Neoplasms Flashcards

1
Q

All tumors have two basic components

A

(1) neoplastic cells that
constitute the tumor parenchyma

(2) reactive stroma made
up of connective tissue, blood vessels, and variable numbers of
cells of the adaptive and innate immune system

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2
Q

classification of tumors and their biological behavior are based
primarily on

A

parenchymal component, but their growth and

spread are critically dependent on their stroma

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3
Q

desmoplasia

A

parenchymal cells stimulate the formation of an abundant collagenous stroma

Some desmoplastic tumors—for example, some cancers of the
female breast—are stony hard or scirrhous

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4
Q

Benign Tumors

A
connective tissue origin
a. Arise from the mesoderm
b. Examples
(1) Lipomas derive from adipose tissue 
(2) Leiomyomas of the uterus are derived from smooth muscle 
Unusual tumors that are usually benign
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5
Q

Lipoma Gross/Histo

A

Gross: Adipose Tissue; well-circumscribed
yellow tumor. Adipose tissue
is connective tissue; therefore
it derives from the mesoderm.

Histology: tumor is composed of benign fat cells with empty spaces

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6
Q

Leiomyomas Gross/Histo

A

uterus derived from smooth muscle

Gross: The tumor fills the endometrial cavity and distends the uterus. On cross section the benign smooth
muscle tumor has a whorled appearance.

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7
Q

Unusual tumors that are usually

A

Benign

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8
Q

Mixed tumors

A

Composed of neoplastic cells that have two different morphologic
patterns, but derive from the same germ cell layer

Not the same as a teratoma

pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid gland

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9
Q

Teratoma

A

Derive from more than one germ layer—ectoderm, endoderm, and/or
mesoderm (Fig. 9-1 C; Link 9-4); may be benign or malignant

(2) Sites: ovaries (most common site), testes, anterior mediastinum, and pineal gland; tend to have a midline location (pineal gland, anterior mediastinum) or close to the midline (ovaries and testes)

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10
Q

Cystic teratoma

A

ovary, showing the cystic nature of
the tumor. Hair is present, and
a tooth is visible (arrow). Teratomas can arise from ectoderm, endoderm,
and mesoderm

squamous epithelium (epithelial origin), sebaceous glands (endodermal origin), and cartilage
(mesodermal origin)
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11
Q

Malignant tumors (cancer)

A
  1. Definition: Characterized by an unregulated proliferation of cells that invade tissue and are
    capable of spreading to other sites that are remote from the primary site of origin
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12
Q

What is a Carcinoma?

A

Derive from epithelial tissue—squamous, glandular, or transitional
epithelium

b. Primary sites for squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) include oropharynx, larynx, upper/ middle esophagus, lung, cervix, penis, and skin. Squamous cell cancers commonly have keratin pearls that stain bright red with a hematoxylin-eosin

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13
Q

Carcinoma Histologic Features

A

keratin pearls (concentric
layers of eosin-staining keratin
similar to the layers of a pearl).

Squamous cell carcinoma. The 
many well-differentiated foci of 
eosinophilic-staining neoplastic 
cells produce keratin in layers 
(keratin pearls). Note how 
squamous epithelium takes up 
the red eosin stain
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14
Q

Primary sites for adenocarcinoma

A

a (glandular epithelium) include lung, distal esophagus
to rectum, pancreas, liver, breast, endometrium, ovaries, kidneys, and prostate

Adenocarcinomas commonly have glands with secretions in the lumen

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15
Q

Adenocarcinoma histology

A

glands lined by neoplastic glandular cells with hyperchromatic and irregular nuclei, and a gland lumen with the material in the lumen. G, Adenocarcinoma.
Irregular glands infiltrate the stroma. The nuclei lining the gland lumens are cuboidal and contain nuclei with hyperchromatic nuclear chromatin.

Glandular cells appear to pile up on each other. Many of the gland lumens contain secretory material (arrow).

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16
Q

Primary sites for transitional cell carcinoma

A

urinary bladder, ureter, and

renal pelvis

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17
Q

Sarcomas

A

Derive from connective tissue (mesoderm origin)

b. Approximately 40% of sarcomas are located in the lower extremity.
c. Examples include those that arise from bone (osteosarcoma); and skeletal muscle (rhabdomyosarcoma; see also Link 24-23 A, B)

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18
Q

Osteogenic Sarcoma

A
The 
light-colored mass of tumor in 
the metaphysis abuts the epiphyseal plate and has spread 
laterally out through the cortex 
and into the surrounding tissue
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19
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

Gross: the tumor has a fleshlike appearance

Histology: the tumor is composed of elongated cells that resemble fibroblasts.

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20
Q

Hamartoma

A

Nonneoplastic overgrowth of disorganized tissue that is indigenous to a particular site

Examples: bronchial hamartoma (contains cartilage, Peutz-Jeghers (PJ) polyp (contains glandular tissue)

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21
Q

Hamartoma of lung

A

composed of cartilaginous tissue

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22
Q

Choristoma (heterotopic rest)

A

a. Definition: Mass of non-neoplastic tissue that is located in a foreign place
b. Examples: pancreatic tissue in the wall of the stomach (Link 9-7), brain tissue in the nasal cavity, functioning thyroid tissue in the liver (Link 9-8)

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23
Q

Heterotopic pancreatic tissue

A

the stomach wall is composed of pancreatic ducts and rare acini interspersed among smooth
muscle bundles.

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24
Q

Parenchyma

A

Neoplastic component of a tumor that determines its biological behavior

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25
Q

Stroma

A

Nonneoplastic supportive tissue of a tumor

b. Most infiltrating carcinomas induce
production of a dense, fibrous stroma (called desmoplasia) that surrounds invading cancer.

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26
Q

Differentiation in benign Tumors

A

Benign: Usually well-differentiated (resembles the parent tissue) and does not have the capacity to spread to distant sites

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27
Q

Well-differentiated or low-grade malignant cancer

A

Cancer cells histologically resemble the parent tissue

(Examples: parenchyma showing keratin pearls (characteristic of squamous tissue; or glandular lumens with secretions (characteristic of normal gland lumens with secretions

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28
Q

Poorly differentiated, high-grade, or anaplastic cancer

A

Do not resemble the parent tissue histologically (e.g., no glands,
keratin)

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29
Q

Moderately well-differentiated (intermediate-grade) cancer

A

Exhibit histologic features that are between those of low- and high-grade
cancer (i.e., occasional gland-like structures are seen, or areas that look like keratin are present, whereas the rest of the tumor has no characteristics of the tissue of origin)

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30
Q

Cell organelles in malignant versus normal cells

A

a. Less mitochondria
b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is less prominent.
c. Loss of cell-to-cell adhesion molecules (cadherins). Cadherins are a group of
calcium-dependent transmembrane proteins that play an important role in cell-to-cell adhesion. Loss of adhesion allows malignant cells to extend into the surrounding tissue.

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31
Q

Nuclear features when compared to a normal cell

A

a. Nucleus is larger, has irregular borders, and has more chromatin (hyperchromatic).
b. Nucleolus is larger and has irregular borders.
c. Mitoses have normal and atypical mitotic spindles

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32
Q

Biochemical changes in malignant cells

A
  1. Rely on anaerobic glycolysis for energy. Explains why there is more lactic acid produced under hypoxic conditions than one would see in a normal cell
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33
Q

Increased uptake of a glucose analog in malignancy

A

a. A special test has been developed in which cancer cells take up a glucose analog with positron emission tomography (PET).
b. PET scan is widely used in the diagnosis, staging, and monitoring of therapy of various kinds of cancer.

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34
Q

Do cancer cells have glucose?

A

Cancer cells do not process glucose as well as normal cells, and store glucose in the form of glycogen within the cytosol.

Some cancers (e.g., prostate cancer) derive energy from β-oxidation of fatty acids rather than anaerobic glycolysis.

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35
Q

The growth rate in benign and malignant tumors

A
  1. Benign tumors usually have a slow growth rate.
  2. Malignant tumors have a variable growth rate.
    a. Growth rate correlates with degree of
    differentiation of the malignant tumor.
    b. Example: Anaplastic (high-grade)
    cancers have an increased growth rate,
    whereas low-grade cancers tend to
    grow more slowly.
  3. Clinically detectable tumor mass must have 30 population doublings to produce 109 cells, which equals 1 g of tissue.
  4. Malignant cells with an increased growth rate (e.g., acute myelogenous leukemia) are treated
    with cell cycle–specific chemotherapy agents.

When malignant cells are killed, other malignant cells quickly enter the cycle, and the cycle repeats itself so that the size of the tumor begins to shrink.

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36
Q

MTX (Methotrexate)

A

inhibits the synthesis (S) phase of the cell cycle (duplication of
DNA)

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37
Q

Vincristine

A

inhibits the mitotic (M) phase of the cell cycle

When malignant cells are killed, other malignant cells quickly enter the cycle, and the cycle repeats itself so that the size of the tumor begins to shrink

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38
Q

Monoclonality in benign and malignant tumors

A
  1. Nonneoplastic tumors derive from multiple cells (polyclonal).
  2. Benign and most malignant tumors derived from a single precursor cell
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39
Q

The monoclonal origin of neoplasms

A

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) isoenzymes A and B in selected neoplasms (e.g., leiomyoma of the uterus). All the neoplastic smooth muscle cells in uterine leiomyomas have either the A or the B G6PD isoenzyme. Nonneoplastic smooth muscle proliferations in the uterus (e.g., pregnant uterus) have some cells with the A isoenzyme and others with the B isoenzyme, indicating their polyclonal origin

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40
Q

Telomerase activity in benign and malignant tumors

A

a. Definition: Repetitive sequences of nontranscribed DNA located at the ends of chromosomes
b. Prevent end-to-end fusion of chromosomes during normal mitosis and, along with other factors, are important in determining the longevity of a cell
c. Shorten with each round of replication and eventually, when only a few nucleotide bases remain, genome becomes unstable, which produces a signal for apoptosis

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41
Q

Telomerase activity in Malignant and Benign Cells

A

Benign tumors have normal telomerase activity.

Malignant cells have upregulation of telomerase activity, which prevents the naturally programmed shortening of telomere complexes with cell replication; hence the cell no longer undergoes apoptosis.

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42
Q

Upregulation of decay-accelerating factor (DAF) by malignant cells

A
  1. DAF normally degrades C3 convertase and C5 convertase in the classical and alternative complement pathways.
  2. Upregulation of DAF ensures that degradation of the convertases just mentioned prevents formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC; C5b-9); therefore cancer cells cannot be killed by the MAC
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43
Q

Local invasion and metastasis

A

Benign tumors: do not invade. Exception is a dermatofibroma, which invades tissue but does not metastasize

Malignant: a. Invade tissue. Invasion is an important criterion for malignancy.
b. Some tissues resist invasion. Examples include mature cartilage and the elastic tissue of arteries.

All malignant tumors require oxygen and nutrients to survive and do so by stimulating angiogenesis within the tumor and its metastatic sites

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44
Q

The sequence of Invasion in lymph nodes and Venules

A

Clonal expansion growth, diversification, angiogenesis

Metastatic subclone

Adhesion to and invasion of basement
membrane

Passage through extracellular matrix
Intravasation

Interaction with host lymphoid cells

Tumor cell embolus

Adhesion to the basement membrane

Extravasation Metastatic
deposit

Angiogenesis

Growth

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45
Q

Lymphatic spread

A

(1) Lymphatic spread to regional lymph nodes is the first step for dissemination in
carcinomas. Lymph nodes are the first line of defense against the spread of carcinomas.

(2) Using the model of invasion and metastasis discussed in carcinomas,
the vessel that is invaded is an afferent lymphatic vessel. The tumor emboli enter the sinuses of the regional lymph nodes and invade the parenchymal tissue of the lymph node.

(3) Tumor cells that invade efferent lymphatics send tumor emboli into the thoracic duct, and from there they enter the systemic circulation, where they disperse to capillaries in target organs to form metastatic foci. This is the hematogenous phase of cancer dissemination in carcinomas.

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46
Q

Hematogenous spread

A

(1) Sarcomas initially invade capillaries and/or venules and directly spread to distant sites without involving the lymph nodes.
(2) Malignant cells entering the portal vein metastasize to the liver (Fig. 9-7 A), whereas those that enter the vena cava metastasize to the lungs.

(3) Both carcinomas and sarcomas have hematogenous dissemination; however,
carcinomas usually invade regional lymph nodes before entering the systemic circulation

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47
Q

Seeding (transcoelomic) spread

A

(1) Definition: Malignant cells exfoliate from a serosal surface and implant and invade tissue in a body cavity (pleural, pericardial, or peritoneal).
(2) Primary surface-derived ovarian cancers (e.g., serous cystadenocarcinoma) commonly seed the omentum and produce malignant effusions in the peritoneal cavity.

(3) Peripherally located lung cancers (usually adenocarcinomas) commonly seed the parietal and visceral pleurae, causing malignant pleural effusions. A variant of seeding is a medulloblastoma, high-grade cancer arising in the brain that
commonly exfoliates malignant cells into the cerebrospinal fluid and seeds the
brainstem and spinal cord.

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48
Q

Perineural invasion by malignant cells

A

usually painful

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49
Q

Vertebral column metastasis

A

(1) Most common metastatic site in bone
(a) Breast cancer is the most common
cancer metastatic to bone.
(b) Prostate cancer is the second most
common cancer metastatic to bone.

(2) Batson paravertebral venous plexus is responsible for the predilection of bone
metastases to the vertebrae.

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50
Q

Osteoblastic metastasis

A

(1) Malignant cells in metastatic sites secrete cytokines that specifically activate osteoblasts, which initiate reactive bone formation (Fig. 9-7 E).

The second most common cancer producing osteoblastic metastases is breast cancer.

(2) Bone formation in metastatic sites produces radiodensities that are identified in
radiographs

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51
Q

is the most common cancer-producing osteoblastic metastases.

A

Prostate cancer

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52
Q

elevated, because osteoblasts use this

an enzyme in bone formation.

A

Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

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53
Q

Osteolytic metastases

A

Osteolytic metastases produce radiolucencies in bone that are identified in radiographs (Figs. 9-7 F, G).

Clinical findings include pathologic fractures and/or hypercalcemia, if osteolytic lesions are extensive

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54
Q

Pathogenesis of Osteolytic metastases

A
(a) Malignant cells in metastatic sites 
      produce chemicals (e.g., 
      prostaglandin E2
      [PGE2], interleukin [IL]-1) that locally 
      activate osteoclasts.
   (b) Cancers that commonly produce lytic 
      metastases include lung cancer, 
      RCCs, and breast cancer.
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55
Q

Lymph nodes

A

(e.g., metastatic breast/lung cancer most common). Lymph nodes are the
most common overall site for metastasis

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56
Q

Lungs

A

metastatic breast cancer most common cause

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57
Q

Liver

A

metastatic colorectal cancer most common cause

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58
Q

Bone

A

metastatic breast cancer most common cause

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59
Q

Brain

A

metastatic lung cancer most common cause

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60
Q

Second most common cause of death in the United States

A

Cancer

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61
Q

Causes

A

a. External factors: Tobacco (#1), alcohol, chemicals, radiation, microbial pathogens
b. Internal factors: Hormones, immune conditions, inherited mutations
c. Geographic and ethnic factors

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62
Q

risk factor for cancer.

A

Age

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63
Q

Colorectal, lung, and prostate cancer progressively increase in incidence with age, whereas

A

others reach a peak and begin to decline (e.g., malignant melanoma)

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64
Q

the leading cause of disease-related (noninjury) mortality

among children 1 to 14 years of age

A

Malignant neoplasms

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65
Q

Top three cancers in children, in decreasing order

A

leukemia (acute lymphoblastic
leukemia is the most common leukemia), central nervous system (CNS; cerebellar
tumors are the most common), and neuroblastoma (malignant tumor arising from
postganglionic sympathetic neurons).

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66
Q

common cancers in children that are not common in adults

A

rhabdomyosarcoma (malignancy of skeletal muscle),

Wilms tumor (malignant tumor of the kidney that is derived from the metanephric blastema),

retinoblastoma (malignant tumor in the eye),

osteosarcoma (malignancy of osteoid in bone), and

Ewing sarcoma
(neuroectodermal malignancy of bone).

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67
Q

common in adults but

uncommon in children

A

Epithelial tumors of organs, such as lung, colon, and breast

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68
Q

Top three noncutaneous cancer sites in men

A

prostate, lung/

bronchus, and colorectal

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69
Q

Top three noncutaneous cancer sites in women

A

breast, lung/

bronchus, and colorectal.

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70
Q

Top three sites for gynecologic cancers

A

ovary, uterine corpus

(endometrium), and cervix

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71
Q

Autosomal dominant cancer

syndrome (Retinoblastoma)

A

malignancy of the eye, nearly always occurring before age 5. Of all cases of retinoblastoma, 60% are nonhereditary and are usually unilateral, 15% are autosomal dominant and have unilateral retinoblastomas, and 25% are autosomal dominant and have bilateral retinoblastomas.

In the autosomal dominant type, one of the RB1 genes on chromosome 13 is mutated in germ cells.

A second mutation of the RB1 gene on the remaining chromosome 13 (deletion or recombination mutation) must
occur after birth (“two hits”) to produce a unilateral retinoblastoma or a bilateral retinoblastoma.

In the sporadic type of retinoblastoma, the two somatic mutations of the RB1 suppressor gene on chromosome 13
occur in early childhood and produce unilateral retinoblastomas.

In the autosomal dominant type of
retinoblastoma, there is an additional risk for developing second malignancies, which include osteosarcoma
(malignancy of bone; most common), a soft tissue sarcoma (malignancy of connective tissue), or a malignant
melanoma (malignancy of melanocytes).

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72
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis (Autosomal Dominant)

A

colorectal cancer from malignant transformation of polyps develops by
age 50 years. There is inactivation of the adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) suppressor gene and an increased
incidence of desmoid tumors (fibromatosis of the anterior abdominal wall)

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73
Q

Li-Fraumeni syndrome (AD)

A

increased risk for developing brain tumors, sarcomas, leukemias (malignant transformation marrow stem cells), carcinomas (e.g., breast, brain) before age 50. There is a heterozygous
loss-of-function mutation in the suppressor gene encoding p53

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74
Q

Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer (Lynch syndrome) (AD)

A

increased risk for developing colorectal cancers (especially in the proximal colon) without having previous polyps.

It is caused by a germline mutation that inactivates DNA mismatch repair genes, which causes a microsatellite repeat replication error (called microsatellite instability).

Microsatellites are repeated sequences that predispose to replication errors if there are mutations in DNA repair enzymes (e.g., mismatch repair genes).

The microsatellites become unstable
(become longer or shorter) and produce frameshift mutations that inactivate or alter tumor suppressor gene function leading to cancer.

Microsatellite instability is found in the majority of patients with
hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer

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75
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes

A

Inactivation of these genes increases the risk for developing breast cancer
(sometimes bilateral) and ovarian cancer. Because of the very high risk for these cancers, many women with
these mutations elect to have prophylactic bilateral mastectomy and oophorectomy in the absence of a
detectable tumor in these sites

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76
Q
Autosomal recessive 
syndromes with defects in 
DNA repair (Xeroderma pigmentosum)
A

the increased risk at an early age for developing skin cancers (basal cell
carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and malignant melanoma) due to the inability to repair pyridine dimers
produced by exposure to ultraviolet light.

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77
Q
Chromosome instability syndromes (Autosomal recessive 
syndromes with defects in 
DNA repair (Xeroderma pigmentosum))
A

Chromosomes are susceptible to damage by ionizing radiation and drugs. In ataxia telangiectasia, there is an increased risk for developing malignant lymphomas. In Bloom syndrome, there is an increased risk for developing gastrointestinal tumors and malignant lymphoma. In

Fanconi syndrome, there is an increased risk for developing malignant lymphomas, squamous cell carcinoma, and hepatocellular carcinomas.

78
Q

Familial cancer syndromes

A

No clearly defined pattern of inheritance; however, certain cancers (e.g., breast, ovary, colon) develop with
increased frequency in families. This syndrome sometimes involves inactivation of the BRCA1 and BRCA2
suppressor genes

79
Q

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is causally associated

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

80
Q

SCC of the esophagus

A

associated with alcohol abuse, smoking, and other

unknown factors.

81
Q

Japan

A

Adenocarcinoma of the stomach is causally associated with smoked foods.

82
Q

Southeast Asia

A

HCC is causally associated with chronic liver disease such as that
caused by hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV). Other associations include cirrhosis of any etiology as well as aflatoxin, a toxin derived from Aspergillus that contaminates improperly stored food crops

83
Q

Sub-Saharan Africa

A

Burkitt lymphoma is causally associated with EBV. Kaposi sarcoma
(KS) is causally associated with human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)

84
Q

Actinic (solar) keratosis

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

85
Q

Atypical hyperplasia of ductal epithelium of the breast

A

Adenocarcinoma

86
Q

Chronic irritation at sinus orifices, third-degree burn scars

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

87
Q

Chronic ulcerative colitis

A

Adenocarcinoma

88
Q

Complete hydatidiform mole

A

Choriocarcinoma

89
Q

Dysplastic nevus

A

Malignant melanoma

90
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia

A

Adenocarcinoma

91
Q

Glandular metaplasia of esophagus (Barrett’s esophagus)

A

Adenocarcinoma

92
Q

Glandular metaplasia of stomach (Helicobacter pylori)

A

Adenocarcinoma

93
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome

A

Acute leukemia

94
Q

Regenerative nodules in cirrhosis

A

Adenocarcinoma

95
Q

Scar tissue in the lung

A

Adenocarcinoma

96
Q

Squamous dysplasia of oropharynx, larynx, bronchus, cervix

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

97
Q

Tubular adenoma of the colon

A

Adenocarcinoma

98
Q

Vaginal adenosis (diethylstilbestrol exposure)

A

Adenocarcinoma

99
Q

Villous adenoma of rectum

A

Adenocarcinoma

100
Q

Reducing weight to prevent cancer

A

(1) More adipose tissue increases aromatase conversion of androgens to estrogen.
(2) Increased levels of estrogen increase the risk for developing endometrial and breast cancer.

101
Q

Sunscreen protection

A

Decreases the risk for developing BCC, SCC, and malignant

melanoma of skin

102
Q

Immunization

A

HBV immunization. Decreases the risk for developing HCC, due to HBV-induced
cirrhosis

b. Human papillomavirus (HPV) immunization. Immunization against HPV decreases the risk for developing SCC of the cervix and penis

103
Q

Cervical Papanicolaou (Pap) smears

A

(1) Pap smears decrease the risk for cervical cancer due to HPV. HPV subtypes
16 and 18 are the most common. This explains why cervical cancer is the least
common gynecologic cancer and the least common gynecologic cancer-causing death.

(2) Pap smears detect dysplasia of the cervical mucosa, the precursor to invasive cervical cancer (Link 9-13). Cervical dysplasia is treated by cervical conization and other interventions

104
Q

Cytologic features of malignant disease detected by a vaginal Papanicolaou (Pap) smear

A

Malignant cells have enlarged hyper-chromatic nuclei, in contrast to the small nuclei of normal cell

105
Q

ABL

A

Nonreceptor tyrosine kinase activity

Translocation t(9;22); forms a fusion 
gene (BCR-ABL)

Chronic myelogenous leukemia: chromosome 22 with the translocation is called the Philadelphia chromosome.

106
Q

ERBB2 (also called

Her-2/Neu)

A

Receptor synthesis

Amplification or
overexpression

In breast carcinoma, ERBB2 is a marker of aggressiveness (poor prognosis). It is amplified or overexpressed in 25% of breast cancers

107
Q

C-MYC

A

Nuclear transcription Translocation t(8;14)

Burkitt lymphoma

108
Q

N-MYC

A

Nuclear transcription

Amplification

Neuroblastoma, small cell carcinoma of the lung

109
Q

RAS

A

Guanosine. triphosphate
signal transduction Point mutation •

Accounts for 15%–20% of all cancers: pancreatic carcinomas (90%); ≈50% of endometrial, colon, and thyroid cancers; 30% of lung adenocarcinomas and myeloid leukemias; and urinary bladder cancer

110
Q

RET

A

Receptor synthesis

Point mutation •

Multiple endocrine neoplasia lla/llb syndromes leukemia

111
Q

SIS (PBGFB)

A

Growth factor synthesis Overexpression Osteosarcoma, astrocytoma

112
Q

APC

A

Prevents nuclear transcription
(degrades catenin, an activator
of nuclear transcription)
• Inherited mutation (AD): familial polyposis (colorectal carcinoma)
• Somatic mutations: colon and stomach cancer

113
Q

BRCA1/BRCA2

A

Regulates DNA repair • Inherited mutation: female breast, ovary carcinomas; carcinoma of the
male breast

114
Q

NF1

A

Regulates DNA repair • Inherited mutation: female breast, ovary carcinomas; carcinoma of the
male breast

115
Q

NF2

A

Cytoskeletal stability • Inherited mutation (AD): neurofibromatosis type 2: bilateral acoustic neuromas (schwannoma), meningioma

Somatic mutation: schwannoma, meningioma

116
Q

p53

A
Inhibits G1 to S phase
Repairs DNA, inhibits the BCL2
antiapoptosis gene (initiates 
apoptosis)
•	 Inherited mutation (AD): Li-Fraumeni syndrome: breast carcinoma, brain
tumors, leukemia, sarcomas
•	 Somatic mutation: most human cancers (p53 gene is the most common 
gene producing cancer)
117
Q

RB1

A

Inhibits G1 to S phase • Inherited mutation (AD): retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma

Somatic mutation: retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma, carcinomas of breast,
lung, colon

118
Q

TGF-b

A

Inhibits G1 to S phase • Inherited mutation: familial stomach cancer

Somatic mutation: pancreatic and colorectal carcinomas

119
Q

VHL

A

Regulates nuclear transcription • Inherited mutation (AD): von Hippel–Lindau syndrome: cerebellar
hemangioblastoma, retinal angioma, renal cell carcinoma (bilateral),
pheochromocytoma (bilateral)

120
Q

WT1

A

Regulates nuclear transcription • Inherited mutation (AD): Wilms tumor

Sporadic mutation: Wilms tumor

121
Q

Mechanism of action of chemical carcinogens

A

a. Direct-acting carcinogens. Contain electron-deficient atoms that react with electron-rich atoms in DNA (e.g., alkylating agents, nickel).
b. Indirect-acting carcinogens
(1) Require metabolic conversion to a carcinogen before they become active
(2) For example, PAHs from cigarette smoke, smoked meats, or meats cooked at a high temperature over an open flame are metabolized in the liver cytochrome P450 system and converted into DNA-binding epoxides that are carcinogenic.

122
Q

Sequence of chemical carcinogenesis

A

Initiation
Promotion
Progression

123
Q

Aflatoxin (from

Aspergillus)

A

Ingestion of maize and peanuts grown in hot/humid
climates

Hepatocellular carcinoma in association with
HBV

124
Q

Alkylating agents

A

Oncology chemotherapy •

Malignant lymphoma

125
Q

Arsenic

A

Herbicides (common in vineyard workers), fungicides, animal dips; metal smelting; intentional/accidental poisoning

Squamous cell carcinoma of skin, lung cancer, liver angiosarcoma (malignancy of blood vessels)

126
Q

Asbestos

A

Roofing material (roofers with over 20 years of
experience have had contact with asbestos); insulation
for pipes in ships in shipyards (no longer used for
insulation), old homes; old cars with brake liners
• Bronchogenic carcinoma (most common), pleural
mesothelioma

127
Q

Azo dyes

A

Used in paints, printing inks, varnishes, leather products,
carpets, food products

Hepatocellular carcinoma

128
Q

Benzene

A

Component of light oil; used in printing industry, dry
cleaning, paint, adhesives and coatings
• Acute leukemia, Hodgkin lymphoma

129
Q

Beryllium

A

Used in the space industry (missile fuel and space
vehicles; metal alloys in aerospace appliances and
nuclear reactors)
• Bronchogenic carcinoma

130
Q

Cadmium

A

Used in industries where ore is being smelted; electroplating; welders who have welded on cadmium-containing alloys or worked with silver
solders; found in some batteries
• Prostate and lung cancer

131
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

Chemotherapy agent • Transitional cell carcinoma of urinary bladder

132
Q

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

A

Once used to treat women with threatened abortions • Daughters exposed to mothers who took DES
may develop clear cell carcinoma of vagina/cervix

133
Q

β-Naphthylamine
(aniline dyes) and
aromatic amines

A

Workers in the rubber, chemical, leather, textile, metal,
and printing industries

Transitional cell carcinoma of urinary bladder

134
Q

Nickel

A

Nickel plating, by-product of stainless steel welding, ceramics, batteries, spark plugs

Bronchogenic carcinoma, nasal cavity cancer

135
Q

Oral contraceptives

A

Birth control pill •

Breast and cervical cancer; hepatic adenoma
tendency to rupture

136
Q

Polycyclic

hydrocarbons

A

Formed when coal, soot (chimney sweeper), wood, gasoline, oil, tobacco, or other organic materials are burned; also formed in food when fish or meats are charbroiled on an open flame

Squamous cell carcinoma: skin (scrotum with soot in chimney sweeper), oral cavity, mid-esophagus, larynx, lung
Adenocarcinoma: distal esophagus, pancreas, kidney

Transitional cell carcinoma: urinary bladder, renal
pelvis

137
Q

Polyvinyl chloride F

A

Found in plastic piping material, adhesive plastics,
refrigerant

Liver angiosarcoma

138
Q

Radon and decay

products

A

By-product of decay of uranium, hazard in quarries and underground mines

Bronchogenic carcinoma

139
Q

Silica

A

Chemical of silicon dioxide, rock quarries, sandblasting •

Bronchogenic carcinoma

140
Q

Helicobacter pylori

A

s adenocarcinoma and low-grade malignant lymphoma

of the stomach

141
Q

Fusobacterium nucleatum

A

in the early stages of colorectal cancer development

142
Q

Schistosoma haematobium

A

Causes SCC of the urinary bladder

143
Q

Clonorchis sinensis and Opisthorchis viverrini

A

Cause cholangiocarcinoma of bile ducts

144
Q

Order of importance of microbial agents causing cancer

A

viruses > bacteria > parasites

145
Q

Ionizing radiation-induced cancers

A

Ionizing radiation–induced cancers

146
Q

Examples of ionizing radiation–induced cancers

A

(1) Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) and chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
(a) Leukemia is the most common overall cancer due to ionizing radiation.
(b) Radiologists and individuals exposed to radiation in nuclear reactors are at
increased risk of developing leukemia.

(2) Papillary thyroid carcinoma

147
Q

HCV (RNA)

A

Produces cirrhosis

Hepatocellular carcinoma

148
Q

HTLV-1 (RNA)

A

Activates TAX gene, stimulates polyclonal T-cell proliferation, inhibits p53 suppressor gene

T-cell leukemia and lymphoma

149
Q

EBV (DNA virus)

A

Promotes polyclonal B-cell proliferation, which increases the
risk for a t(8;14) translocation

Burkitt lymphoma, CNS lymphoma in AIDS, mixed cellularity
Hodgkin lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma

150
Q

HBV (DNA)

A

Activates proto-oncogenes inactivates p53 suppressor gene • Hepatocellular carcinoma

151
Q

HHV-8 A

A

Acts via cytokines released from HIV and HSV • Kaposi sarcoma

152
Q

HPV types 16

and 18

A

Type 16 (≈50% of cancers): E6 gene product inhibits the p53 suppressor gene

Type 18 (≈10% of cancers): E7 gene product inhibits the RB1 suppressor gene

Squamous cell carcinoma of vulva, vagina, cervix, anus
(associated with anal intercourse), larynx, oropharynx

153
Q

Host defenses against cancer

A
  1. Humoral immunity. Humoral immunity involves antibodies and complements.
  2. Type IV cell-mediated immunity (CMI)
    a. CMI is the most efficient mechanism for killing cancer cells.
    b. Cytotoxic CD8 T cells. Recognize altered class I antigens on neoplastic cells and destroy them.
  3. Natural killer (NK) cells. Directly kill malignant cells (type IV hypersensitivity) or use the indirect killing of cells via type II hypersensitivity reactions.
  4. Macrophages kill cancer cells; however, they are not as effective as cytotoxic T cells and NK
    cells.
154
Q

Grading criteria for cancer

A

a. Degree of differentiation (e.g., low, intermediate, or high grade [anaplastic])
b. Nuclear features, invasiveness

155
Q

Staging criteria

A

Most important prognostic factor for survival

156
Q

TNM system for staging cancer

A

(1) TNM progresses from the least to the most important prognostic factor.
(2) T refers to tumor size. A malignant tumor that is ≥2 cm is inherently capable of metastasizing.
(3) N refers to whether lymph nodes are involved.
(4) M refers to extranodal metastases (e.g., liver, lung)

157
Q

For a carcinoma to reach M

A

already has passed through N (lymph nodes) and

spread to other organ sites via the bloodstream.

158
Q

If there are no extranodal metastases, then N

A

(lymph nodes) is the most

important prognostic factor for survival

159
Q

Cancer effects on the host

A
Cachexia 
Anemia
Hemostasis abnormalities
Fever in malignancy
Paraneoplastic syndromes
160
Q

Signs and symptoms of malignant tumors

A
General symptoms:
 • Cachexia
 • Loss of well-being
Neurologic symptoms
Obstruction:
• Airways
• Digestive tube
Respiratory symptoms:
• Dyspnea
• Pneumonia
Splenomegaly
Intestinal obstruction
Abdominal masses
Skin lesions
Liver enlargement
Ascites
Bleeding:
 • Rectal
 • Urinary tract
 • Vaginal
Thrombosis
161
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes

A

Distant effects of a tumor that are unrelated to metastasis

b. Epidemiology of paraneoplastic syndromes
(1) Predate the onset of metastasis
(2) Occur in 10% to 15% of cancer patients
(3) Involve multiple organ systems and mimic metastatic disease
(4) Some cancers may ectopically secrete hormones

162
Q

Acanthosis nigricans

A

Stomach carcinoma Black, verrucous lesion

163
Q

Eaton-Lambert syndrome

A

Small cell carcinoma of lung Myasthenia gravis–like symptoms (e.g., muscle weakness);
antibody directed against calcium channel

164
Q

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma Periosteal reaction of distal phalanx (often associated with clubbing of nail)

165
Q

Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis

A

Mucus-secreting pancreatic and
colorectal carcinomas
Sterile vegetations on mitral valve

166
Q

Seborrheic keratosis

A

Stomach carcinoma Sudden appearance of numerous pigmented seborrheic
keratoses (Leser-Trélat sign)

167
Q

Superficial migratory thrombophlebitis

A

Pancreatic carcinoma Release of procoagulants (Trousseau sign)

168
Q

Nephrotic syndrome

A

Lung, breast, stomach carcinomas Diffuse membranous glomerulopathy

169
Q

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

A

clubbing. Note the bulbous swelling of the connective tissue in the terminal phalanxes.

B, Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy of the tibia showing periosteal elevation
of the tibia

170
Q

Cushing syndrome

A

Small cell carcinoma of lung, medullary carcinoma of thyroid, pancreatic cancer ACTH

171
Q

Gynecomastia

A

Choriocarcinoma (testis), seminoma hCG

172
Q

Hypercalcemia •

A

Renal cell carcinoma, primary squamous cell carcinoma of lung, breast
carcinoma, adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma - PTH-related protein

Malignant lymphomas (contain 1α-hydroxylase) - Calcitriol (vitamin D)

173
Q

Hypocalcemia

A

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid Calcitonin

174
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma, ovarian carcinoma, fibrosarcoma Insulin-like factor

175
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma,

A

ovarian carcinoma, fibrosarcoma Insulin-like factor

176
Q

Secondary polycythemia

A

Renal cell carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, cerebellar hemangioma Erythropoietin

177
Q

AFP

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma, yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor) of ovary or testis

178
Q

Bence Jones protein (light chains)

A

Multiple myeloma, Waldenström macroglobulinemia (represent light chains in urine)

179
Q

CA 15-3

A

Breast cancer

180
Q

CA19-9

A

Pancreatic, colorectal carcinomas

181
Q

CA125

A

Surface-derived ovarian cancer (e.g., serous cystadenocarcinoma; helpful in distinguishing benign
from malignant tumors)

182
Q

CEA

A

Colorectal and pancreatic carcinomas (monitor for recurrences); cancers of lung, stomach, heart

183
Q

LDH

A

Malignant lymphoma (prognostic factor for response to standard therapy)

184
Q

Neuron specific enolase

A

Small cell carcinoma of lung

185
Q

PSA

A

Prostate carcinoma (also increased in prostate hyperplasia)

186
Q

Biological markers of cancer include

A

hormones, enzymes, oncofetal antigens,

immunoglobulins, and glycoproteins

187
Q

Cytokeratin stain positive

A

epithelial tissue origin

188
Q

Vimentin stain positive

A

connective tissue origin

189
Q

CD45 positive

A

malignant lymphoma

190
Q

Epithelial Dysplasia commonly leads to the development of__________________ It should be immediately treated by_________________

A

Carcinomas, Excision