Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology I Test I > Neoplasia > Flashcards

Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

What does neoplasia mean?

A

New Growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does tumor mean?

A

Swelling, formation of masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does cancer mean?

A

Tissue invasion appearance like crawling crab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does oncology mean?

A

Study of Swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does carcinoma in situ mean?

A

Means “in its place” but is a tumor that has not penetrated the basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Are all tumors a neoplasia?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Is a neoplasia always a tumor?

A

No, sometimes there’s no distinct mass as in leukemia or malignant disease of bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 types of reversible plasias?

A

1) Hyperplasia
2) Metaplsia
3) Dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 3 types of irreversible plasias?

A

1) anaplasia
2) neoplasia
3) desmoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

Irreversible Abnormal cells lacking differentiation; like primitive cells equated with undifferentiated malignant neoplasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is desmoplasia?

A

Irreversible Fibrous tissue formation in response to neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two classifications of tumors?

A

Benign

Malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How are tumors classified?

A

Histologically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do the growths of benign and malignant tumors differ?

A

Benign tumors are slow and expansive and malignant tumors are fast and invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Are both benign and malignant tumors metastatic?

A

No, Benign tumors are not metastatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do the external surface features of benign and malignant tumors differ?

A 
Benign = smooth
Malignant = irregular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Do both benign and malignant tumors have capsules?

A

No, only benign tumors have capsules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Are both benign and malignant tumors capable of necrosis?

A

No, only malignant tumors are capable of necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Are both benign and malignant tumors capable of hemorrhage?

A

No, only malignant tumors are capable of hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does the architechture of benign and malignant tumors differ?

A 
Benign = resembles normal tissue of origin
Malignant = Does not resemble normal tissue of origin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does the cells of benign and malignant tumors differ?

A 
Benign = well differentiated
Malignant = Poorly differentiated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do the nuclei of benign and malignant tumors differ?

A 
Benign = normal size and shape; uniform
Malignant = pleomorphic (variable in shape)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does the mitosis of benign and malignant tumors differ?

A 
Benign = few in mitosis
Malignant = many and irregular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a regular nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio?

A

1:6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does a nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio of 1:2 or 1:3 signify?

A

It means they are neoplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does metastasis mean?

A

Change in position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the main pathways of metastasis?

A

1) lymphatics
2) blood (hematogenous spread)
3) Seeding surface of body cavities (transcoelomic spread)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some other pathways of metastasis?

A

Intraepithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the steps of hematogenous metastatic cascade?

A

1) primary tumor
2) metastatic clone evolves
3) proliferation of the clone and invasion of vessel
4) transport by circulation
5) emobilization
6) invasion
7) new tumor formation at the site of metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is transcoelomic spreading?

A

Direct seeding of a cavity by neoplastic cells within that cavity therefore there is no plane of resistance to spreading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is intraepithelial spread?

A

1) Tumor cells infiltrate between the cells of normal epithelium without invading the underlying stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the best example of intraepithelial spread?

A

Paget’s disease of the nipple where cells of ductal carcinoma in situ grow into nipple skin and resemble eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is tumor-induced angiogenesis?

A

The biologic role of tumors to overcome limitation of nutrient and oxygen delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do mesenchymal tumors with the -oma ending mean?

A

It stands for a mesenchymal benign tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do mesenchymal tumors with the -sarcoma ending mean?

A

It means that it is a mesenchymal malignant tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What do epithelial tumors with the adenoma ending mean?

A

It is a benign epithelial tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What do epithelial tumors with the carcinoma ending mean?

A

It is a malignant epithelial tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the three exceptions to the “oma” being benign rule? Why?

A

Lymphoma
Multiple myeloma
Glioma
Because they only exist via blood cells, lymph system and glial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is common between squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma?

A

They both are surrounded by non-neoplastic stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are some tumors of blood cells and lymphocytes?

A

Leukemia
Lymphoma
Multiple Myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are some tumors of neural cells?

A

Ganglioneuroma

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are some tumors of glial and nueral suporting cells?

A

Glioma and meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are some germ cell tumors?

A

Teratoma, embryonal carcinoma and seminom/dysgerminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are blastomas?

A

Blastomas are malignant tumors composed of embryonic cells originating from embryonic primordia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a teratoma?

A

Teratomas are derived from germ cells and contain tissues that are formed from all three germ layers: etoderm, mesoderm and endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are eponymic tumors?

A

These tumors carry the name of physicians who have described them first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does Hodgkin’s disease affect?

A

lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does Ewing’s sarcoma affect?

A

Bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does Kaposi’s sarcoma affect?

A

Skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is tumor staging based on?

A

Clinical assessment during gross examination, surgery, x-ray examinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the grading of tumors based on?

A

Based on histologic examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does the TNM system of staging take account for?

A 
T = size of tumor
N = presence of lymph node metastases
M = Distant metastases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the grading scale of the TNM system?

A

0-4 in each category TNM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What grading of M signifies metastases?

A

a 1 represents metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What do the roman numeral stages of tumor range from?

A

0 to IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a stage 0 tumor?

A

A carcinoma that is in situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a stage I cancer?

A

Cancer that is localized to one part of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a stage II cancer?

A

A locally advanced (same as stage III but specific criteria differ according to diagnosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In Hodgkin’s disease what is the difference between stage II and stage III?

A

Stage II: lymph nodes on only one side of the diaphragm

Stage III: lymph nodes above and below the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is a stage IV cancer?

A

Canvers that have metastasized or spread to other organs or throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is the Ann Arbor staging for? and what stages are there?

A

For lymphomas ranging from stage I - IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a stage I in the Ann arbor staging?

A

Cancer is located in a single region, usually one lymph node and the surrounding area. Stage I often will not have outward symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a stage II in the Ann arbor staging?

A

Cancer is located in two separate regions, an affected lymph node or organ within the lymphatic system and a second affected area, and that both affected areas a confined to one side of the diaphragm (ie: both are above the diaphragm or both are below the diaphragm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is a stage III in the Ann arbor staging?

A

Cancer has spread to both sides of the diaphragm, including one organ or area near the lymph nodes or the spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a stage IV in the Ann arbor staging?

A

Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs, including any involvement of the liver, bone marrow, or nodular involvement of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does the tumor grades range from?

A

Grade I - III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is tumor grading based on?

A

Histologic examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is a grade I tumor?

A

well differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is a grade II tumor?

A

Moderately well differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a grade III tumor?

A

undifferentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Overall, which has more predictive value, grading or staging of tumors?

A

Staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Is the difference between normal and malignant cells qualitative or quantitative?

A

Quantitative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Are cancer cells more or less adapted to survive unfavorable conditions and are they more or less differentiated than normal cells?

A

Cancer cells are less differentiated and more adapted to survive under unfavorable conditions as they require less oxygen to survive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What do tumors secrete?

A

Autocrine growth factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

In terms of mitochondria, RER and specialized enzymes how do cancer cells differ and why?

A

Cancer cells contain fewer mitochondria, less RER and few er specialized enzymes because they prefer anaerobic conditions like lactic acid and don’t need to be functional, and loses the ability to perform function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Can the tumor cells acquire embryonic/fetal features?

A

Yes it can have due to tumor cell regression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Where is alpha fetal protein produced?

A

Liver cancer cells produce AFP, a product of fetal hepatocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Where is carcinoembryonic antigen produced?

A

CEA is produced by cells of large intestinal adenocarcinoma and normal fetal intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are growth properties of cancer cells in vitro?

A

1) lack of contact inhibition
2) Can be passaged from one flask to another indefinitely
3) Growth in soft agar and roller bottles (anchorage -independent growth
4) Do not require growth factors, but are rather dependent on autocrine stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are some exogenous causes of cancer?

A

1) Chemical
2) Physical
3) biological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are some endogenous causes of cancer?

A

1) oncogenes

2) Tumor suppressor genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

HOw are human carcinogens identified?

A

1) clinical studies
2) epidemiological studies
3) experimental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are some examples of chemical carcinogens?

A

1) polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
2) aromatic amines
3) nitrosamines
4) steroid hormones
5) metals and inorganic compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the compound that is part of the polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons?

A

3, 4 benzpyrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the source of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons?

A

Tobacco tar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the mode of action to for polycyclcic aromatic?

A

Inhalation
Skin Contact
Metabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What tumor is induced by tobacco tar?

A

Inhalation = carcinoma of lung
Skin Contact = skin cancer
Metabolic = liver cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the compound that is part of the aromatic amines?

A

Beta-naphthylamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the source of aromatic amines?

A

Dye and rubber industry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the mode of action to for aromatic amines?

A

Excretion in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What tumor is induced by dye and rubber industry?

A

Bladder cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the compound that is part of the nitrosamines?

A

Nitrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the source of nitrosamines?

A

Food additive (ie: smoked foods)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the mode of action to for nitrosamines?

A

Bacterial conversion in the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What tumor is induced by food additives?

A

Intestinal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the compound that is part of the steroid hormones?

A

Estrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the source of steroid hormones?

A

Ovary/adrenal, IM/PO, xeno

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the mode of action to for steroid hormones?

A

Stimulation of endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What tumor is induced by Estrogens?

A

Endometrial carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the compound that is part of the metals and inorganic compounds?

A

Arsenic sulfate and nickel sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the source of metals and inorganic compounds?

A

Pesticides

Ore

102
Q

What is the mode of action to for metals and inorganic compounds?

A

Skin Contact

Inhalation

103
Q

What tumor is induced by pesticides and ore?

A

Pesticides -> skin contact = skin cancer

Ore -> inhalation = nasal cancer

104
Q

What is the source of aflatoxins?

A

aspergillus

105
Q

What is the mode of action to for aspergillus?

A

Ingestion, metabolism

106
Q

What tumor is induced by ingestion of aspergillus?

A

Liver (hepatocellular carninoma)

107
Q

What is the source of asbestos?

A

Industrial

108
Q

What is the mode of action to for asbestos?

A

Inhalation

109
Q

What tumor is induced by inhalation of asbestos?

A

Lung (mesothelioma and bronchogenic carcinoma)

110
Q

What is the source of CCl4?

A

Dry cleaning solvent, fire extinguisher, refrigerant and in lava lamps

111
Q

What is the mode of action for CCl4?

A

Contact and metabolism

112
Q

What tumor is induced by contact and metabolism of CCl4?

A

LIver (centrilobar necrosis, fatty change)

113
Q

What is the source of Vinyl chloride

A

Many

114
Q

What is the mode of action for vinyl chloride?

A

Inhalation

115
Q

What tumor is induced by inhalation of vinyl chloride??

A

Liver (angiosarcoma)

116
Q

What is the action of chemical carcinogens?

A

1) local action (ie: skin or mouth)
2) Occurs at site of digestion and absorption in the intestine
3) at the site of metabolic activation in the liver
4) at the side of excretion in urine

117
Q

What is 3rd hand smoke?

A

Area which has had smoke contact in the past surroundings.

118
Q

What is the stage of a carcinogen prior to being an active carcinogen?

A

The carcinogen is absorbed preformed or in the form of a procarcinogen and the transformed into the active carcinogen

119
Q

What are the carcinogens stepwise?

A

1) initiation
2) promotion
3) conversion
4) progression
5) clonal expansion

120
Q

What is the initiation phase of carcinogenesis?

A

Irreversible genetic changes

121
Q

What is the promotion phase of carcinogenesis?

A

Stimulation to proliferate (by promoters)

- carcinogens or not

122
Q

What is the conversion phase of carcinogenesis?

A

New cell type able to self proliferate

123
Q

What is the progression phase of carcinogenesis?

A

Acquisition of new genetic feature (not stopped by carcinogen/promoter removal)

124
Q

What is the clonal expansion phase of carcinogenesis?

A

Identical & divergent

125
Q

What are some physical carcinogens?

A
  • Ultraviolet light
  • X-rays
  • Radioactive isotopes
  • Atomic bomb
126
Q

What happens to unrepaired DNA that is damaged by UV light?

A
  • Basal cell carcinoma
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Melanoma
127
Q

What are some natural biologic carcinogens?

A

1) Aflatoxin
2) Schistosoma haematobium
3) Opisthorchis sinensis
4) Human viral carcinogens

128
Q

What is aflatoxin derived from and what does it act on?

A

The fungus aspergillus flavus and acts as a liver carcinogen

129
Q

What is schistosoma haematobium derived from and what does it act on?

A

Parasite and acts as a urinary bladder carcinogen

130
Q

What is Opisthorchis sinensis derived from and what does it act on?

A

Chinese liver fluke and acts as a carcinogen for bile duct of the liver

131
Q

What are the 3 different ways viral carcinogens invade cells?

A

1) Integration of DNA virus
2) Transduction
3) Insertion

132
Q

How does transduction of viral carcinogens do to cells?

A

Acute transforming RNA viruses form cellular oncogenes

133
Q

How does the insertion part of viral carcinogens?

A

Slow transforming oncogenic RNA viruses, insert into the genome and activate a latent cellular oncogene, which is then capable of transforming the normal cell into a malignant cell

134
Q

What are the different types of human carcinogenic viruses?

A

DNA viruses and RNA viruses

135
Q

What are some examples of human carcinogenic DNA viruses?

A
  • Human Papilloma virus
  • Epstein-Barr virus
  • Hepatitis B and C virus
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus
136
Q

What are the types of HPV that can cause cervical, penile/anal carcinoma?

A

16 and 18

137
Q

What can epstein-barr virus cause?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma (B cell neoplasia)

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

138
Q

What can Hepatitis B and C virus cause?

A

Liver cancer

139
Q

What can Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus cause?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma, a type of skin cancer

140
Q

What is a type of RNA virus and what can it cause?

A

Human T-cell leukemia/lymphoma virus and it can cause adult T cell leukemia (HIV group)

141
Q

What are human oncogenes?

A

Homologous to viral oncogenes and thus called cellular oncogenes

142
Q

What do human oncogenes represent?

A

Represent activated normal genes (proto-oncogenes)

143
Q

How does an oncogene function?

A

An oncogene has gained function and becomes a cancer-inducing agent

144
Q

How many damaged allele does it require to activate an oncogene?

A

Only 1 damaged allele

145
Q

What are different ways of transformation of proto-oncogenes into oncogenes?

A

1) point mutation
2) gene amplification
3) chromosomal rearrangement
4) insertion of viral oncogene

146
Q

What happens in Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

Activation of MYC oncogene via chromosome translation causing the IG gene that causes constant immunoglobulin production

147
Q

What tumor is associated with the gene abl?

A

Chronic myelogenous (or myeloid) leukemia (CML)

148
Q

What tumor is associated with the gene c-myc?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

149
Q

What tumor is associated with the gene bcl-2?

A

Follicular and undifferentiated lymphomas (inhibits apoptosis)

150
Q

What tumor is associated with the gene erb-B2?

A

Breast, ovarian, and gastric carcinomas

151
Q

What tumor is associated with the gene ras?

A

Colon carcinoma

152
Q

What tumor is associated with the gene L-myc?

A

Lung tumor

153
Q

What tumor is associated with the gene N-myc?

A

Neuroblastoma

154
Q

What tumor is associated with the gene met?

A

Hereditary papillary renal cancer

155
Q

What tumor is associated with the gene ret?

A

Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) types II and III

156
Q

What tumor is associated with the gene c-kit?

A

Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)

157
Q

What do tumor suppressor genes do?

A

Protect the cells against activated or newly acuired oncogenes

158
Q

What happens to a tumor suppressor gene that has lost function?

A

It is no longer a cancer-inhibiting agent

159
Q

How many tumor suppressor gene alleles out of the two need to be lost in order for expression of disease?

A

Both alleles

160
Q

What are the best known tumor suppressor genes?

A

Retinoblastoma gene (Rb-1)

161
Q

What is the related tumor of the suppressor gene Rb-1?

A

Retinoblastoma (eye)

162
Q

What is the related tumor of the suppressor gene p53?

A

Numerous Cancers (ie: breast and colon cancer)

163
Q

What is the related tumor of the suppressor gene NF-1?

A

Neurofibromatosis 1 (peripheral nerves)

164
Q

What is the related tumor of the suppressor gene NF-2?

A

Neurofibromatosis 2

165
Q

What is the related tumor of the suppressor gene WT-1?

A

Wilms tumor (kidney) *found in children

166
Q

What is the related tumor of the suppressor gene APC?

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis coli (large intestine)

167
Q

What is the related tumor of the suppressor gene BRCA1?

A

Breast carcinoma and ovarian carcinoma

168
Q

What is the related tumor of the suppressor gene BRCA 2?

A

Breast carcinoma

169
Q

What is the related tumor of the suppressor gene p16?

A

Melanoma

170
Q

What is the related tumor of the suppressor gene DPC?

A

pancreatic cancer

171
Q

What is the related tumor of the suppressor gene DCC?

A

Colon cancer

172
Q

What are different types of Hereditary cancer?

A

1) Neurofibromatosis type 1
2) familial adenomatous polyposis coli
3) Wilms’ tumor
4) Skin tumors in xeroderma pigmentosum
5) chromosomal fragility syndromes (Bloom’s syndrome, Fanconi’s syndrome)

173
Q

What are some cells that pose an immune response to tumors?

A

1) Natural Killer Cell
2) Macrophage
3) Neutrophil
4) B lymphocyte
5) Cytotoxic T lymphocyte

174
Q

What is the immunotherapy of Cancer?

A

1) some tumors involute spontaneously under the influence of immune factors
2) BcG (attenuated tuberculosis bacillus of calmette and Guerin) is used for treatment of bladder cancer
3) Tumor vaccines are used for treatment of melanoma and renal cell carcinoma

175
Q

Should tumor markers be used as a primary tool for cancer diagnosis?

A

No

176
Q

What should tumor markers be used for?

A

Confirming a diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence and to monitor response to therapy

177
Q

What is the PSA tumor marker detect?

A

Prostate-specific antigen, used to screen for prostate carcinoma

178
Q

What is the prostatic acid phosphatase tumor marker detect?

A

Prostate carcinoma

179
Q

What is the alpha fetoprotein tumor marker detect?

A

Normally made by fetus. Hepatocellular carcinomas. Nonseminatous germ cell tumors of the testis

180
Q

What is the Beta-hCG tumor marker detect?

A

Hydatidiform moles, Choriocarcinomas, and gestational trophoblastic tumors

181
Q

What is the CA-125 tumor marker detect?

A

Ovarian, malignant epithelial tumors

182
Q

What is the S-100 tumor marker detect?

A

melanoma, neural tumors astrocytomas

183
Q

What is the Alkaline phosphatase tumor marker detect?

A

Metastases to bone, obstructive biliary disease, Paget’s disease of bone

184
Q

What is the Bombesin tumor marker detect?

A

Neuroblastoma, lung and gastric cancer

185
Q

What is the TRAP tumor marker detect?

A

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase. Hairy cell leukemia - a B-cell neoplasm

186
Q

What is the CA-19-9 tumor marker detect?

A

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

187
Q

What is the Tg tumor marker detect?

A

Thyroglobulin. Thyroid cancers

188
Q

What are some local clinical manifestations of neoplasia?

A

Site specific:

  • physiological effects
  • anatomical effects
189
Q

What are some systemic clinical manifestations of neoplasia?

A
  • Cachexia
  • Anorexia
  • Paraneoplastic syndromes
190
Q

what is the cancer type for Cushing’s syndrome?

A

small-cell carcinoma of the lung

191
Q

What is the cause of cushing’s syndrome?

A

ACTH

192
Q

what is the cancer type causing SIADH?

A

Small cell lung carcinoma and intracranial neoplasms

193
Q

What is the cause of SIADH?

A

ADH

194
Q

What are the cancer type causing hypercalcemia?

A

1) squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
2) Breast carcinoma
3) Renal cell carcinoma

195
Q

What is the cause of squamous cell carcinoma of the lung induced hypercalcemia?

A

PTH-like polypeptide

196
Q

What is the cause of breast carcinoma and renal cell carcinoma induced hypercalcemia?

A

TGF-alpha

197
Q

What is the cancer type causing venous thrombosis?

A

Pancreatic carcinoma

198
Q

What is the cause of venous thrombosis?

A

Thromboplastin

199
Q

What is the cancer type causing polycythemia?

A

Renal cell carcinoma and hemangioblastoma

200
Q

What is the cause of polycythemia?

A

Erythropoietin

201
Q

What is the cancer type causing Myasthenia gravis?

A

Thymoma, small cell lung carcinoma

202
Q

What is the cause of Myasthenia gravis?

A

antibody to acetylcholine receptor at NMJ

203
Q

What is the cancer type causing Lambert-Eaton syndrome (muscular weakness)?

A

Small-cell carcinoma of the lung

204
Q

What is the cause of Lambert-Eaton syndrome (muscular weakness)?

A

Antibody to pre-synaptic calcium channels in nerve axons

205
Q

What is the cancer type causing Gout, urate nephropathy?

A

leukemias and lymphomas

206
Q

What is the cause of Gout, urate nephropathy?

A

Hyperuricemia due to excess nucleic acid turnover (or cytotoxic therapy)

207
Q

What are the seven warning signals of Cancer?

A

Caution

1) change in bowel or bladder habits
2) A sore that doesn’t heal
3) Unusual bleeding or discharge
4) Thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere
5) Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
6) Obvious change in wart or mole
7) Nagging cough or hoarseness

208
Q

What are some of the factors that determine clinical features of tumors?

A

1) Type of tumor
2) location
3) Histologic grade
4) Clinical Stage
5) Immune status of the host
6) Sensitivity of the tumor to therapy

209
Q

What are psammoma bodies?

A

Greek word psammos means sand and it is a microscopic feature seen in several cancers

210
Q

What cancers are psammoma bodies found in?

A

1) Papillary adenocarcinoma of thyroid
2) Seous papillary cystadenocarcinoma of ovary
3) Meningioma
4) Malignant mesothelioma

211
Q

How do psammoma bodies appear?

A

Laminated, concentric, calcific spherules

212
Q

What is the etiology of psammoma bodies?

A

Thought to arise from:

1) the infarction and calcification of papillae tips
2) calcification of intralymphatic tumor or thrombi

213
Q

In which gender has deaths from lung cancer plateaued? and which is continuing to rise?

A 
Males = plateau
Females = rise
214
Q

Is cancer the leading cause of death in the US?

A

No it is number 2, heart disease is 1st

215
Q

Define Incidence

A

The number of new cases that have been registered over a specific time in a defined population

216
Q

Define prevalence

A

The number of all cases, new and old, within a defined population at a defined time

217
Q

Define Mortality

A

The number of deaths attributed to cancer during a specified period in a defined population

218
Q

Define morbidity

A

number suffering from a disease that has been registered over a specific time in a defined population

219
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for lung cancer?

A

Smoking -> Cough

220
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for breast cancer?

A

Family history of cancer -> lump

221
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for colon cancer?

A

Family history of colonic polyps -> blood in stool

222
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for cervix cancer?

A

Promiscuity (early intercourse or multiple partners)

-> vaginal bleeding (spotting)

223
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for uterus cancer?

A

Hormonal: imbalance and treatment -> vaginal bleeding

224
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for skin cancer?

A

Sun exposure -> sun lesion

225
Q

What is the most important risk factor and most common initial symptom for prostate cancer?

A

Old age -> dysuria

226
Q

What cancer has the highest incidence in men?

A

Prostate

227
Q

What cancer is the second highest incidence in men and women?

A

Lung & bronchus

228
Q

What cancer is the third highest incidence in men and women?

A

Colon & rectum

229
Q

What cancer has the highest incidence in women?

A

Breast

230
Q

What cancer has the highest mortality in men and women?

A

Lung & bronchus

231
Q

What cancer has the third highest mortality in men and women?

A

Colon & rectum

232
Q

What cancer has the second highest mortality in men?

A

Prostate

233
Q

What cancer has the second highest mortality in women?

A

Breast

234
Q

Where does metastatic cancers usually travel to?

A

Liver
Lung
Brain
Bone

235
Q

What does metastatic cancer usually indicate?

A

A poor pronosis

236
Q

What are some signs for cancer metastasis to the brain?

A

Headaches
Seizures
Vertigo

237
Q

What are some signs for cancer metastasis to the lymph nodes?

A

lymphadenopathy (swollen and tender lymph nodes)

238
Q

What are some signs for cancer metastasis to the respiratory system?

A

Cough
Hempotysis
Dyspnea

239
Q

What are some signs for cancer metastasis to the liver?

A

Hepatomegaly

Jaundice

240
Q

What are some signs for cancer metastasis to the skeletal system?

A

Pain

Fractures

241
Q

What areas are the most common sites of metastasis to?

A

Primarily to the liver and lung after regional lymph nodes

242
Q

After the primary tumors have metastasized to the liver, list the other sites from most often to least.

A

Colon > Stomach > pancreas > breast > lung

243
Q

What cancer has the highest mortality of all cancers?

A

Lung cancer

244
Q

What other cancers can cause primary tumors that metastasize to the lungs?

A

1) Breast cancer
2) GI
3) Kidney
4) Melanoma
5) Sarcomas
6) Lymphomas and Leukemias
7) Germ cell tumors
8) Ovarian (rarely)

245
Q

Overall how many brain tumors are due to metastases?

A

50%

246
Q

How do tumors in the brain appear?

A

Typically multiple well circumscribed tumors at gray-white border

247
Q

What other areas can metastasis caused by primary tumors that metastasize to the brain travel from?

A

1) Lung
2) Breast
3) Skin (melanoma)
4) Kidney ( renal cell carcinoma)
5) GI

248
Q

Are metastatic or primary bone tumors more common?

A

Metastatic bone tumors are far more common

249
Q

From which common areas does metastases of the bone come from?

A

Breast and prostate

250
Q

What other areas can metastasis caused by primary tumors that metastasize to the bone travel from?

A

Prostate, Thyroid, Testes, Breast, Lung and Kidney

Pathology I Test I (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions