Neonatology Flashcards

1
Q

[EINC]

What are the steps in EINC?

A
  1. Immediate drying
  2. Uninterrupted skin-to-skin contact
  3. Delayed cord clamping after 1-3 minutes
  4. Breastfeeding
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2
Q

[EINC]

What are the mechanism of heat loss in a newborn?

A
  1. Convection
  2. Conduction
  3. Heat radiation
  4. Evaporation
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3
Q

[Birth weight]

Low birth weight

A

<2500g

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4
Q

[Birth weight]

Very low birth weight

A

<1500g

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5
Q

[Birth weight]

Extremely low birth weight

A

<1000g

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6
Q

[Gestational Age]

Late preterm

A

> / 34 but < 37 weeks

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7
Q

[Gestational Age]

Very preterm birth

A

<32

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8
Q

[Gestational Age]

Extremely preterm birth

A

<28

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9
Q

____ BW is less than 3rd percentile for calculated age

A

SGA

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10
Q

____ BW is > 90th percentile for gestational age

A

LGA

associated with maternal DM and obesity, risk for hypoglycemia, polycythemia

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11
Q

[EINC]

What is the objective of thorough drying?

A

To stimulate breathing, provide warmth

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12
Q

[EINC]

What is the objective of early skin to skin contact?

A

To provide warmth, bonding, prevent infection, and hypoglycemia

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13
Q

[EINC]

What is the objective of delayed cord clamping

A
  1. Reduce anemia in term and preterm

2. Reduce IVH and transfusions in preterm

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14
Q

What are the components of APGAR?

A
Activity - active
Pulse - >100bpm
Grimace - Active motion
Appearance - body pink, extremities blue
Respiration - vigorous cry
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15
Q

RA ____

Newborn Screening test

A

RA 9288

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16
Q

In normal infants, NBS is done at __ hours

A

24 to 48 hours

If blood was collected <24hrs, repeat at 2 weeks old

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17
Q

For preterm infants, NBS should be done _____ day old

A

5-7 days old

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18
Q

How many diseases does Expanded NBS covers?

A

28 diseases

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19
Q

[Diagnosis]

Normal birth weight and length
Delayed physical, mental and sexual development;

Sluggish, deeding difficulties

Edema of scrotum and genitals, prolonged jaundice

A

Congenital Hypothyroidism

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism?

A

Thyroid Dysgenesis

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21
Q

[Diagnosis]

Normal at birth but with signs of sexual and somatic precocity within 1st 6 months of life

Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia

A

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

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22
Q

Marked elevation of 17-OHprogesteron is normally elevated in the first ____ DOL in sick pre-term infants

A

2-3 DOL

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23
Q

Most common enzyme deficiency associated with CAH?

A

21-hydroxylase enzyme

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24
Q

What is the treatment for CAH

A

Glucocorticoid replacement 15 to 20mg/m2/24 hours administered orally in 3 divided doses

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25
What is the DOC for salt-wasting type of CAH
Fludrocortisone
26
What are the enzyme deficiency in Galactosemia?
1. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltansferase (classic) 2. Galactokinase (cataract) 3. Galactose-4-epimerase
27
What is the enzyme deficient in phenylketonuria?
Phenylalanine hydroxylase | Increased Phe
28
What is the damaging by product of phenylalanine that disrupts normal metabolism and causes brain damage?
Phenylethylamine unpleasant musty odor
29
What is the most common manifestation of phenyketonuria?
developmental delay Infant: severe vomiting, hypertonic, hyperactive DTRs Older: hyperactive with purposeless movements, rhythmic rocking and athetosis, unpleasant musty odor
30
What is the enzyme deficiency in MSUD?
Branched chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex L, I, V
31
[PE findings at birth] slate blue, well demarcated areas of pigmentation over the buttocks and back
Mongolian spots
32
[PE findings at birth] small, white, vesiculopustular papules on an erythematous base after 1-3 days, with eosinophils
Erythema toxicum
33
[PE findings at birth] Vesiculopustular eruption over a dark macular base around the chin, neck, back and soles. contains neutrophils
Pustular melanosis
34
[PE findings at birth] Cysts appearing on the hard palate which is composed on accumulations of epithelial cells
Epstein pearls
35
[PE findings at birth] pearly white papule seen mostly on the chins and around the cheeks
Milia
36
[PE findings at birth] open and closed comedones or inflammatory pustules after a weeks from delivery
Neonatal acne
37
[PE findings at birth] pink macular lesions on the nape, glabella, upper eyelids, nasolabial region
Nevus simplex
38
[PE findings at birth] hair that covers the skin of preterm infants
Lanugo
39
[PE findings at birth] thick, white creamy material usually absent in post term infants
vernix caseosa
40
[PE findings at birth] mottling of the skin with venous prominence. Cobblestone, lacy appearance
cutis marmorata
41
What are the possible causes of absent moro reflex?
1. Clavicular fracture | 2. Brachial plexopathy
42
[Birth injury] At point of contact, can extend across sutures; shifts with gravity
Caput succedaneum
43
[Birth injury] Usually over parietal bones, does not cross sutures; more fluctuant after 48 hours, distinct margins, initially firm
Cephalhematoma
44
[Birth injury] beneath epicranial aponeurosis; may extend to orbits, nape of neck can have crepitus or fluid wave; progressive, may be massive
Subgaleal hemorrhage
45
[Diagnosis] 12hours DOL, frothing at the mouth of secretions. Regurgitated when given milk 155bom, RR 68, harsh breath sounds, good cardiac tone, soft abdomen, cyanotic lips and nailbeds
EA with TEF Dx: inability to pass an NGT or OGT in the newborn Manage: maintain patent airway, prone position, esophageal suctioning, surgery
46
What is the most common type of EA?
Type C
47
[Diagnosis] Newborn, tachypnea, grunting, use of accessory muscles with cyanosis at the 2nd hour of life, scaphoid abdomen, PMI shifted near the sternal side
Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia
48
What is the most common type of diaphragmatic hernia?
Bochdalek hernia
49
[Omphalocele vs Gastroschisis] Extrusion of abdominal viscera, present sac, below the umbilicus, umbilicus is at the center of the membrane, normal bowel and alimentation
Omphalocele more commonly associated with congenital anomalies
50
[Omphalocele vs Gastroschisis] Extrusion of abdominal viscera, no sac, lateral to the umbilicus, the umbilical cord is left of the defect, bowel is inflamed, delayed alimentation
Gastroschisis
51
[Diagnosis] Newborn. Abdominal distention with abdominal erythema ; baby cries more when touched
NEC
52
What is the histologic finding in Necrotizing enterocolitis?
Coagulation necrosis
53
___ refers to a thickened bowel walls and air in bowel wall
pneumatosis intestinalis
54
What are the triad of the pathophysiology of NEC?
1. Intestinal ischemia 2. Enteral nutrition 3. Pathologic organism
55
[Respiratory condition] AOG at which surfactant is present in fetal lung
20 weeks AOG
56
[Respiratory condition] AOG at which the surfactant is present in the amniotic fluid
28 and 32 weeks
57
[Respiratory condition] mature levels of pulmonary surfactant are present in ____
35 weeks AOG
58
What is the major component of surfactant
Phosphatidylcholine
59
Apnea is the cessation of breathing for more than ____
20 seconds or any duration if accompanied by cyanosis and bradycardia
60
What is the most common cause of apnea?
Idiopathic apnea of prematurity
61
In neonates, what is the HR to initiate CPR
<60 bpm
62
This drug is given to neonates presenting with apnea which acts a by lowering the threshold of response to hypercapnia and enhance the contractility of the diaphragm
Methyxanthine (Caffeine or theophylline)
63
What is the CXR finding of RDS
Fine reticular granularity of the parenchyma and air bronchograms
64
What is the CXR finding of TTH?
Prominent pulmonary vascular markings, fluid in the intralobar fissures, overaeration, flat diaphragm
65
[Diagnose: CXR] Finely granular lungs; ground glass appearance
Hyaline membrane disease
66
[Diagnose: CXR] prominent pulmonary vascular markings, fine lines in fissures
TTN
67
[Diagnose: CXR] bubbly lungs
Bronchopulmonary dysplasi
68
[Diagnose: CXR] Coarse streaking granular pattern of both lung fields
MAS
69
[Diagnose: CXR] Perihilar streaking
Neonatal pneumonia
70
[Jaundice: Physiologic/Pathologic] visible only on the 2nd - 3rd day
Physiologic
71
[Jaundice: Physiologic/Pathologic] decline to adult level by 10-14 days of life
Physiologic
72
[Jaundice: Physiologic/Pathologic] appears in the first 24 to 36 hours
pathologic
73
[Jaundice: Physiologic/Pathologic] serum bilirubin rising >5mg/dL/24 hours
pathologic
74
[Jaundice: Physiologic/Pathologic] TB increases >0.5mg/dL/hour
Pathologic
75
What substance in milk that contributes to breastfeeding jaundice?
Glucurinidase
76
Kernicterus results from deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in what part of the brain
ganglia and brainstem
77
[Coomb's Test] ____ detect antibodies that are bound to the surface of RBCs
Direct Coombs
78
[Coomb's Test] detects antibodies agains RBCs that are unbound
indirect coombs
79
What is the most common cause of hemolytic disease of the newborn?
ABO incompatibility
80
What are the lab test results in ABO incompatibility?
1. (+) coombs test 2. Spherocytes in blood smear 3. Hemoglobin is usually normal but maybe as low as 10-12g/dL 4. Increased reticulocyte count 5. Increased B1
81
What is injected to the mother to reduce the Rh hemolytic disease?
Anti-D gamma globulin immediately after the delivery of each Rh + infant
82
What are the Rh incompatibility lab results?
1. (+) Direct Coombs test 2. Anemia 3. Increased reticulocyte count 4. B1 rises rapidly 5. B2 may also be elevated
83
What are the conditions that are coombs test negative with high hemoglobin and increased B1?
1. Polycythemia 2. Infant of diabetic mother 3. SGA 4. Delayed cord clamping 5. Twin transfusion / maternal-fetal transfusion
84
What are the conditions that are Coombs test negative with normal / low hemoglobin and normal reticulocyte count
1. Enclosed hemorrhage 2. Increased enterohepatic circulation 3. Decreased calories 4. Disorders of conjugation
85
What are the conditions that are coombs test negative with normal / low hemoglobin and increased reticulocyte count
1. Spherocytosis 2. Elliptocytosis 3. G6PD 4. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
86
What are the conditions that can cause coomb's test positive?
1. ABO incompatibility | 2. RH incompatibility
87
[Congenital infection] vesicular lesions on the face and mouth
HSV
88
[Congenital infection] purpuric hemorrhagic lesions all over the body
Rubella
89
[Congenital infection] maculpapular rash; periostitis of the bone
syphilis
90
[Congenital infection] chorioretinitis CT: Periventricular calcifications
CMV
91
[Congenital infection] Chorioretinitis, microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly CT: Intracerebral calcifications
Toxoplasmosis
92
[Congenital infection] Cutaneous scars CT: Cortical atrophy
Varicella
93
Accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis; majority are non-communicating; resolves by 12 months
Hydrocele may be observe up to 1 year of age
94
Undescended testes may be observed up to ____ months of age
3-4 months