neonatology Flashcards

1
Q

You are asked to attend a preterm delivery. The neonate is born at 36 weeks gestation via emergency Caesarean section. The neonate has difficulty initiating breathing and requires resuscitation. They are dyspnoeic and tachypnoeic at a rate of 85 breaths/min. On auscultation of the chest, there is reduced breath sounds bilaterally. Heart sounds are displaced medially. The abdominal wall appears concave.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

presents with <strong>scaphoid abdomen</strong>, due to herniation of the abdominal contents into the cleft

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia can present with dyspnoea and tachypnoea at birth. The auscultation findings are due to <u>pulmonary hypoplasia and compression of the lun</u>g due to the presence of abdominal contents in the thoracic cavity. Prompt treatment and respiratory support are required.

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2
Q

what is a congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)?

A

herniation of abdominal viscera into the chest cavity due to incomplete formation of the diaphragm

=> results in pulmonary hypoplasia and hypertension which causes respiratory distress shortly after birth

occurs in around 1 in 2,000 newborns.

Only around 50% of newborns with CDH survive despite modern medical intervention.

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3
Q

A baby boy born 6 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10. He is not cyanosed, has a pulse of 140, cries on stimulation, his arms and legs resist extension and he has a good cry, He appears jaundiced.

What is the most appropriate action and why?

A

Measure and record the serum bilirubin level urgently (within 2 hours) in all babies with suspected or obvious jaundice in the first 24 hours of life since this is likely to be pathological rather than physiological jaundice.

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4
Q

what are causes of jaundice in the first 24 hours?

A

Jaundice in the first 24 hrs is always pathological

  • rhesus haemolytic disease
  • ABO haemolytic disease
  • hereditary spherocytosis
  • glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase
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5
Q

when does physiological jaundice occur?

A

Jaundice in the neonate from the c. 2-14 days is common (up to 40%) and usually physiological. It is more commonly seen in breastfed babies

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6
Q

what do you do if there are still signs of jaundice after 14 days?

A

a prolonged jaundice screen

  • ***conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin: the most important test as a <strong>raised conjugated bilirubin could indicate biliary atresia </strong>which requires urgent surgical intervention
  • direct antiglobulin test (Coombs’ test)
  • TFTs
  • FBC and blood film
  • urine for MC&S and reducing sugars
  • U&Es and LFTs
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7
Q

what are the causes of prolonged jaundice?

A
  • biliary atresia
  • hypothyroidism
  • galactosaemia
  • urinary tract infection
  • breast milk jaundice
  • congenital infections e.g. CMV, toxoplasmosis
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8
Q

what is biliary atresia?

A

a paediatric condition involving either obliteration/discontinuity within the extrahepatic biliary system –> obstruction in the flow of bile.

This results in a neonatal presentation of <strong>cholestasis</strong> in the first few weeks of life.

The pathogenesis of biliary atresia is unclear, however, infectious agents, congenital malformations and retained toxins within the bile are all contributing factors.

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9
Q

how do pts with biliary atresia present?

A

Patients typically present in the first few weeks of life with:

  • Jaundice extending beyond the physiological two weeks
  • Dark urine and pale stools
  • Appetite and growth disturbance, however, may be normal in some cases

Signs:

  • Jaundice
  • Hepatomegaly with splenomegaly
  • Abnormal growth
  • Cardiac murmurs if associated cardiac abnormalities present
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10
Q

what are the ix done for biliary atresia?

A
  • Serum bilirubin including differentiation into conjugated and total bilirubin: Total bilirubin may be normal, whereas conjugated bilirubin is abnormally high
  • Liver function tests (LFTs) including serum bile acids and aminotransferases are usually raised but cannot differentiate between biliary atresia and other causes of neonatal cholestasis
  • Serum alpha 1-antitrypsin: Deficiency may be a cause of neonatal cholestasis
  • Sweat chloride test: Cystic fibrosis often involves the biliary tract
  • Ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver: May show distension and tract abnormalities
  • Percutaneous liver biopsy with intraoperative cholangioscopy
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11
Q

what is the mx for biliary atresia?

A

Surgical intervention (definitive treatment): dissection of the abnormalities into distinct ducts and anastomosis creation

Medical intervention

  • antibiotic coverage
  • bile acid enhancers following surgery
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12
Q

what are the complications of biliary atresia?

A
  • Unsuccessful anastomosis formation
  • Progressive liver disease
  • Cirrhosis with eventual hepatocellular carcinoma
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13
Q

what is the Px for biliary atresia?

A
  • good if surgery is successful
  • In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life
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14
Q

Henry is a premature baby (29 weeks) who was born 2 weeks ago. Over the past week, he has been passing bloody stools, has abdominal distension and has not been feeding well. Physical examination reveals an increased abdominal girth with reduced bowel sounds. Abdominal X-ray shows dilated asymmetrical bowel loops and bowel wall oedema.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

necrotising enterocolitis

one of the leading causes of death among premature infants

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15
Q

what are the sx of NEC?

A

Initial symptoms can include feeding intolerance, abdominal distension and bloody stools, which can quickly progress to abdominal discolouration, perforation and peritonitis.

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16
Q

what is used for Dx of NEC and what do they show?

A

Abdominal x-rays can show:

  • dilated bowel loops (often asymmetrical in distribution)
  • bowel wall oedema
  • pneumatosis intestinalis (intramural gas)
  • portal venous gas
  • pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation
  • air both inside and outside of the bowel wall (Rigler sign)
  • air outlining the falciform ligament (football sign)
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17
Q

what are the components of the APGAR score ued to assess the health of the newborn baby?

A

pulse, respiratory effort, colour, muscle tone, reflex irritability

A score of 0-3 is very low score, between 4-6 is moderate low and between 7 - 10 means the baby is in a good state

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18
Q

Microcephaly may be defined as an occipital-frontal circumference < 2nd centile

what are some causes of microcephaly?

A
  • normal variation e.g. small child with small head
  • familial e.g. parents with small head
  • congenital infection
  • perinatal brain injury e.g. hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy
  • fetal alcohol syndrome
  • syndromes: Patau
  • craniosynostosis
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19
Q

how are gastroschisis and exomphalos similar?

A

they are both examples of congenital visceral malformations.

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20
Q

how are gastroschisis and exomphalos different?

A

Gastroschisis describes a congenital defect in the anterior abdominal wall just lateral to the umbilical cord.

In exomphalos (also known as an omphalocoele) the abdominal contents protrude through the anterior abdominal wall but are covered in an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

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21
Q

how is gastrochisis managed?

A
  • vaginal delivery may be attempted
  • newborns should go to theatre as soon as possible after delivery, e.g. within 4 hours
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22
Q

how is exomphalos (omphalocoele) managed?

A
  • caesarean section is indicated to reduce the risk of sac rupture
  • a staged repair may be undertaken as primary closure may be difficult due to lack of space/high intra-abdominal pressure
    • if this occurs the sacs is allowed to granulate and epithelialise over the coming weeks/months
    • this forms a ‘shell’
    • as the infant grows a point will be reached when the sac contents can fit within the abdominal cavity. At this point the shell will be removed and the abdomen closed
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23
Q

how often is an APGAR score assessed?

A

APGAR scores, including appearance/colour, should be assessed at 1 min, then reassessed at 5 and 10 minutes.

In first 10 minutes of life, suboptimal SpO2 readings can be expected from a healthy neonate. Transient cyanosis is very common initially after birth. It does not require any further management as it usually self-resolves.

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24
Q

how can you recognise central cyanosis clinically?

A

when concentration of reduced haemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl

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25
Q

what can you use to differentiate cardiac from non-cardiac causes?

A

nitrogen washout test (a.k.a. hyperoxia test)

infant given 100% oxygen for 10 mins

then ABGs taken

pO2 < 15 kPa = cyanotic congenital heart disease

26
Q

Transient hypoglycaemia in the first hours after birth is common.

What is persistent/severe hypoglycaemia caused by?

A
  • preterm birth (< 37 weeks)
  • maternal diabetes mellitus
  • IUGR
  • hypothermia
  • neonatal sepsis
  • inborn errors of metabolism
  • nesidioblastosis
  • Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
27
Q

what are the features of neonatal hypoglycaemia?

A
  • may be asymptomatic
  • autonomic (hypoglycaemia → changes in neural sympathetic discharge)
    • ‘jitteriness’
    • irritable
    • tachypnoea
    • pallor
  • neuroglycopenic
    • poor feeding/sucking
    • weak cry
    • drowsy
    • hypotonia
    • seizures
  • other features may include
    • apnoea
    • hypothermia
28
Q

what is the mx of neonatal hypoglycaemia?

A

Management depends on the severity of the hypoglycaemia and if the newborn is symptomatic

  • asymptomatic
    • encourage normal feeding (breast or bottle)
    • monitor blood glucose
  • symptomatic or very low blood glucose
    • admit to the neonatal unit
    • intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose
29
Q

You are called to see a 2 day-old neonate who was born 1 week premature following a premature rupture of membranes. He has failed to pass meconium in the first 24 hours and has begun vomiting. You witness one episode of vomiting during the examination which is stained green, which you suspect is bile. On examination he is irritable with an obvious distension of the abdomen but is apyrexial with normal oxygen saturations. Palpation of the abdomen causes further irritation but you are unable to feel any discrete mass.

What is the most likely underlying condition?

A

cystic fibrosis

This history is suggestive of a meconium ileus, a small bowel obstruction caused by thickened meconium which is secondary to cystic fibrosis. This typically presents with the neonate not passing meconium with a distended abdomen.

Vomiting may be bilious, which is in contrast to pyloric stenosis which does not contain bile. There is also no mass suggestive of intussusception or pyloric stenosis.

30
Q

You are called to assist in the resuscitation of a neonate who has just been born at 38 +6 weeks but is showing signs of respiratory distress. On auscultation of the precordium you note the heart sounds are absent on the left hand side but can hear tinkling sounds. The infant is also cyanosed.

What is the best initial management?

A

intubation and ventilation

Evidence of bowel sounds in a respiratory exam of a neonate in respiratory distress should make you consider a diaphragmatic hernia

31
Q

what is transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN)?

A

commonest cause of respiratory distress in newborn period

caused by delayed resoption of fluid in the lungs

32
Q

TTN is more common…?

A

following C-sections

possibly due to lung fluis not being ‘squeezed out’ during the passage through the birth canal

33
Q

what does the CXR of TTN show?

A
  • hyperinflation of the lungs
  • fluid in the horizontal fissure
34
Q

what may be required for TTN?

A

supplementary oxygen

35
Q

when does TTN usually settle?

A

within 1-2 days

36
Q

what is meconium aspiration syndrome?

A

respiratory distress in the newborn as a result of meconium in the trachea

37
Q

when does meconium aspiration occur?

A

in the immediate neonatal period

38
Q

in whom is meconium aspiration syndrome common in?

A

post-term deliveries

(44% in babies born after 42 weeks)

39
Q

what does meconium aspiration syndrome cause?

A

respiratory distress, which can be severe

40
Q

what accounts for a higher rate meconium aspiration syndrome?

A
  • hx of maternal HTN
  • pre-eclampsia
  • chorioamnionitis
  • smoking
  • substance abuse
41
Q

when does neonatal sepsis occur?

A

when a serious bacterial / viral infection in the blood affects babies within the first 28 days of life

42
Q

what is neonatal sepsis categorised into?

A
  • early-onset (EOS, within 72 h of birth)
  • late-onset (LOS, between 7-28 days of life)
43
Q

what % does neonatal sepsis account for all neonatal mortality?

A

10%

therefore, must be promptly identified and managed

44
Q

what are the causes of neonatal sepsis?

A
  1. neonatal infection (8 in 1000 per liver births; not yet necessarily progressed to neonatal sepsis)
  2. group B streptococcus (GBS) and E.coli (2/3 of cases)
45
Q

what is early onset sepsis primarily caused by and how is it transmitted?

A

GBS infection

usually due to transmission of pathogens from the mother to the neonate during delivery

46
Q

what is late onset sepsis commonly caused by?

A
  • coagulase-negative staphyloccocal species e.g. Staphylococcus epidermidis
  • gram -ve bacteria e.g. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella, Enterobacter
  • fungal species
47
Q

how is late onset sepsis transmitted?

A

transmission of pathogens from the environment post-delivery, normally from contacts e.g. parents, healthcare workers

48
Q

what are the risk factors for developing neonatal sepsis: from mother?

A
  • previous baby with GBS infection
  • has current GBS colonisation from prenatal screening
  • current bacteriuria
  • intrapartum temperature ≥38˚C
  • membrane rupture ≥18 hours
  • current infection throughout pregnancy
  • maternal chorioamnionitis
49
Q

what are other risk factors for neonatal sepsis?

A
  1. premature (<37 weeks)
  2. low birth weight (<2.5kg)
50
Q

how do pts with neonatal sepsis typically present?

A

subacute onset of:

  • respiratory distress
  • apnoea
  • apparent change in mental status / lethargy
  • jaundice
  • seizures: if cause is meningitis
  • poor/reduced feeding
  • vomiting

*frequently, sx will be related to source of infection

51
Q

is temperature a reliable sign for neonatal sepsis?

A

no, as the temperature can vary

  • term infants: more likely febrile
  • pre-term infants: more likely hypothermic
52
Q

what are the features of respiratory distress?

A
  • grunting
  • nasal flaring
  • use of accessory respiratory muscles
  • tachypnoea
53
Q

how does the clinical presentation for neonatal sepsis vary?

A

very subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock

54
Q

what are the ix done for neonatal sepsis?

A
  1. blood culture
  2. full blood examination
  3. CRP
  4. blood gases
  5. urine MCS
  6. LP*

*many hospitals will require LP as part of septic screen for neonates

55
Q

what is the most important part of mx for neonatal sepsis?

A

early identification and rx

56
Q

what is recommended by the NICE guidelines as a 1st line regimen for suspected or confirmed neonatal sepsis?

A

IV benzylpenicillin with gentamicin

57
Q

what should be re-measured after abx is given for neonatal sepsis, when and why?

A

CRP re-measured at 18-24 hours

to monitor ongoing progress and guide duration of therapy

58
Q

in neonates who have a CRP of <10 mg/L and a -ve blood culture at presentation, when can abx be ceased?

A

at 48 hours

59
Q

how long are neonates with culture-proven sepsis usually on abx for?

A

~10 days

60
Q

what are the other important mx factors to consider for neonatal sepsis?

A
  1. maintaining adequate oxygenation status
  2. maintaining normal fluid and electrolyte status
  3. daily body weight measurements for fluid status
  4. prevention +/- mx of hypoglycaemia
  5. prevention +/- mx of metabolic acidosis
61
Q

what is the neonatal blood spot screening?

A

previously called Guthrie test or ‘heel-prick test’

performed at 5-9 days of life

screens for:

  • congenital hypothyroidism
  • CF
  • sickle cell disease
  • PKU
  • medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD)
  • maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)
  • isovaleric acidaemia (IVA)
  • glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1)
  • homocystinuria (HCU)