Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

Define tumor.

A
  • abnormal growth of tissue
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2
Q

Define neoplasm. How do neoplasms use telomerase, angiogenesis, and metastasis to their advantage?

A
  • new tissue growth
  • unregulated
  • monoclonal

TELOMERASE
- cancers have upregulated telomerase => allows stabilization of telomere length => prevents cell cycle arrest due to short telomeres

ANGIOGENESIS

  • necessary for tumor growth, nutrients, oxygen, growth factors
  • upregulation of VEGF in tumor cells
  • hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF-1a) can upregulate VEGF
  • Von-Hippel Lindau (VHL) is a tumor-suppressor gene that inhibits HIF-1a. If VHL mutated => angiogenesis

METASTASIS
- downregulation of e-cadherin epithelial adhesion factor => dissociation of attached cells => cells attach to laminin => destruction of basement membrane via collagenase => attach to fibronectin => invade ECF, vessels, etc.

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3
Q

List and define characteristics used to differentiate between benign and malignant neoplasms.

A
  1. differentiation - how well do parenchymal cells resemble normal cells
  2. anaplasia - loss of structure and function of original cells
  3. pleomorphism - variation in size and shape of cells, characteristic of anaplastic neoplasms
  4. Nuclear-to-cytoplasm ratio (N:C Ratio) approaches 1:1 (typically, 1:6)
  5. dysplasia -
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4
Q

Explain the natural history of dysplasia. Describe clinical examples such as the respiratory tract and female genital tract.

A
def - disorderly architecture, primarily in epithelium
characteristics
- pleomorphic
- hyperchromatic nuclei
- high N:C ratio
- disorderly maturation
- mitoses above basal layer
- do not penetrate basement membrane
- may be reversible if stressor is removed
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5
Q

List and define characteristics used to differentiate between benign and malignant neoplasms.

A

BENIGN

  • well-differentiated to dysplastic
  • slow growth
  • encapsulated
  • localized

MALIGNANT

  • well-differentiated to anaplastic
  • pleomorphic
  • hyperchromatic nuclei
  • mitoses
  • variable, unpredictable rate of growth
  • ability to metastasize
  • infiltrates locally
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6
Q

Define metastasis. List 3 pathways by which neoplasms metastasize.

A
  • secondary implants of a malignant tumor
  • may be in remote tissues
  • presence indicates malignancy more than any other characteristics

PATHWAYS OF DISSEMINATION
- seeding within body cavities (ovarian cancer)
- via lymphatic spread (initially carcinomas spread to lymph drainage nodes)
- via blood vessels (hematogenous spread)
=> more typical of sarcomas, renal/hepatic carcinomas

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7
Q

Define proto-oncogene.

A

NORMAL genes that promote cell proliferation

  • mutated or overexpressed versions of proto-oncogenes
  • function autonomously
  • encode TFs, growth proteins, cell survival proteins
  • potent carcinogenic factor
  • dominant
  • gain of function = cancer
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8
Q

Define tumor suppressor genes.

A

NORMAL genes that inhibit cell proliferation

  • recessive b/c need both to get transformation
  • loss of function = cancer
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9
Q

Discuss: “The molecular basis of carcinogenesis is a multi-step process”

A

4 classes of normal regulatory genes are typical targets of cell damage

  • proto oncogenes
  • tumor suppressor genes
  • apoptosis genes
  • DNA repair genes
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10
Q

How does RAS mutations contribute to carcinogenesis?

A
  • most commonly mutated gene in human tumors (30%)
  • member of G protein family that transfers signal from membrane to nucleus
  • when inactive = GDP, when active = GTP
  • mutations interfere with RAS GTPase activity and prevent dephosphorylation of GTP => constantly active
  • downstream effectors are proliferation genes => cell is continuously proliferating
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11
Q

How do Rb mutations contribute to carcinogenesis? Contrast between unilateral and bilateral retinoblastomas.

A

Retinoblastoma gene = first tumor suppressor discovered

  • controls G1 to S transition in cell cycle
  • when active = hypophosphorylated, bound to E2F transcription factor => prevents transcription of DNA replication genes => cells arrest in G1
  • CDK4 (cyclin-dependent kinase) phosphorylates Rb => detaches from E2F
  • mutated Rb is always unbound (inactive) => E2F TF is constantly stimulating progression of the cell cycle => uncontrolled growth

UNILATERAL - due to sporadic Rb mutations;
BILATERAL - germline; characteristic of osteosarcomas as well

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12
Q

How do p53 gene mutations contribute to carcinogenesis? Define Li-Fraumeni syndrome.

A

guardian of the genome - one of most commonly mutated gene

  • in response to DNA damage by activating quiescence, senescence, or upregulating DNA repair genes
  • if repair is not possible, activates apoptosis

LI-FRAUMENI

  • germline + somatic (2 hit)
  • 25x greater risk of developing malignancy by age 5
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13
Q

Apoptosis is carried out by caspases, which activate proteases and endonucleases. Describe the key principles of internal and external apoptotic pathways.

A

INTRINSIC (mitochondrial)

  • DNA damage => inactivation of BCL2 => allows cytochrome c to leak from mitochondria => activates caspases => activates apoptosis
  • BCL2 is normally anti-apoptotic when active b/c it blocks cytochrome c from damaging the mitochondrial membrane
  • carcinogenesis: overexpression of BCL2

EXTRINSIC (receptor ligand)

  • FAS ligand binds to FAS death receptor (CD95) on target cell
  • activates caspases
  • normally used to eliminate self-reactive lymphocytes
  • carcinogenesis: disruption of FASL or FAS death receptor
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14
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of chemical carcinogenesis. List some common ones.

A
- react with RNA/DNA or nuclear proteins
EXAMPLES
- vinyl chloride => angiosarcoma of liver
- nitrosamine in smoked meats => stomach cancer
- asbestos
- arsenic
- napthylamine dyes
- aflatoxin B
- cigarette smoke
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15
Q

Define direct-acting carcinogenic agents.

A
  • require no metabolic conversion

- ex: chemotherapy

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16
Q

Define indirect-acting carcinogenic agents.

A
  • require metabolic conversion
  • ex: tobacco
  • susceptibility to this type of carcinogenesis depends on patient’s availability of that enzyme
17
Q

Define promoters.

A
  • nontumorigenic compounds that facilitate induction of clonal proliferation
18
Q

Describe immune surveillance of cancer. How do neoplasms evade immune surveillance?

A
  • typically T killer cells screen for cancer cells
  • neoplasms that can avoid detection have higher likelihood of being cancerous

EVASION

  • do not express HLA
  • eliminate strong immunogenic subclones
  • suppress host immunity (ex: secrete TGF-b)
  • express FAS Ligand and activate FAS death receptors and apoptosis
  • activate Tregs
  • produce coat of glycocalyx to block access to immune cells
19
Q

List 4 sources of carcinogenic radiation. Cite 2 examples of therapeutic irradiation that can lead to cancer.

A
  • UV
  • Xrays
  • ionizing radiation
  • fission by products
  • radionucleotides
20
Q

Cite 2 categories of oncogenic viruses. List human neoplasms that are strongly linked with causative oncogenic viruses.

A

RNA VIRUSES
- HTLV1 causes T cell leukemia

DNA VIRUSES

  • HPV => cervical cancer
  • EBV => burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  • HepB/C => hepatocellular carcinoma
21
Q

Define cancer grading and staging. Compare and contrast.

A

GRADING

  • based on cytologic differentiation (anaplasia, pleomorphism, loss of normal architecture, aggressiveness)
  • low grade = well differentiated
  • high grade = poorly differentiated

STAGING

  • based on size of primary tumor, spread to regional lymph nodes, metastases
  • greater clinical value than grading
22
Q

Define paraneoplastic syndrome.

A
  • syndrome complexes that cannot be explained by local or widespread neoplasms
  • tumor may be producing hormones that its parenchymal cells do not normally produce
  • ex: Cushing’s due to lung carcinoma producing ACTH
  • ex: myasthenia gravis due to thymomas
  • ex: hypercalcemia due to PTH related protein being produced by carcinoma of the lung
23
Q

Define cancer cachexia.

A

loss of lean body mass, anemia, anorexia, weakness, body fat loss

  • mediated by cytokines (TNF, proteolytic factor)
  • no treatment except eradicate cancer
24
Q

How are tumors named?

A

ONE-CELL

  • benign: tissue type + oma (fibroma, osteoma)
  • malignant: tissue type + sarcoma (fibrosarcoma, osteosarcoma)

MIXED CELL
- benign: pleomorphic adenoma
- malignant: malignant tumor of the salivary glands
IF derived from multiple germ cells (totipotent gonad cells)
- benign: mature teratoma
- malignant: teratocarcinoma

25
Q

Define carcinoma-in-situ.

A

When dysplastic neoplasms involve the entire thickness of the epithelial surface

26
Q

Define:

  • differentiation
  • pleomorphism
  • N:C ratios
A
  • differentiation: how much to parenchymal cells resemble normal cells
  • pleomorphism: varied size and shape
  • N:C ratios: increases in malignant cancer, closer to 1:1
27
Q

Describe Knudson’s Two Hit Hypothesis.

A

(in relation to Rb)

  • inheriting one germline mutation is not enough to cause cancer
  • mutations occurring in the good copy of the gene in somatic cells ==> cancer
  • much more likely to have germline + somatic rather than 2 somatic mutations
28
Q

Define Xeroderma Pigmentosum.

A
  • autosomal recessive syndrome
  • defective DNA repair
  • increased risk of skin cancer