done by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Scheduling assistance
b. Load reduction programs
c. Using up operating reserves
d. Reducing generation output

A

D. Gen output going down would decrease capacity

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59
Q

A reliability coordinator will notify other reliability coordinators within his interconnection any time a balancing authority within its reliability coordinator area is experiencing an Energy Emergency at what level of EEA:
a. Energy emergency Alert Level 1
b. Energy emergency Alert Level 2
c. Energy emergency Alert Level 3
d. Energy emergency Alert Level 4

A

B. At level 2 the RC will alert everyone and post the EEA alert on RCIS to notify all RCs at the BA’s request.

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60
Q

What is the initial response to a drop in frequency due to the loss of a 1,000 MW generator?
a. System inertia
b. Operator intervention
c. AGC
d. Load dump

A

A. The inertia of the generators already spinning is going to arrest frequency slightly

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61
Q

Dry steam plants, flash steam plants, and binary-cycle power plants are the three main types of
what kind of generating plant?
a. Nuclear generators
b. Combustion turbine generators
c. Hydroelectric generators
d. Geothermal generators

A

D

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62
Q

When a time error correction is implemented, the scheduled system frequency is off-set by how
many Hz?
a) .02
b) .05
c) .2
d) .01

A

A

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63
Q

If a system frequency drops but remains above the underfrequency relay settings, what would be the impact on system load?

a. Load would also drop
b. Load would probably increase
c. Load would oscillate
d. There is no impact

A

A.

Frequency down => Motor speed down => Motor load down

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64
Q

Which one of the following is a function of excitation control systems?
a. Adjust the fuel supply and air flow to the boiler to match the actual and anticipated
requirements for steam pressure
b. Adjust the speed of the shaft by adjusting the amount of steam supplied to the turbine
c. Control the steam flow from the boiler to the turbine
d. Control the generator’s terminal voltage as well as its reactive output

A

D.

Excitation is the adjustment of current flowing through the rotor of a generator.

Rotor current up => Magnetic field around rotor up=> Stronger field going through stator windings as rotor spins => more induced voltage in stator => stator voltage goes up => system voltage goes up

and vice versa

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65
Q

What is the typical reason for unit cycling constraints?
a. Friction
b. Voltage problems
c. Manpower cost
d. Thermal stress

A

D.

If you stop a turbine the blades stop spinning (obviously). However, what is not obvious is that when the turbine blades stop the heat stops going out of the turbine as well because no blades are spinning. Therefore, the turbine gets hot from the left over energy and you can’t start the turbine again until it cools down. If you started it while it was still hot, you would get a bunch of (relatively) cool air coming into the intake and cause a thermal shock.

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66
Q

During the restoration of your system, what are the two major elements that you should be aware of in order to maintain good frequency control (controlling toward 60Hz) of your system?

a. System load and generator output
b. Interchange schedules and inadvertent
c. Underfrequency and out-of-step relay protection
d. Interchange in and out of your system

A

A.

Steady state = (ideally) 60Hz. Any change in load or generation would change frequency.

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67
Q

Which of the following would be the least helpful for performing a load forecast?
a. Wind
b. Humidity
c. Forced outages
d. Temperature

A

C.

you can plan for planned outages, but not forced outages

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68
Q

Data required for the calculation of ACE is acquired on which of the following time intervals?
a. 6 seconds
b. 8 seconds
c. 10 seconds
d. 4 seconds

A

A

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69
Q

The system is operating at 60 Hz, a generator operating at 1800 RPM has 4 pole pairs, how many pole pairs will a generator operating at 600 RPM require in order to maintain the 60 Hz frequency?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 6

A

F=(N*P)/120
F=Hz N=Speed P=Poles 120=120

Therefore,
(60*120)/600 = 12 = C

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70
Q

Each balancing authority shall operate its AGC on _______, unless such operation is adverse to system or Interconnection reliability.
a. Net interchange
b. Tie line frequency bias
c. Manual
d. Constant frequency

A

B

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71
Q

The system operator can obtain voltage support from generating units by requesting them to increase their:
a. Ramp rate
b. MW output
c. Frequency response characteristics
d. Generator excitation

A

D

Excitation is the adjustment of current flowing through the rotor of a generator.

Rotor current up => Magnetic field around rotor up=> Stronger field going through stator windings as rotor spins => more induced voltage in stator => stator voltage goes up => system voltage goes up

and vice versa

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72
Q

Which of the following types of generation resources would utilize a process of fission or fusion?
a. Nuclear generators
b. Combustion turbine generators
c. Hydroelectric generators
d. Geothermal generators

A

A

Atoms exploding = electricity

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73
Q

You are operating on a hot summer day when the system is near record loads, you receive a report that severe thunder storms and rain are coming into your area, if the heavy rain occurs, what would be the expected impact on your system load?
a. System load should decrease
b. System load should remain unchanged
c. System load would remain the same, but voltages would drop
d. System load should increase

A

A.

Rain = cooling = temp down = less Air conditioning

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74
Q

Each balancing authority area or reserve sharing group must review its contingencies on a/an _______ basis.
a. Annual
b. As requested by NERC
c. Semi-annually
d. Quarterly

A

A

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75
Q

Which of the NERC Performance Standards provide the best indicator that the balancing area is maintaining the appropriate amount of contingency reserves on the system?
a. BAAL
b. System response surveys
c. DCS
d. CPS1

A

C.

Disturbance Control Standard

BAAL = ACE limit
CPS1 = Frequency response measurement

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76
Q

In order for a generator to qualify as spinning reserve, it must be:
a. A non-nuclear facility
b. Synchronized to the system
c. Able to attain its full output within 15 minutes
d. Larger than 25 MW

A

B

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77
Q

At the request of the Balancing Authority or ______, a generator operator shall perform generating real and reactive capability verification.
a. Market operator
b. Transmission owner
c. Transmission operator
d. Market participant

A

C

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78
Q

If you are operating in tie-line bias control and your EMS system loses its frequency signal. What mode of operation should you switch to?
a. Flat-tie line
b. Flat-frequency
c. Maintain current operating mode
d. Frequency bias

A

A. only use (NIa - NIs) so frequency doesn’t matter

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79
Q

What would be the impact on a Balancing Area’s ACE if the frequency bias is 250/.1 Hz and a time error correction were started?
a. 50 MW
b. 125 MW
c. 250 MW
d. 25 MW

A

A
TEC = a change of .02 Hz, which is 1/5 of .1

Therefore,
250*.2 = 50

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80
Q

ACME Balancing Authority Area’s ACE is operating at zero, its frequency bias setting is 500 MW/0.1 Hz and the system frequency is 60.00 Hz. If another Balancing Area in the interconnection loses a generator which causes the frequency to drop to 59.97 Hz. What will
ACME Balancing Authority Area’s frequency bias response be to the frequency excursion?
a. 100 MW
b. 150 MW
c. 200 MW
d. 50 MW

A

B.

ACE = (NIa-NIs) + (-10)(B)(Fa-Fs)

They just want to know how frequency bias is going to change generation so we don’t worry about net interchange.

-10-500(59.97-60) = 5000*-.03 = -150 = answer B

Furthermore, this other BA going down is expected to suck out 150 MW from us making NIa go up by 150. Frequency bias is going to subtract 150 from that and keep ACE at 0. Otherwise, AGC would have saw that +150 and brought generation down, resulting in a further decrease in BES frequency.

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81
Q

An appropriate use of a pseudo-tie is to:
a. Determine ATC
b. Account for joint owned generation
c. Pay back inadvertent
d. Off-set meter error

A

B

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82
Q

Of the following system elements, which has the least impact on the system’s Area Control Error?
a. Changes in system load
b. Changes in generator MW output
c. Changes in the Interconnection frequency
d. Changes in the generator MVAR output

A

D.

ACE = MW - MW - 10 BHz/.1*Hz-Hz
No MVAR in this equation

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83
Q

Which of the following types of units are normally operated as baseload units?
a. Nuclear units and hydro units
b. Fossil-fuel units (coal, oil, and gas)
c. Nuclear units and coal units
d. Nuclear units and combustion turbines

A

C.

both nuclear and coal plants run off of steam generation. steam needs to be made constantly in order to be efficient, therefore they run at pretty much full load

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84
Q

NERC requires that each Balancing Authority verifies and agrees with its neighboring Balancing Authorities at least once a day for the _____.
a. Total scheduled and actual interchange
b. Voltage schedules in the bordering areas
c. Interchange schedules impacted by special protection schemes
d. Unused transmission rights

A

A. The job of a BA is to balance interchange. They can’t do that if they don’t agree on what WAS interchanged.

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85
Q

All of the following are appropriate actions for an operator to take when a time correction has been issued EXCEPT:
a. Start time error correction at designated time
b. Log the time correction
c. Have plant operators adjust governor output manually
d. Enter new scheduled frequency into control system

A

C. Tie line bias control changes regulating reserve generators automatically when you change ACE

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86
Q

If a balancing area’s frequency bias is 80 MW/ 0.1 Hz, what would be the impact on the area’s ACE if the system frequency dropped to 59.97 Hz?
a. 24 MW
b. 40 MW
c. 80 MW
d. 8MW

A

ACE = NIa - NIs + (-10)(-80)(59.97-60)
= 800*-.03 = -24

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87
Q

During a system emergency, the Balancing Authority and Transmission operator shall immediately take action to restore the _____ power balance.
a. Scheduled and actual
b. Generation and interchange
c. Real and reactive
d. Static and dynamic

A

C

A and D don’t exist
B - TO doesn’t care about interchange

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88
Q

|—L1 60MW—|
|—L2 60MW—|
|—L3 OOS——|

If L1,L2,L3 have identical impedance, what would load be on L1 if L3 was put back in service?

A

120 / 3 = 40

Parallel paths with identical impedance = identical current flow = Identical Power flow

V=IR => P=IE

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89
Q

Each Transmission Operator shall arrange for supply of _____ resources within its boundaries to protect the voltage levels under contingency conditions.
a. Generation
b. Transmission
c. Regulating
d. Reactive

A

d. Reactive

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90
Q

Which of the following equipment would be considered a dynamic reactive resource?
a. Shunt capacitor
b. Shunt reactor
c. Switchable capacitor
d. Generator

A

D

Can’t change capacitor or reactor ratings => not dynamic

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91
Q

Which direction will the MVAR typically flow?
c. Uphill based on power angle
d. Downhill based on power angle

A

D

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92
Q

Relay schemes should be designed so that automatic re-closing during _____ conditions should be prevented.
a. TLR
b. System Restoration
c. Thunderstorm
d. Out-of-step

A

D

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93
Q

If a 230 kV line is loaded at its SIL, and a parallel line trips, the 230 kV line will display the
characteristics of what reactive device?
a. Wave trap
b. Shunt reactor
c. System inductor
d. Shunt capacitor

A

B

At SIL capacitance of line = reactance of line
Load above = reactor
below = capacitor

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94
Q

If a system operator is faced with a situation where a transmission line has exceeded its emergency rating, which of the following actions is NOT acceptable?
a. Switch the transmission line out of service
b. Implement a generation re-dispatch
c. Increase the emergency rating of the line
d. Shed enough load to reduce the line loading

A

C

You cant change a number in your protection system and expect the line to magically be okay.

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95
Q

System losses that impact voltage are the result of which of the following?
a. Current squared times impedance
b. Current times impedance squared
c. Square root of MW squared plus megavar squared
d. Square root of current and impedance squared

A

A

(I^2 * R) losses aka copper losses is the loss of voltage the longer a cable gets due to the resistance (impedance) of the cable. Therefore, as the line gets longer you will need to waste exponentially more MW to get the same power to the end of the line as it gets sucked up by copper losses.

This equation is gotten to by using ohms law in conjunction with the power equation to get power using only current and resistance.
V=IR
P=IV => P=IIR or I^2*R

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96
Q

What would the impedance be for a series circuit that has an AC voltage source and a resistance of
40 ohms, inductive reactance of 1.13 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 531 ohms?

|—–R——-XL——-XC—|
|———-V——————|

A

531.37

Z = sqrt (R^2+(XL-Xc)^2)

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97
Q

Which of the following system elements would be considered reactive power sources?
1. Generators
2. Shunt reactors
3. Transformers
4. Synchronous condensers

a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 3 and 4

A

C

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98
Q

You receive indication that all of the CBs on a Bus have opened and locked out, which of the
following relays would you expect to have operated?
a. 87B
b. 59G
c. 21-1
d. 87T

A

A

This is a bit of a strange question. Your differential (87) would open the breakers (which makes it an 87B). However, the 87 would then tell your 86 (Lockout relay) to roll, which is what LOCKs them OUT from shutting again. However, the 86 does not operate independently and if ALL the breakers on the same bus open it is almost always an 87 that happened. That is the only relay that would open ALL breakers on a single bus (that I am aware of). Differential is looking at Power-in = Power-out on the whole bus, so all breakers open if it trips.

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99
Q

Which of the following devices would you use if you were calculating dynamic reactive reserve for your system?

a. Transformers
b. Shunt reactors
c. Generators
d. Shunt capacitors

A

C

How many times are they going to ask this same question?

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100
Q

(# = Blank Space)
#########(X)
L1<————-CB1———–>L2
####|#########|
###CB4 (X)####CB2 (X)
####|#########|—————<Gen 1
L4<————CB3————>L3
#####(Locked-Open)

Circuit breaker 3 is out of service for maintenance work and there is a fault on line 1, which of
the following would be an impact on the ring bus and lines?
a. CB 4 would open and CB 3 would close
b. CB 2 would open and CB 3 would close
c. Line 1 would be the only de-energized line from this station
d. Line 4 would be de-energized from this station

A

D.

For a fault on L1, CB1 would most likely trip since it is powering L1 (and L4). That would mean L4 and L1 would both be de-energized. CB3 is locked-out for maintenance so it cannot be shut. If CB3 was not out of commission, CB4 AND CB1 would have tripped, then you could shut CB3 as per answer A.

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101
Q

Bus 5
|
|——X–Transformer—G3
|—O—-G4
|—X—Capacitor

If a high voltage condition exists on Bus 5, which of the following actions should you take first to lower voltage?
a. Remove bus 5 capacitor from service
b. Reduce MVAR on GEN 3
c. Adjust the taps on GEN 3 transformer
d. Start GEN 4 to absorb MVAR

A

A

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102
Q

What is the impact on a station of placing a shunt inductor in service?
a. Voltage up
b. Adds MVAR
c. Voltage down
d. MVAR constant

A

C
Inductors absorb MVARs and decrease voltage

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103
Q

Your system voltages are extremely high during a light load midnight period, all of your capacitors are off and all of your reactors are on, a 500 kV transmission line is loaded below its surge impedance loading, what can be done to reduce the impact of the transmission line on system voltage?
1. Reduce the loading on the line some more
2. Remove the line from service if it has been pre-studied
3. Load the line above its SIL
4. Open-end the line

a. 2 & 3
b. 1 & 2
c. 1 & 4
d. 3 & 4

A

A

Removing a long light loaded line would decrease MVAR due to losing the capacitance built up on the line

Adding load to the line to SIL would make capacitance = inductance

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104
Q

What would be an appropriate situation for the system operator to shed load?
a. Transmission facility is loaded at 130% of its emergency limit, voltages are decaying
rapidly, and no other actions are available
b. System frequency is 59.98 Hz and a 50 MW interchange transaction is cancelled
c. Underfrequency load shed relays have activated and frequency is currently 60.04 Hz
d. Balancing area is undergenerating by 50 MW and the only generation that is available to
correct the problem is high cost facilities

A

A. key words: No other actions are available

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105
Q

Station A
|—-Gen 1
|—-Load1
|——Reactor——–| Station B
|##|—CB—–|###|
#####Line3####|——–Load3
#############|——–Load2
#############|—————-Gen 2
#############|

If Line 3 in the identified system has a rating of 125 MW and a current flow of 150 MW from
Station B to Station A, what action can be implemented that would result in a reduction of the
flow on Line 3?
a. Open the reactor bypass CB
b. Decrease GEN 1 by 50 MW
c. Disconnect load 3
d. Reduce load at Load 2

A

A

Placing reactor in service would increase line impedance and decrease flows

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106
Q

(# = Blank Space)
34MVA->#######################<-99MVA
A—————–SW101—–SW320—–SW352————B
#######| ############## |#######|
##### 21MVA Load ######61MVA ###51MVA Load
######################Load
Based on the loads provided and the power flow, what will be the power flow across switches
101 and 320?
a. 13 MVA
b. 34 MVA
c. 48 MVA
d. 99 MVA

A

A

34-21 = 13MVA from A to 101 after load
99-51 = 48MVA from B to 352 after load
48+13MVA = 61MVA Load => No back flows across 101/320

=> 13MVA across 101 and 320

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107
Q

Where does reactive power provide the greatest benefit?
a. Only on the bulk transmission line
b. Near the generation resource
c. Near the load
d. Near the substation facility

A

C

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108
Q

Which of the following would be a concern if you were operating on the system with an
open-ended transmission line?
a. Transmission loops flows
b. Ferranti-rise effect
c. Reactive depletion
d. Exceeding surge impedance loading

A

B

Voltages rise because an open line is a big capacitor between the line and ground. That is the RISE part in Ferranti-rise

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109
Q

If a 100 MVAR shunt capacitor is operated at 90% of its rated voltage, what would the actual
MVAR output of the capacitor be?
a. 81 MVAR
b. 75 MVAR
c. 100 MVAR
d. 90 MVAR

A

A

(Rated/Actual)^2 = .9*.9 = .81

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110
Q

If a transmission operator is requested to operate a transmission line to its short time rating, this
means that the facility can be operated above which of the following?
a. Emergency rating
b. Normal continuous rating
c. 175% of the MVA limit
d. 150% of the line rating

A

B.

You normally operate for long-time use of the line. Power company doesn’t want to be replacing lines all the time. Therefore short-time would have higher ratings. Emergency would be its own even shorter time rating.

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111
Q

Surge Impedance Loading refers to which of the following?
a. MW loading at which the MVAR production of the transmission line matches its usage
b. MW loading at which reactive power production is maximized
c. MVAR loading at which the MW production of the transmission line matches its usage
d. MVAR loading of the transmission line is maximized

A

A

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112
Q

In order for each Transmission Operator to protect its system’s voltage levels under normal and Contingency conditions, they must acquire which of the following?
a. Dynamic reactive resources
b. Sufficient reactive resources
c. Sufficient transmission capacity
d. Sufficient generation supplies

A

B - Means static and dynamic reserves, not just dynamic

C+D is MW levels not voltage

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113
Q

An Event Reporting Form must be submitted for a system disturbance that meets NERC criteria
for reporting and must be completed within _________.
a. 24 hours
b. 60 days
c. 30 days
d. 12 hours

A

A. (or end of next business day)

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114
Q

According to NERC Standards, data acquisition and calculation for the Balancing Area’s ACE
should occur every:
a. 4 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 6 seconds
d. 2 seconds

A

c

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115
Q

Which of the following is NOT something that each Balancing Authority must agree on with adjacent Balancing Authorities at least once a day?
a. On-peak scheduled interchange
b. Off-peak scheduled interchange
c. On-peak actual interchange
d. Unused transmission capacity

A

D

BAs care about actual/scheduled interchange.

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116
Q

Reliability Coordinators, Transmission Operators, and Balancing Authorities are required to have written instructions for the loss of telecommunication facilities. These instructions are supposed to:
a. Enable continued operation of the system
b. Provide a step-by-step procedures for implementing
c. Be approved by the Regional Reliability Organization
d. Be updated monthly

A

A

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117
Q

If a Reliability Coordinator foresees a transmission problem such as an SOL or IROL violation within its area they are required to notify all impacted Transmission operators and Balancing Authorities in its area, and all impacted RCs within the Interconnection using the:
a. RCIS
b. NERcom
c. OASIS
d. NERC Telecommunications Manager

A

A

118
Q

Each Reliability Coordinator shall have what type of communications capabilities with its Transmission operators and Balancing Authorities, and with neighboring Reliability Coordinators?
a. Digital
b. Satellite
c. Multi-directional
d. Redundant

A

D (and diversly routed)

119
Q

Each Balancing Authority shall have _____ for when there is a loss of telecommunications.
a. Redundant systems
b. Satellite phones
c. A plan
d. Data recorders

A

C
It should also be redundant, but you will have to have a plan to tell you how to turn on the other system.

120
Q

A NERC Event Report is required for all of the following events EXCEPT:
a. System wide voltage reduction of 3% or more
b. Voltage excursion of +/- 10% for > 15 continuous minutes
c. Automatic firm load shedding of 50 MW
d. Manual load shedding of > 100 MW

A

C
Reportable: Firm load shedding ≥ 100 MW (manual or automatic)

121
Q

Because of the importance of telemetered data, it is imperative that the system operator ensures that the values are verified:
a. Every hour
b. Only when an alarm is received
c. Every shift
d. Continuously

A

D. Real-time monitoring = Continuously as seen in TOP-010:

Real-time monitoring, or monitoring the Bulk Electric System (BES) in Real-time, is a primary
function of Reliability Coordinators (RCs), Transmission Operators (TOPs), and Balancing
Authorities (BAs).

122
Q

If a Balancing Authority is unable to calculate ACE for more than _____ minutes it shall notify its Reliability Coordinator.
a. 30
b. 90
c. 60
d. 15

A

A. If no ace > 30 min notifity RC within 45 min

123
Q

Which of the following entities are allowed to share all information known related to area interchange transactions?
a. Balancing Authorities
b. Transmission Operators
c. Reliability Coordinators
d. Transmission Service Providers

A

C

(Not sure where this is stated in NERC, may be old news)

124
Q

If your major transmission path is rated for 1,200 MW and 1,000 MW are scheduled on it, but due to parallel flows the actual flow is 1,300 MW, what action should you take?
a. Reduce all commercial customer load
b. Request all parallel flow PSEs to increase schedules
c. Reduce interchange transactions impacting the path
d. Request that a phase shifting transformer be installed

A

C

125
Q

How soon does a Transmission Operator have to correct an IROL or SOL violations resulting from reactive resource deficiencies?
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 5 minutes
e. None of the above

A

E.

SOL should be immediately corrected and then RC informed

IROL must be corrected within its Tv

126
Q

If State Estimator fails to solve, what action should the System Operator take?
a. Call EMS Support Personnel to get SE running
b. Evacuate to the backup control facility
c. Call IT to reset the corporate computer system
d. Implement the results of Contingency Analysis anyways

A

A.

Must run a scan every 30 minutes.

127
Q

What type of study would be performed to ensure that the area is able to operate under actual and potential conditions?
a. Contingency Analysis
b. Spinning Response Study
c. NERC Inadvertent Survey
d. Seasonal Evaluations

A

A

128
Q

If a Reliability Coordinator in area B observes an operational concern, such as declining voltages or an IROL violation, in a neighboring Reliability Coordinator Area C, which of the following entities should Reliability Coordinator B contact?
a. Reliability Coordinator C’s regional council
b. NERC Director of Compliance
c. All entities operating in Area B
d. Reliability Coordinator C

A

D

129
Q

What is the purpose of coordinating planned transmission outages with the Reliability Coordinator?
a. So the RC knows to adjust its ATC
b. To allow the RC to include the outages in their analysis
c. So the RC can impose the outage penalty fee
d. To create tasks for the Reliability Coordinator

A

B

130
Q

If a system operator is required to control its transmission facilities on a pre-contingency basis, which of the following actions would be appropriate if a system study indicated a potential emergency limit violation?
a. Shift generation to eliminate the concern
b. Reduce system frequency in order to reduce system load
c. Request an EEA 3 from the Reliability Coordinator
d. Reduce all interchange transactions to 0 regardless of their impact on the violation

A

A

131
Q

Which of the following actions should the system operator implement first if transmission line limits exceed the facilities emergency limits based on a contingency that has not yet occurred, but their protocols are to respond on a pre-contingency basis?
a. Curtail any interchange transactions that are curtailable
b. Only implement actions if the contingency occurs
c. Remove the facility from service
d. Reduce voltages in the area of the violation

A

A

132
Q

The Study Power Flow tool provides the System Operator with the ability to do which of the following?
a. Run State Estimator and determine if the results are valid
b. Add additional contingencies to the CA program
c. Run state estimator, incorporate the results into outage coordination program, make notifications
d. Take snapshot of system, adjust system model, run CA on study

A

D

133
Q

It is determined that as a result of a scheduled outage, contingency analysis indicates that a single contingency may threaten system reliability. Which actions should the system operator implement?
a. Schedule emergency power from neighboring BA
b. Ask BA to schedule additional exports
c. Request engineering to change operating limits
d. Cancel the scheduled outage and return equipment to service

A

D

134
Q

When a Transmission Operator enters into an unknown operating state, how long do they have to return their system to a known state?
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 10 minutes

A

B

135
Q

If the System operator reviews the results of Contingency Analysis and has some reservations about the results of the program, what should they do?
a. Obtain support to verify the CA results
b. Restart the EMS computers
c. Issue alerts to all neighboring systems
d. Implement actions immediately to mitigate identified contingencies

A

A

136
Q

What is the relationship between the Study Power Flow program and Contingency Analysis?
a. Contingency Analysis can be run off the results of Study Power Flow
b. There is no relationship between SPF and CA
c. SPF and CA are the same program
d. SPF uses CA to solve

A

A

137
Q

(# = Blank Space)
|—-Gen 1
|—-Load1
|———————–| Station B
####Line3#### |
############ |——–Load3
############ |——–Load2
############ |—————-Gen 2
############ |
Line 3 between Station A and Station B is exceeding its limit in the A to B direction. Which of the following actions would assist in reducing the line loading on Line 3?

a. Reducing load at Load 1
b. Increasing Generator 2 MW output
c. Reducing Generator 2 MVAR output
d. Increasing Generator 1 MVAR output

A

B

138
Q

Generator 2 is currently putting out 100 MW. There is 0 MW coming from System Z. The MW flow on the lines is as follows: Line 1 has 50 MW from A to B, Line 2 has 25 MW from A to B, and Line 3 has 25 MW from A to B. If 100 MW were to flow in from System Z, what would be the new MW flow on line 1? (# = blank space)
Bus A Bus B
Z ———0MW—>|–Line 1—–50MW————>|
_########### |—Line 2—–25MW———–>|——->
Gen2–100MW–>|—Line 3——25MW———->|

a. 100 MW
b. 50 MW
c. 25 MW
d. 75 MW

A

A.

L1 .5 200=100
L2 .25200=50
L3 .25*200=50

139
Q

L1–>|–>L3
L2–>|–>L4
G1->|–>L5
Which of the following statements identifies what the impacts would be if Line 1 trips out of service?
a. The flow on Line 2 would increase
b. The flow on line 5 would reverse direction
c. The output of generator 1 would double
d. Generator 1 would reduce its output

A

A.

Parallel lines will take load if one trips out.

We cant be sure what the generator would do, but more than likely whatever it does will require operator action.

140
Q

If a transmission operator is experiencing a SOL violation, what must be done?
a. Fix the problem and inform RC of what was done to fix problem
b. Fix the problem within 30 minutes and inform RC
c. Fix the problem, inform RC of what was done, file NERC EOP report
d. Open the breaker feeding the violation

A

A
Each Transmission Operator shall initiate its Operating Plan to mitigate a SOL
exceedance identified as part of its Real‐time monitoring or Real‐time Assessment.

Each Transmission Operator shall inform its Reliability Coordinator of actions taken to
return the System to within limits when a SOL has been exceeded.

141
Q

If a transmission operator is experiencing a IROL violation, how long does the entity have to correct the problem?
a. 20 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. Tv

A

D.
If an IROL is violated, it must be fixed within its assoicated Tv

142
Q

According to NERC standards, how often is the Reliability Coordinator required to perform a real-time assessment of the system?
a. Hourly
b. Every 60 minutes until the problem is mitigated
c. Once a day by 1500 PST or CST
d. At least once every 30 minutes

A

D

143
Q

Contingency Analysis indicates that if the High Ridge – Smith 345kV line trips, it will cause the Creek – Harris line flow to go from 150 MVA to 275 MVA. The Creek-Harris line has a limit of 285 MVA. What should the System Operator do?
a. Take no action but continue to monitor the situation
b. Re-start contingency analysis
c. Implement a generation re-dispatch
d. Shed load to reduce the loading projection

A

A

144
Q

According to the NERC glossary, a constrained facility is defined as a transmission facility that is approaching, is at, or is beyond its:
a. Normal voltage parameters
b. Available Transfer capability
c. Economic operating point
d. SOL or IROL

A

D

145
Q

If two parallel lines connecting Station A to Station B are rated at 350 MVA for Line 1 and 300 MVA for line 2, what is the contingency transfer capability between the two stations?
a. 350 MVA
b. 475 MVA
c. 650 MVA
d. 300 MVA

A

D

146
Q

If a SOL or IROL violation occurs due to transfers across the system and it is determined that
parallel flows are contributing to the violation, what should the system operator do?
a. Reduce system load
b. Place all system capacitors in service
c. Inform the reliability coordinator
d. Dump firm load

A

C

TO cant do anything about transmission outside their system

147
Q

While performing a pre-outage study, you identify that the transmission outage will cause a thermal violation on a parallel path, which of the following actions should be implemented FIRST?
a. Allow the outage to take place as long as no load is lost
b. Reschedule the outage if possible
c. Shed load to mitigate the concern
d. Allow the outage to occur and see what happens

A

B

148
Q

According to NERC Standards Transmission Operators, Balancing Authorities, Generator Operators, Transmission Service Providers are required to comply with Reliability Coordinator directives unless such actions would:
a. Cause additional financial obligations
b. Violate safety, equipment, or regulatory requirements
c. Require additional workload on the companies personnel
d. Be contrary to the companies operating philosophy

A

B

149
Q

Your system is experiencing a large amount of generator outages. While evaluating the system for the next-days operations you determine that the system will be short capacity if the load projection is realized. Which of the following actions would be the first action to implement?
a. Reduce all commercial customer load
b. Implement a voltage reduction
c. Remove environmental constraints from available generators
d. Attempt to cancel generator maintenance outages

A

D

150
Q

If your system is in a capacity shortage situation and one of the combustion turbines only has two hours of fuel available, which is the best two-hour period to operate the generator if your system peak load is at 1500?
a. 1400 to 1600
b. 1600 to 1800
c. 1200 to 1400
d. 1000 to 1200

A

A
Use it while you need it the most

151
Q

What is System Operator supposed to do when they receive notification of GMD activity of K-6?
a. Swap their EMS system power supply to the UPS system
b. Request the Reliability Coordinator to issue and EEA
c. Implement their company GMD response procedure
d. Reduce all transformer loadings to < than 50% loading

A

C

152
Q

According to NERC Standards, how often is the Reliability Coordinator required to perform a real-time assessment of the system?
a. Every 60 minutes until the problem is mitigated
b. Once a day by 1500 PST or CST
c. Hourly
d. At least once every 30 minutes

A

D

153
Q

Which NERC function is responsible to disseminate GMD Alert information?
a. Reliability Coordinators
b. Regional Reliability organization
c. Generation Operators
d. Distribution Providers

A

A

154
Q

Each Balancing Area must ensure that there are enough Contingency reserves maintained to:
a. Cover the most severe single contingency
b. Recover from multiple contingencies
c. Cover 150% of the regulation requirement
d. Handle their two worst contingencies

A

A

155
Q

Each Transmission Operator and Balancing Authority shall have emergency plans that will enable it to:
a. Restore the system to normal within 10 minutes
b. Prevent any emergency condition from occurring
c. Mitigate operating emergencies
d. Cover all possible contingencies without violating any limits

A

C

A) 15 mins for BA to recover per DCS
D) that is a TO requirement

156
Q

The reliability coordinator is required to comply with which of the following?
a. Balancing Authority directives
b. Generator Operator schedules
c. Transmission Operator logging protocol
d. Regional Reliability Plan

A

D

157
Q

What would the system operator expect to see on the power system if the Aurora Borealis was very bright?
a. Increased heating in transformers
b. Disabling of zone 3 relays
c. Reduction in power system spinning reserves
d. Increased output from shunt capacitors

A

A

158
Q

Who is responsible to ensure that the generation is scheduled to meet the load and cover the reserves and inform the reliability coordinator of any deficiencies?
a. Generator operator
b. Purchasing selling entity
c. Balancing authority
d. Transmission operator

A

C

159
Q

If it is discovered during day-ahead studies that interchange schedules will cause limit violations, what should the system operator do?
a. Determine what interchange will be cancelled
b. Raise the limit
c. Notify the parties involved when the violation is identified
d. Wait for real-time to implement any actions

A

A

160
Q

If all communications in the control center are lost, what is the time period that they must be unavailable before it must be reported to NERC and DOE?
a. 20 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 45 minutes
d. 60 minutes

A

B

EOP 005 reportable complete loss of comms criteria:
Complete loss of Interpersonal Communication and Alternative Interpersonal Communication capability affecting its staffed BES control center for 30 continuous minutes or more

161
Q

During a restoration effort that involves the restoration of islands, load restoration pick-ups should not exceed what percentage of synchronized generation capacity?
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 12%

A

B

This thumb rule comes from a 1993 pdf that was somehow relevant until 2017 when it was retired in a committee meeting and erased from the NERC website completely

162
Q

A Balancing Authority that has experienced an operating capacity emergency, shall promptly balance its ____ and _____ to its load.
a. Generation and interchange schedules
b. Generation and transmission capacity
c. Generation and reactive capability
d. Capacitors and reactors

A

A

163
Q

If a control center SCADA system fails, what impact would that have on the system operator’s visibility capability?
a. Their EMS system would not be receiving data to monitor
b. Their data scan rates would increase and the data would update faster
c. State Estimator and Contingency Analysis would run quicker
d. There would be no impact on their monitoring capability

A

A

164
Q

If there is a large system disturbance and the frequency meters from multiple locations within the Balancing area show different values, what would be a reasonable conclusion?
a. The information is not accurate
b. The system is in an islanded situation
c. There was a large loss of load
d. The system has blacked out

A

B

if everything was connected, frequency would be the same

165
Q

The Reliability Coordinators have the authority to direct Balancing Authorities and Transmission
Operators within its area to implement all of the following actions EXCEPT:
a. Re-dispatch generation
b. Shed firm load
c. Switch transmission facilities
d. Change unit costs

A

D

166
Q

What are the two components that a system operator should be aware of for controlling frequency during a system restoration if they are in an islanded situation?
1. Load
2. Generation
3. Imports
4. Voltages

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4

A

A - Load and Generation balance = Hz

167
Q

You are operating a system that has a previous year peak greater than 3,000 MW, what is the threshold for having to report a loss of firm load that lasts more than 15 minutes?
a. 50 MW
b. 150 MW
c. 300 MW
d. 1,000 MW

A

C

168
Q

If a system operator identifies that its Contingency Analysis program has stopped working, which of the following actions should they take?
a. Request Operations Support personnel to run system studies
b. Ask their neighboring systems to run studies for them
c. Swap to all RTU backup communications channels
d. Immediately call in additional personnel to man the backup control facility

A

A

169
Q

Who must a system operator receive approval from to manually shed load?
a. Senior management
b. NERC
c. Reliability Coordinator
d. No one

A

D, stands for Do your job

170
Q

If the NERC Restoration Reference document (retired) indicates that a 6-10% reduction in system load would realize a 1 Hz increase in frequency, how much load should be shed to restore frequency to 60.00 Hz if it is currently at 58.50 Hz and your system load is 5,000 MW?
a. 450 MW to 750 MW
b. 300 MW to 500 MW
c. 150 MW to 250 MW
d. 75 MW to 125 MW

A

A

1.5 hz 10% = .155000 = 750

171
Q

If it takes longer than _________ for an entity to evacuate their primary control center and get their backup functionality operating, they must arrange for interim provisions for the monitoring of their system.
a. 30 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 3 hours

A

C

172
Q

Who is the only entity that can declare an Energy Emergency Alert?
a. Load serving entity
b. Transmission provider
c. Balancing authority
d. Reliability coordinator

A

D

173
Q

Gen 1 is currently putting out 1000 MW and Gen 2 is offline. Based on the distribution factors, 40% of the output flows on line 1 and 30% of the output flows on each line 2 and line 3. If the LODF (line outage distribution factors) for the loss of line 1 are .5 for line 2 and .5 for line 3, what would the new flow be on line 2 or line 3 if line 1 trips? (# = Blank Space)
###### |—–400MW——Line1—|—Gen 2
###### |—–300MW—–Line2—-|
Gen 1—-|—-300MW——-Line3—|

a. 300 MW
b. 400 MW
c. 500 MW
d. 600 MW

A

C

174
Q

What would the loading be on line A-B if the following generation adjustments were implemented?
● #1 unit decreased output by 100 MW
● #2 unit increased output by 50 MW
● #3 unit increased output by 50 MW

G1—|->-476MW–>–|—G2
############## |—–G3

GSF - G1 = .4 G2 = -.37 G3 = -.4

a. 346 MW
b. 398 MW
c. 418 MW
d. 456 MW

A

B

175
Q

Which type of solar power resources can provide an immediate conversion to produce an electrical output?
a. Photovoltaic solar panels
b. Solar water heaters
c. Thermal energy harvesting
d. Molten salt solar power

A

A

176
Q

Which type of solar technology converts electromagnetic energy in sunlight directly into direct current?
a. Solar DC inverter
b. Concentrating solar thermal
c. Photovoltaic
d. Solar batteries

A

C

177
Q

In the ACE equation B represents which of the following?
a. The Frequency Bias Setting (MW/0.1 Hz) for the Balancing Authority
b. The percentage of generation available in fast start turbines
c. A percentage of your companies estimated annual peak load
d. A percentage of your most sever single contingency

A

A

178
Q

What type of reserve must an operator maintain in order for the Balancing Area to meet the normal load fluctuations that occur?
a. Regulating
b. Contingency
c. Dynamic
d. Operating

A

A

179
Q

If a Balancing Authority’s ACE is on zero and as a result of the implementation of a time error correction the ACE now indicated undergeneration of 40 MW, what is the Balancing Authority’s frequency bias setting?
a. 200 MW
b. 100 MW
c. 40 MW
d. 400 MW

A

A

10b.02=40
4=b*.02
b=200

180
Q

A unit’s gross generation is 520 MW. The auxiliary power requirements of the station amount to 18MW. What is the unit’s net generation?
a. 520 MW
b. 502 MW
c. 18 MW
d. 538 MW

A

B

Gross = Everything
Net = actual useful amount
(Same definition as the stock market)

181
Q

You are operating as a Balancing Authority, your ACE is on 0 and you notice that the tie-line flows have increased on the tie-lines to your northern neighbors’ system and system frequency is slightly below 60 Hz. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of the situation?
a. Your northern neighbor has lost a generation source
b. Your neighbors tie-lines RTUs have failed
c. Your northern neighbor has lost a block of system load
d. Your northern neighbor has implemented a Solo Time Error Correction

A

A

You know you didn’t do anything. Your generators picked up load and frequency went down (Governor droop arrested frequency fall). The only reason this could happen is someone dropping load onto your generators, which most likely would be a generator tripping somewhere else.

182
Q

You are operating in the Balancing Authority function and at 1200 midnight you receive an updated weather forecast that has raised the forecasted high temperature for the day from 90F to 95F. What should you as the System Operator do?
a. Pass the weather forecast on to the Transmission Operator
b. Re-evaluate the load forecast and system scheduling
c. Pass the information onto your day-shift relief
d. Wait until you receive the 0400 weather forecast before doing anything

A

B

183
Q

Which of the following entities are the only ones allowed to act as an Interconnection Time Monitor?
a. Regional Reliability Organizations
b. Reliability Coordinators
c. RTOs
d. Market Monitoring Groups

A

B

One per region

184
Q

If a Balancing Area’s ACE is currently indicating -65 MW, what should the AGC be doing?
a. Nothing, since the ACE within the L10
b. Pulsing generators up
c. Pulsing generators down
d. Starting all quick-start generation

A

B

Automatic Generation Control (Runs off of ACE)

185
Q

Which of the following would be a suitable use for a pseudo-tie?
a. Calculation of CBM
b. Accounting for jointly owned generators
c. To offset the ATC by 10%
d. Replace a transducer for metering

A

B

186
Q

When a Balancing Authority experiences the loss of generation, they can utilize the Interconnection’s frequency bias contribution until:
a. Their peak is over
b. System reserves can be loaded
c. Economical generation can be started
d. They wish to start and load generation

A

B

187
Q

Today’s weather is sunny and 86F and the system load is 5,400 MW, tomorrow’s weather is forecasted to be sunny and 92F. What would be the expected impact on the forecasted load?
a. Load will be the same 5,400 MW
b. Load will be < 5,400 MW
c. Load will be > 5,400 MW
d. Load will be < 4,500 MW

A

C

188
Q

How is the reactive output of a generator increased?
a. By adjusting the frequency
b. By reducing the excitation
c. By raising the excitation
d. By increasing the MW output

A

C

189
Q

Which of the following generation resources will typically lack frequency response?
a. Combustion
b. Hydro
c. Natural gas
d. Wind

A

D

190
Q

When an event occurs that causes a system frequency excursion, which party is responsible for returning frequency to normal?
a. The reliability coordinator
b. The balancing authority who caused the excursion
c. All balancing authorities in the interconnection
d. All generator operators

A

B

Other parties will auto respond VIA frequency bias

191
Q

What is the purpose of the generator reactive capability curve?
a. To modify the unit ramp rate
b. To minimize capacitor switching in the area
c. To identify the same thermal loading limits
d. To show when the AVR is placed in automatic

A

C

192
Q

Which of the following types of wind generators have the ability to adjust the pitch of the rotor blades?
a. Pitch controlled wind turbines
b. Active stall-controlled wind turbines
c. Passive stall-controlled wind turbines
d. Blade adjustable wind turbines

A

A

193
Q

You are working in the balancing authority function when your EMS system has lost its frequency source, which mode of operation is most desirable for operating the Balancing Area AGC system?
a. Tie-line frequency bias
b. Manual
c. Flat or constant frequency
d. Flat or constant tie-line

A

D

194
Q

Balancing Area A has 500 MW scheduled to flow from BA “A” to BA “B”, BA”B” has decided to schedule 200 MW from BA “B” to BA “A”, what would BA “A”’s net schedule be?
a. 500 MW
b. 300 MW
c. 200 MW
d. 700 MW

A

B. 300

195
Q

In order for a generator to qualify as regulating reserve it must have which of the following characteristics?
a. Generator must be synchronized, and its governor blocked
b. Generator must be off-line and available in 10 minutes
c. Generator must be synchronized, and its governor not blocked
d. Generator must be at least 100 MW and synchronized to the system

A

C

196
Q

Why are low-pressure steam turbines generally larger than high-pressure turbines?
a. Low pressure steam stores more energy and requires more volume than high pressure
steam
b. Low pressure steam is less dense and requires more volume than high pressure steam
c. Low pressure steam is more dense and requires less volume than high pressure steam
d. Low pressure steam stores less energy and requires more volume than high pressure
steam

A

B

Steam is water vapor. It doesn’t store any more energy after it becomes steam, it would just become high pressure (more dense) inside whatever container it was in.

197
Q

Under what circumstances would Forecasted Load be > Actual Load?
a. More electric cars were being charged
b. Weather provided less humidity than forecasted
c. Load shedding was implemented throughout the operating day
d. Forecasted load was based on cooler temperatures

A

B

198
Q

Who is responsible for the tagging of all bilateral inadvertent interchange payback?
a. Sink balancing authority
b. Source purchasing-selling entity
c. Sink purchasing-selling entity
d. Source balancing authority

A

A

199
Q

Each balancing area must ensure that there are enough contingency reserves maintained to:
a. Cover the most severe single contingency
b. Cover 150% of the regulation requirement
c. Handle their two worst contingencies
d. Recover from multiple contingencies

A

A

200
Q

What are the two most important pieces of information necessary for performing the next day’s
load forecast?
a. Weather forecast and monthly average temperatures
b. Weather forecast and past load patterns
c. Current weather and yesterday’s load curve
d. Weather forecast and current day generation schedules

A

B

201
Q

NERC Standards require that a balancing authority have enough reserves on the system to meet which of the following performance standards?
1. DCS
2. AIE
3. CPS
4. BAAL
a. 2, 3, & 4
b. 1, 2, & 3
c. 1, 2, & 4
d. 1, 3, & 4

A

D

202
Q

If a generator has 8 pole pairs, what is the required generator speed in order to produce 60 Hz
power?
a. 1200 RPM
b. 900 RPM
c. 600 RPM
d. 1500 RPM

A

B

F=N*P/120

60=N8/120
60120/8=N=900

203
Q

If a 500 kV transmission line with a surge impedance loading of 800 MW is currently loaded at 200 MW, what would the impact be if the line tripped out of service?
a. All system capacitors would trip off-line
b. Voltages would spike above their high limit
c. Voltages would decrease
d. All automatic reactors would connect to the system

A

C

204
Q

If a transmission path is congested and it is determined that all curtailable transactions have a 20% effect on the path, how many MW of transactions must be curtailed if 30 MW of relief is needed?
a. 300 MW
b. 100 MW
c. 150 MW
d. 200 MW

A

C

205
Q

What would the impedance be for the circuit that has an AC voltage source and a resistance of 40 ohms, inductive reactance of 188 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 3.18 ohms?
a. 166 ohms
b. 189 ohms
c. 102 ohms
d. 244 ohms

A

B

Z=SQRT(40^2+(188-3.18)^2)

206
Q

If the estimated charging incurred from switching a 500 kV line in service is 1.7 MVAR per mile, what would be incurred if a 100 mile long 500 kV line were switched in service?
a. 170 MVAR
b. 850 MVAR
c. 85 MVAR
d. It cannot be calculated with the information provided

A

A

207
Q

If your system is experiencing high system loads, high system imports, and transmission facilities loaded to 100%, which of the following actions should you implement to prevent possible voltage collapse?
a. Connect all reactors to the system
b. Place all capacitors in service
c. Request all generator AVRs on manual
d. Remove all capacitors in service

A

B

208
Q

If your system is experiencing high system loads, high system imports, and transmission facilities loaded to 100%, which of the following situations would you most likely experience?
a. Low voltage
b. High system voltages
c. High MVAR reserves
d. Low system frequency

A

A

209
Q

(# = Blank Space)
34MVA->#######################<-99MVA
A—————–SW101—–SW320—–SW352————B
#######| ############## |#######|
##### 21MVA Load ######61MVA ###51MVA Load
######################Load
Based on the loads provided and the power flow, what will be the power flow across switch 352?
a. 13 MVA
b. 99 MVA
c. 34 MVA
d. 48 MVA

A

D

210
Q

There is currently 485 MW flowing from Station A to Station B, what would be the impact on the line flow from Station A to B if a series reactor was placed into service on the A-B line?

a. MW flow would be less than 485 MW
b. MW flow would not change at all
c. MW flow would be more than 485 MW
d. MW flow would initially drop below 485 MW and then return to 485 MW

A

A

D seems like a nice answer, but that would only be true for a DC system. For AC, the reactor is going to keep charging and recharging every cycle.

211
Q

If a transmission line is violating its emergency thermal limit due to the tripping of parallel line which of the following is NOT an appropriate action to implement?
a. Implement ALM
b. Shed load
c. Shift generation
d. Adjust the thermal ratings

A

D

Not sure what ALM is to be honest, but changing alarm values is is always the wrong answer.

212
Q

A transmission line is out for minor maintenance connecting Station A to Station B with a 30-minute emergency return time. Flow on the remaining parallel lines is flowing from A to B. A generator at Station B tripped off-line causing excessive flows on the remaining parallel lines and quick-start generation in the area of Station B is insufficient to prevent overloads on the path.

What is the next step that the System Operator should take?
a. Implement load curtailments at Station A
b. Request that the line on maintenance be returned to service
c. Shed firm load at Station B
d. Request a Public Appeal for the entire area

A

B

D sounds nice, but it will take way longer for an industrial customer to shut down their plant than a 30 restoration period.

213
Q

If a transmission path is congested and it is determined that all curtailable transactions have a15% effect on the path, how many MW of transactions must be curtailed if 30 MW of relief is needed?
a. 30 MW
b. 100 MW
c. 15 MW
d. 200 MW

A

D

x*.15=30MW
30/.15=200

214
Q

A faulted transmission line from A to B drops out and SCADA indicates the feeding CBs are locked out for reclose. Personnel at Station A report a Zone 1 relay target, while personnel at Station B report a Zone 2
target. Where is the most likely area of the fault based on this information alone?
a. Within 10% of the distance from station A
b. Between 90%-120% of the line from Station A
c. Station B bus
d. Within 10% of the distance from Station B

A

A

Zone 1 got a quick trip, while zone 2 got a delayed trip. The two impedance relays are looking at each other. Zone 1 got an indication of a fault in its zone so it quick tripped. Zone 2 saw a fault in zone 1 so it delayed to allow 1 to isolate itself. Therefore the fault has to be close to zone 1.

215
Q

(# = Blank Space)
34MVA->#######################<-99MVA
A—————–SW101—–SW320—–SW352————B
#######| ############## |#######|
##### 21MVA Load ######61MVA ###51MVA Load 1
#######Load 3##########Load 2
If switch 352 is rated for 40 MVA and it is required to be utilized in a planned switching activity,
what action can be implemented prior to switching to prevent exceeding Switch 352’s capability?
a. Increase generation at A and reduce generation at B
b. Increase load at Load 2
c. Increase generation at B and reduce generation at A
d. Decrease load at Load 3

A

A

216
Q

You have an alarm from a substation and you send a serviceman to the substation. He reports the Circuit Switcher on the high side of the bank is open and all CB’s in substation are open. Of the relays listed below, which is the most likely?
a. 21-1 impedance zone 1
b. 87 T differential
c. 50G over current
d. 27 under voltage

A

B

217
Q

What is a major reason for identifying the transfer capabilities of the transmission system?
a. To mitigate transmission constraints in real-time
b. To proactively avoid system problems
c. To identify all bottled generators
d. To maximize the income of the transmission owners

A

B

A and B both make sense. However, proactive is > reactive

218
Q

According to NERC Standards, automatic load shedding schemes should consider all of the
following EXCEPT?
a. Power flow levels
b. Rate of voltage decay
c. Voltage
d. Generator MW output

A

D

Generator has droop characteristics. MW should pretty much control themselves, and the generator will trip itself eventually. Load shedding is for line relief, not generator relief.

219
Q

If a 30 MVAR capacitor normally rated at 115 kV is operated with a lower voltage of 109 kV (5%
below nominal), what is the expected output of the capacitor?
a. 27 MVAR
b. 28.5 MVAR
c. 25 MVAR
d. 30 MVAR

A

A

(actualVolts/ratedVolts)^2*rated MVAR

220
Q

Your system planning group has determined that the Total Transfer Capability is 475 MW, but the posted Available Transfer Capability is 425 MW. If current transmission reservations total 375 MW, how much capacity is available for reserving?
a. 100 MW
b. 425 MW
c. 50 MW
d. 475 MW

A

C

221
Q

Which of the following characteristics would NOT be considered when determining the ratings on transmission facilities?
a. Stability considerations
b. Geographic location
c. Thermal capabilities
d. Voltage limits

A

B

222
Q

Z ———0MW—>|–Line 1—–50MW————>|
############|—Line 2—–25MW———–>|——->
Gen2–100MW–>|—Line 3——25MW———->|

Generator 2 is currently putting out 100 MW. There is 0 MW coming from System Z. The MW flow on the lines is as follows: Line 1 has 50 MW from A to B, Line two has 25 MW from A to B, and Line 3 has 25 MW from A to B. What are the distribution factors for each of the lines?
a. Line 1 - .25, Line 2 - .25, Line 3 - .25
b. Line 1 - .33, Line 2 - .33, Line 3 - .33
c. Line 1 - .25, Line 2 - .25, Line 3 - .50
d. Line 1 - .50, Line 2 - .25, Line 3 - .25

A

D

223
Q

Which of the following is responsible to resolve any outage scheduling of potential reliability
conflicts?
a. Reliability coordinator
b. Transmission operator
c. Balancing authority
d. NERC

A

A

224
Q

What type of relay looks at roughly 90% of a transmission line?
a. Zone 2 impedance
b. Zone 3 impedance
c. Zone 1 impedance
d. Differential

A

C

225
Q

If a transmission tie-line has a conductor rating 95 MVA with a current transformer rated 85 MVA on your end and a current transformer rated at 90 MVA on the other end, what is the limit that would be used for the operation of the line?
a. 90 MVA
b. 95 MVA
c. 85 MVA
d. 175 MVA

A

C

226
Q

If your system is experiencing dynamic reactive reserve deficiencies, which of the following actions can be implemented to increase this dynamic reactive reserve?
a. Place a reactor in service
b. Remove a capacitor from service
c. Place a Synchronous Condenser in service
d. Load transmission lines above SIL

A

C

227
Q

If system conditions require the system operator to implement a voltage reduction, which of the following facilities would be utilized to implement it?
a. 500 kV / 230 kV transformer
b. Distribution bus
c. 230 kV / 115 kV tap change
d. Generator AVR

A

D

228
Q

According to NERC’s restoration Training document (archived), if synchronization is required during a system restoration, the synchronization should occur at:
a. Generating stations only
b. Preplanned locations
c. Any bus on the system
d. Transmission facilities only

A

B

229
Q

Gen 1 is currently putting out 1000 MW. Based on the distribution factors, 40% of the output flows on line 1 and 30% of the output flows on each Line 2 and Line 3. If the LODF (line outage distribution factors) for the loss of line 3 are .6 for Line 1 and .4 for line 2, what would the new flow be on Line 1 if Line 3 trips?
a. 580 MW
b. 420 MW
c. 300 MW
d. 700 MW

A

A

230
Q

If a balancing authority has identified that it will have insufficient reserves due to high loads and unexpected generation outages and they have been unable to obtain any assistance from their neighbors, what should the balancing authority do next?
a. Notify NERC that compliance to DCS could be impacted
b. Seek assistance from the reliability coordinator
c. Request the LSE to shed load
d. Ask the transmission operator to reduce generator MVAR output

A

B

231
Q

Which of the following statements is true with regards to primary and backup control center functionality?
a. They must be within 25 miles of each other
b. They cannot depend on each other to have full functionality
c. They must be identical in appearance and equipment
d. They are required to be equipped with the same communication system

A

B

232
Q

If your interconnection experienced a disturbance that caused the frequency to decay and activated the underfrequency relays in your and surrounding balancing areas, but frequency still remains low and your ACE is indicating under generation, what would be the next course of action for you to take?
a. Reduce generator output
b. Drop additional load to return ACE to zero
c. Wait until the RC questions you about your ACE
d. Place all capacitors in service

A

B

233
Q

When system conditions are such that emergency procedures are expected to be implemented, which of the following actions should be considered first?
a. Return outaged equipment to service
b. Implement active load management
c. Shed firm load
d. Request a voltage reduction

A

A

234
Q

If your system is islanded during restoration, what would be the impact on a generator that is providing MVAR to the island, if a 500 kV transmission line were connected to the island that had ittle or no load flowing on it?
a. Generator MVAR output would decrease
b. Generator would trip off-line due to a low voltage connection
c. Generator MVAR output would increase
d. The transmission line connection would have no impact on the generator

A

A

235
Q

Who is responsible to disseminate GMD information?
a. Transmission operators
b. Reliability coordinators
c. Balancing authorities
d. Regional reliability organization

A

B

236
Q

RCs, TOPs, and BAs are required to prove their backup functionality on which of the following intervals?
a. Bi-annually
b. Monthly
c. Weekly
d. Annually

A

D

237
Q

What is the purpose of a control center having two separate servers for their EMS computers?
a. EMS vendors provide discounts for purchasing two servers instead of one
b. One to serve as real-time and the other to support their simulator
c. Provides seamless transfer of monitoring capability if the primary server fails
d. To accommodate normal maintenance outages on the primary server

A

C

238
Q

Which of the following actions should you take if an outage on a neighboring system has caused
a violation on your system?
a. Shed load to mitigate the violation
b. Ask the reliability coordinator for assistance
c. Open all tie-lines to your neighbor
d. Wait for the neighboring system to contact you

A

B

239
Q

What is a major concern for a system operator during emergency conditions?
a. All generation is at its economic operating point?
b. System remains connected to the interconnection
c. All transmission facilities are loaded below 90%
d. Load is shed on residential customers only

A

B

240
Q

According to EOP-005, the restoration plan should consider all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Back-up generation in transmission stations
b. Identification of each blackstart resources
c. Strategies that are coordinated with the reliability coordinator
d. Identification of cranking paths

A

A

99.9999% of transmission facilities will have batteries to operate the breakers for a limited number of cycles. In the event that fails, breaker operation should come back when the incoming line is energized. All that would be left is hotel loads for the personnel. Breakers still shut when the lights are out.

241
Q

According to EOP-005, the restoration plan should consider all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Back-up generation in transmission stations
b. Identification of each blackstart resources
c. Strategies that are coordinated with the reliability coordinator
d. Identification of cranking paths

A

A

242
Q

According to EOP-005, the restoration plan should consider all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Back-up generation in transmission stations
b. Identification of each blackstart resources
c. Strategies that are coordinated with the reliability coordinator
d. Identification of cranking paths

A

A

243
Q

At such times, when a loss of generation necessitates curtailing interchange transactions, the _______ is responsible for initiating the curtailment.
a. Generation owner
b. Purchase selling entity
c. Balancing authority
d. Generation providing entity

A

C

More specifically, the SINK Balancing Authority

244
Q

Which of the following instances is it acceptable to increase your areas inadvertent accumulation?
a. Assist in maintaining system frequency
b. Reduce your system’s peak load
c. Carry your system over the peak
d. Prevent starting high cost generation

A

A

245
Q

If an interchange transaction schedule has been confirmed by all parties involved in the transaction, what is the system operator’s next step?
a. Implement the schedule
b. Obtain approval from all parties involved
c. Cancel the schedule
d. Verify the schedule a second time

A

A

246
Q

If your system experiences the loss of 2,000 MW of generation that has caused the frequency to decline and you have shed 300 MW of load to stop the frequency from declining, what should you do if the frequency will not come above 59.94 Hz?
a. Implement additional corrective actions to restore frequency
b. Wait until the system load drops off and monitor the system frequency
c. Request that the region perform a frequency decay analysis
d. Restore the load and wait for RC direction

A

A

247
Q

What mode of operation should a Balancing Area switch to if all of its tie-line telemetry were lost?
a. Flat-tie
b. Flat-frequency
c. Frequency excursion
d. Tie-line bias

A

B

248
Q

Each balancing authority is required to have enough operating reserves to meet which of the
following?
a. Loss of multiple contingencies
b. Disturbance control standard
c. Regional black start margin
d. 150% of regulation requirement

A

B

249
Q

If the interconnection time monitor initiates a time error correction for a fast clock, which of the following frequency schedules would be entered into your control program?
a. 59.98 Hz
b. 60.22 Hz
c. 60.02 Hz
d. 59.80 Hz

A

A

250
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a function of combustion control systems?
a. Control the reactive output of generating units
b. Adjust the fuel supply and air flow to the boiler to match the actual and anticipated
requirements for steam pressure
c. Sense the steam flow to the turbine
d. Sense steam pressure in the boiler

A

A

251
Q

What would be the most likely event if the frequency in your Balancing Authority Area declines and the interchange out of your area increased?
a. An external generator tripped
b. Internal load was lost
c. External load was lost
d. An internal generator tripped

A

A

252
Q

If a Balancing Area’s ACE is indicating negative (-), what control action should the operator initiate to get its ACE back to zero?
a. Decrease generation MW
b. Increase generation MVAR
c. Decrease generation MVAR
d. Increase generation MW

A

D

253
Q

If a Balancing Area has an on-peak inadvertent accumulation of -350 MW, which of the following entities could a bilateral payback be arranged with?
a. Area B with an off-peak inadvertent of +300 MW
b. Area C with an off-peak inadvertent of -500 MW
c. Area D with an on-peak inadvertent of +250 MW
d. Area A with an on-peak inadvertent of -400 MW

A

C

254
Q

A Balancing Authority’s accumulated inadvertent is required to be accounted for on all of the following basis EXCEPT:
a. Daily
b. Weekly
c. Monthly
d. Hourly

A

B

255
Q

If you are Balancing Authority Area A, with two tie lines to Balancing Authority Area B and three tie lines to Balancing Authority Area C. The lines between Balancing Authority Area A and Balancing Authority Area B are loaded with interchange transactions as follows: +150 and a -100. The lines with Balancing Authority Area C are loaded with interchange transactions as follows: +200, -150, and +125. What is the net-interchange for Balancing Authority Area A?

a. -225
b. -175
c. +225
d. +175

A

C

150-100+200-150+125=

256
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a function of governor control systems?
a. Adjust generator MW output automatically in response to frequency deviations
b. Adjust the speed of the shaft by adjusting the amount of steam supplied to the
turbine
c. Sense steam pressure in the boiler as well as the steam flow to the turbine
d. Control the steam flow from the boiler to the turbine stages

A

C

I’m sure there are turbines that actually do this. However, it is not really necessary to sense the actual amount of steam flow going into the turbine. It is either speeding up, or the governor is going to send more steam into it. A bit like a car actually measuring gas flow into the engine. Not really necessary for operation of the car as long as the gas pump is working.

257
Q

Which of the following actions is NOT appropriate for an operator to take when a time correction has been issued?
a. Log the time error correction
b. Ignore the correction
c. Control the system for the new frequency
d. Enter the new scheduled frequency into the control program

A

B

258
Q

Which of the following elements is NOT needed for the calculation of ACE when operating in the tie-line bias mode of operation?
a. Frequency
b. Interchange
c. Meter error bias
d. Voltages

A

D

Voltage has nothing to do with ACE

259
Q

If a Balancing Area has scheduled interchange of 300 MW that started on the hour, what would be the hourly integrated value if the transactions were curtailed on the half-hour?
a. 150 MWh
b. 200 MWh
c. 300 MWh
d. 100 MWh

A

A

260
Q

For an interchange schedule agreement, the Source Balancing Authority and Sink Balancing Authority shall agree with each other on all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Interchange schedule start and end time
b. Ramp start time and rate
c. Market implications
d. Energy profile

A

C

261
Q

Who is responsible for assessing the transaction start and end time, energy profile, and scheduling path on a tag?
a. Purchase selling entities
b. Balancing authority
c. Reliability coordinators
d. Transmission providers

A

B

262
Q

What is the speed of rotation N (in RPM) of a six-pole generator that is connected to a 60 Hz
system?
a. 20 rpm
b. 720 rpm
c. 1200 rpm
d. 12 rpm

A

C

F=NP/120
N=F120/P

263
Q

If a synchronous condenser is over-excited, what is its relationships with regards to reactive power?
a. Supplies reactive power
b. Neither absorbs nor supplies reactive power
c. Supplies and absorbs reactive power at the same time
d. Absorbs reactive power

A

A

Over-Excited means larger current(excitation) on rotor field.
Therefore larger magnetic field on rotor.
Therefore greater magnetic lines of force cutting through stator field.
Therefore more voltage induced on stator.
Therefore pushing out more Volts / MVAR

264
Q

When a balancing authority fails to meet the DCS compliance criteria, what is the penalty that is imposed on the balancing authority?
a. Increase its contingency reserve obligation
b. Reduce its maximum generator output
c. Lower its load serving capability
d. Increase its regulation requirement

A

A

If a BA proved it could not respond with adequate reserve to an event, it clearly needs to have more reserves on hand the next time an event happens.

265
Q

Which of the following types of fuels are used by combustion turbines?
a. Oil, gas
b. Gas, coal
c. Nuclear, gas
d. Coal, oil

A

A: Oil & Gas

Coal and Nuclear = steam turbines by boiling water

266
Q

If a turbine governor control is set to provide full movement of turbine valves for a 3 Hz change in frequency, what is the droop setting on the governor?
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 0%

A

B

Just a ratio. 3Hz change over a 60Hz band, so 3/60 = .05 or 5%

267
Q

In the event that a system loses a 1,000 MW generator, which of the following would provide the most help in restoring the system frequency to its pre-disturbance condition?
a. Governor response
b. Load rejection
c. Operator intervention
d. System inertia

A

C

268
Q

Which types of genertaors would a pseudo-tie be typically used for?
a. Remote generators
b. Hydro facilities
c. Joint owned generators
d. Nuclear units

A

C

269
Q

Generator is currently putting out 200 MW. The MW flow on the lines is as follows: Line 1 has 80 MW, Line two has 60 MW, and Line 3 has 60 MW. What are the distribution factors for each of the lines?
a. Line 1 - .25, Line 2 - .25, Line 3 - .50
b. Line 1 - .30, Line 2 - .40, Line 3 - .40
c. Line 1 - .50, Line 2 - .25, Line 3 - .25
d. Line 1 - .40, Line 2 - .30, Line 3 - .30

A

D

270
Q

What would be the expected impact on a line’s operating capacity for the next day if the current temperature is 83F and the forecasted temperature is 98F
a. The capacity would increase
b. The capacity would double
c. The capacity would not change
d. The capacity would decrease

A

C: Capacity doesn’t change for temperature. Load would.

271
Q

Ferranti-rise effect occurs under which of the following conditions?
a. Generator under excitation
b. Open-ended transmission lines
c. Transformer loop flows
d. Generator over excitation

A

B

272
Q

If your system is experiencing high system voltages, which of the following actions can be implemented to remedy the situation?
a. Request generation to increase MVAR output
b. Disconnect a reactor from the system
c. Disconnect a capacitor from the system
d. Shed load

A

C

273
Q

If a minor system event caused a generator to separate from the system due to an out-of-step condition, which of the following could be the most likely cause?
1. Out-of-step relay scheme
2. Ferranti-rise
3. System instability
4. Operator error
a. 1 & 2
b. 1 & 4
c. 2 & 4
d. 1 & 3

A

D

274
Q

If your system is MVAR deficient, what action could be implemented to prevent voltage collapse?
a. Raise system frequency above 60.5 Hz
b. Separate from the interconnection
c. Lower transmission voltages
d. Shed firm load in the deficient area

A

D

275
Q

If a capacitor is operated with a voltage that is 90% of nominal, what is the expected impact that this will have on the MVAR output of the capacitor?
a. The capacitor MVAR output will be reduced by 10%
b. The capacitor MVAR output will be reduced by 19%
c. The capacitor MVAR output will be reduced by 5%
d. The capacitor MVAR output will not be impacted by this reduction

A

B

276
Q

If A Capacitor is placed in service, what would happen to system voltages?
a. MVARs will be absorbed by the capacitor
b. Voltage at will increase
c. Voltage will decrease
d. Voltage will remain the same

A

B

277
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication of pending voltage collapse?
a. Unusually low system voltages
b. Voltages trending high and stable
c. Voltages not responsive to tap changes
d. All generators reaching maximum MVAR output

A

B

278
Q

If a transmission operator has to remove a transmission facility from service, which of the following do they have to provide notification to?
a. All transmission operators in the interconnection
b. Distribution providers
c. All PSEs with transmission service
d. Potentially affected Transmission Operators

A

D

You are probably going to have removed some sort of parallel path that affects the TO next door. You don’t need to tell everyone though like in A

279
Q

Why is it important that events that result in a relay scheme misoperation be reported promptly?
a. To initiate repairs
b. To reduce relay technician involvement
c. To avoid a NERC investigation
d. To reduce maintenance costs

A

A

280
Q

If a transmission line with MW flowing from Station XYZ to Station ABC is exceeding its thermal limit, which of the following actions would correct the situation?
a. Increase generation at Station XYZ
b. Shed load at station XYZ
c. Shed load at station ABC
d. Decrease generation at Station ABC

A

C

281
Q

Which way would the MVAR flow if the voltage at Station A was 348 kV and the voltage at Station B was 342 kV?
a. The MVAR would not flow because there is not enough of a difference
b. The MVAR would flow from Station B to Station A
c. MVAR flow is dependent on phase angle and not voltage
d. The MVAR would flow from Station A to Station B

A

D

282
Q

If your system is experiencing high system loads, high system imports, and transmission facilities loaded to 100%, which of the following situations would make the situation worse?
a. Loss of a distribution station
b. A bulk capacitor connecting to the system
c. A 500 kV transmission line returned to service
d. An internal generator tripping

A

D

283
Q

Two 230 kV lines are to be returned to service. Both lines are of identical construction. Line A-D
is 30 miles long and Line A-M is 75 miles long. Which of the following is true concerning the
switching of these two lines?
a. Line A-D will cause more of a voltage rise than Line A-M
b. The voltage rise will be the same from each line being returned
c. Voltage will not be impacted by switching either line
d. The voltage increase from Line A-M will be approximately twice that of Line A-D

A

D

284
Q

Which of the following is NOT a parameter that is used for automatic load shedding schemes?
a. Rate of generation reduction
b. Power flow levels
c. Rate of voltage decay
d. Voltage

A

A

285
Q

A transmission line has a thermal rating of 450 MVA, the flow on the line is 300 MVAR and 400
MW. Which statement best describes the state of the transmission line?
a. The transmission line is loaded below the lines SIL
b. The transmission line is loaded below its thermal rating
c. The transmission line is actually out of service at that level loading
d. The transmission line is loaded above its thermal rating

A

D

286
Q

What would the impedance be for the circuit that has an AC voltage source and a resistance of 30 ohms, inductive reactance of 80 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 70 ohms?
a. 11.4 ohms
b. 73.2 ohms
c. 152.9 ohms
d. 31.6 ohms

A

D

Z=SQRT( R^2 + (Xl-Xc)^2)

287
Q

Which of the following conditions would require a system operator to shed firm load on a radial transmission line?
a. Line overload
b. High voltage
c. Reduction in load
d. TLR

A

A

288
Q

Line 1, Line 2, and Line 3 all have identical impedances. With Line 3 out of service, the flow from Station A to Station B is 60 MW on Line 1 and 60 MW on Line 2. If Line 3 is returned to service, what would be the total MW flow between Station A and Station B?
a. 30 MW
b. 120 MW
c. 180 MW
d. 60 MW

A

B

289
Q

Why is it important for the system operator to monitor and address violations of transmission line thermal limits?
a. In order to inform the reliability coordinator of the problem
b. So actions can be implemented as soon as possible
c. To recalculate ATC appropriately
d. To prevent the LMP from changing

A

B

290
Q

If your system operating criteria states that the emergency thermal limit for a transmission facility is equal to 120% of its thermal limit, what would be the emergency thermal limit for a facility with a thermal limit of 350 MVA?
a. 370 MVA
b. 420 MVA
c. 435 MVA
d. 385 MVA

A

B

291
Q

BA “A” is selling power to BA “C”. The two lines between BA “A” and BA “C” suddenly trip and lockout after two reclosing attempts. The tripping of the lines has caused the line between BA “B” and BA “C” to exceed its emergency ratings. Of the options provided, which would assist in returning the line loading to within limits?
a. Increase generation in BA “A” and reduce load in BA “B”
b. Decrease generation in BA “C” and reduce load in BA “C”
c. Increase generation in BA “C” and reduce load in BA “C”
d. Increase generation in BA “C” and reduce load in BA “B”

A

C

292
Q

If there are three parallel lines that are all loaded within 10% of each other, what would be the impact on the two remaining lines if one of the lines relayed out of service?
a. Loadings would not be impacted by the tripping
b. Loadings on the lines would decrease
c. Loadings on the lines would remain the same
d. Loadings on the two lines would increase

A

D

NERC 2023 (2 decks)

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